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Science MId Year Review (Big bang - plate tectonics)

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 4hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What Galaxy is Earth located?

a)

Andromeda

b)

Milky Way

c)

Sagittarius

d)

Snickers

2.

The distance light can travel in one year is ______________

a)

15,000 kilometers

b)

1 light-year

c)

15 Astronomical Units

d)

6,000 miles

3.
What are galaxies held together by?
a)
Gravitational Attraction
b)
Stars
c)
Other galaxies
d)
Dust and Gas
4.

Most scientists believe the Big Bang Theory explains which of the following questions?

a)

How our planets and moons formed

b)

How our universe began

c)

How the sun turns hydrogen into helium

d)

How fast light travels through space

5.

Which statement is true?

a)

The galaxies are moving toward us.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from us.

c)

The universe remains static or unchanged in motion.

d)

None of the above

6.
How old do scientists think the Universe is?
a)
13.8 billion years old
b)
4.5 billion years old
c)
24,000 years old
d)
5 years old
7.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
8.
What were the original two elements in our universe?
a)
Lithium and Carbon
b)
Hydrogen and Neon
c)
Helium and Chlorine
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
9.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

10.

The CMB (Cosmic Background Radiation) is:

a)

the remaining energy from the big bang.

b)

incredibly cool.

c)

a cloud of light

d)

only located in certain places in the universe.

11.

The gravitational attraction between two objects would increase if both masses are –

a)

increased, and the distance between them is increased.

b)

increased, and the distance between them is decreased.

c)

decreased, and the distance between them is decreased.

d)

decreased, and the distance between them is increased.

12.

Why do planets orbit the Sun?

a)

The Sun is the only celestial object that has a gravitational pull.

b)

The Sun’s chemical composition makes it attract planets.

c)

Only celestial bodies that emit light, like the Sun, can be at the center of an orbit.

d)

The Sun is the most massive object in our solar system, so it exerts the greatest gravitational pull.

13.

Gravity can be defined as the –

a)

force of attraction between two or more masses.

b)

friction created when two objects are in contact.

c)

energy given off by stars due to nuclear reactions.

d)

path an object follows as it moves through space.

14.
As distance between two objects increase the pull of gravity 
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
15.

The planets in our solar system are thought to have come from

a)

Clumps of rocky material that existed between the stars

b)

The same cloud of gas and dust that formed the sun

c)

A fast spinning young sun that flung them out over time

d)

the sun capturing them as they wandered into the sun's gravitational path.

16.
Why does the moon's gravitational pull have more of effect on tides than the sun's gravitational pull?
a)
they are the same
b)
the moon is larger than the sun
c)
tides are not caused by the moon
d)
the moon is closer to the Earth than the sun
17.
Tides are caused mainly by what?
a)
Moon’s gravitational pull
b)
Sun’s gravitational pull
c)
Earth’s gravitational pull
18.

Newton's 1st Law is also called the Law of ...

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

c)

Unbalanced forces

d)

Newtons

19.

Because of inertia, a moving object will keep ________ unless acted on by an unbalanced force.

a)

at rest

b)

moving

c)

in one spot

d)

inertia

20.
Because of inertia, a resting object will remain at ________.
a)
rest
b)
a constant speed
c)
school
d)
inertia 
21.
Friction is a force that acts in an ___________ direction of movement.
a)
similar
b)
opposite
c)
parallel
d)
west
22.
Calculate the net force shown in the  diagram?
a)
6 N
b)
0 N
c)
3 N
d)
9N
23.

What is the net force acting on this box?

a)

8N to the right

b)

5N to the left

c)

5N to the right

d)

9N to the left

24.

combine and form a net force of zero

a)

unbalanced forces

b)

newton's first law

c)

balanced forces

d)

inertia

25.

states that if the net force acting on an object is zero, the motion of the object will not change (object in motion stays in motion, object at rest stays at rest until an outside force acts on it)

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

Newton's Fourth Law

26.

What is the formula for solving force?

a)

mass x acceleration

b)

force / mass

c)

mass x velocity

d)

distance / time

27.

The acceleration due to gravity on Earth

a)

9.8 seconds

b)

9.8 m/s 2

c)

9.8 N

28.

What is the unit for force?

a)

meter

b)

m/s2

c)

mass x acceleration

d)

Newton (N)

29.

Objects that INCREASE in mass (heavier), causes the acceleration to....

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

not move

30.

It takes _______ force to move a larger/more massive object.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

same

31.

Newton's Third Law States that..?

a)

Objects in motion stay in motion and objects at rest stay at rest.

b)

Force is equal to mass times acceleration.

c)

For each action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

32.

In which of the following shows the Law of Interaction being used in our everyday lives?

a)

Person walking on earth.

b)

Animal swimming in water.

c)

Person hitting a tree.

d)

All of the above.

33.

For every action, there is...

a)

an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

mass times acceleration.

c)

food and water.

d)

none of the above.

34.
Which best explains why we are able to accelerate forward when starting to run?
a)
As one leg moves backward, it provides an equal and opposite force for the other foot to move forward.
b)
No acceleration takes place. Runners are always at a fixed velocity.
c)
The striking foot pushes backward against the ground. The friction with the ground provides an equal and opposite force forward.
d)
The runner's upper body quickly leans forward, causing the entire body to begin accelerating forward
35.

What happens when two objects, such as a baseball and a bat, collide?

a)

They hit each other with the same force in the same direction.

b)

They hit each other with the same force in opposite directions.

c)

They hit each other with unequal force in opposite directions.

d)

One remains still while the other one moves in the same direction.

36.
The equation to calculate momentum is
a)
p=mv
b)
p=1/2mv2
c)
p=mgh
d)
p=mg
37.
When two objects collide, the Pbefore is ____________ the Pafter.
a)
more than 
b)
less than 
c)
equal to
d)
unrelated to
38.

A rubber ball moving at a speed of 4 m/s hits a wall and returned to the thrower at 4 m/s. The momentum of the rubber ball:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

equals zero.

39.

When two magnets are brought close together, their magnetic __________ interact.

a)

fields

b)

poles

c)

force

40.

True or False: Like poles attract and opposite poles repel each other.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

A bar magnet is divided in two pieces. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. The bar magnet is demagnetized.

b)

B. The magnetic field of each separated piece becomes stronger.

c)

 C. The magnetic poles are separated.

d)

D. Two new bar magnets are created.

42.

What must happen for an electromagnet to have a magnetic field?

a)

  A. It must be heated.

b)

B. It has to be touching another magnet.

c)

C. It must be lined up with Earth’s magnetic field.

d)

D. It must be connected to an electrical source.

43.

Which diagram shows the shape of the magnetic field of a bar magnet

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.
A wheeled cart is moving to the right at a constant speed.  Two forces of equal magnitude are acting upon the cart. Which of the following best describes the forces and motion of the cart?
a)
Balanced Forces, Constant Speed
b)
Balanced Forces, Acceleration
c)
Unbalanced Forces, Constant Speed
d)
Unbalanced Forces, Acceleration
45.

A cat shoving a glass off a table

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

46.

A car slowing down

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

47.
Waves move ___ through vibrations
a)
Energy
b)
Matter
c)
Mass
d)
Weight
48.
Longitudinal waves are ______.
a)
Parallel
b)
Perpendicular
c)
Crazy
49.
Transverse waves are ___.
a)
Parallel
b)
Perpendicular
c)
Weird
50.

The highest point on a wave is:

a)

the crest

b)

the trough

c)

the top

d)

the coast

51.
What kind of wave is pictured below?
a)
compressional wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
sound wave
d)
mechanical wave
52.

You can't hear sounds in outer space because there is no

a)

medium

b)

light

c)

energy

d)

heat

53.

All waves carry ________ as they travel from one place to another.

a)

matter

b)

space

c)

energy

d)

water

54.
Which part of the wave is shown at letter E?
a)
trough
b)
crest
c)
resting point
d)
amplitude
55.
Any material that a wave travels through is called a ____________________.
a)
vibration
b)
compression
c)
medium
d)
crest
56.
In longitudinal waves, the parts where the coils are spread apart are called what?
a)
rarefactions
b)
compressions
c)
mechanicals
d)
longitudes
57.
In what type of wave does the medium move perpendicular to the movement of the wave?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
c)
Electromagnetic
d)
Radio
58.
In a longitudinal wave, the parts where the coils are close together are called what?
a)
longitudes
b)
rarefactions
c)
compressions
d)
contractions
59.
Which travels faster, light or sound?
a)
light
b)
sound
60.
What type of wave move a slinky back and forth?
a)
longitudinal
b)
transverse
61.
Which type of wave does sound travel in?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
62.
Which answer best explains what causes a wave?
a)
Shaking
b)
Potential energy
c)
Light
d)
Vibrations
63.
What kind of wave is pictured?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
c)
surface
d)
none of the above
64.

What does a wave carry from place to place?

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

people

65.

A wave that can travel through matter and empty space is a:

a)

electromagnetic wave

b)

longitudinal wavy

c)

transverse wave

66.

Which are properties of a mechanical wave?

a)

can be longitudinal or transverse

b)

can move through space

c)

must have matter to move

d)

carries energy

67.

Which color of visible light has the highest frequency?

a)

green

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

yellow

68.

Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

yellow

d)

green

69.

Which of the following colors of visible light has the lowest frequency?

a)

yellow

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

indigo

70.

Infrared waves have a shorter wavelength than...

a)

ultraviolet waves

b)

x-rays

c)

radio waves

d)

gamma waves

71.

The full range of frequencies of electromagnetic radiation is called

a)

visible light.

b)

radio waves.

c)

the electromagnetic spectrum.

d)

invisible radiation.

72.

Which is an example of a radio wave?

a)

television

b)

lasers

c)

remote controls

d)

cancer treatments

73.

The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that humans can see is called:

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

x-rays

74.

When wavelength increases...

a)

energy decreases

b)

energy increases

75.

the distance between peaks of adjacent electromagnetic waves is called:

a)

wavelength

b)

frequency

c)

energy

d)

amplitude

76.

Which type of electromagnetic energy carries the least energy?

a)

X-Rays

b)

Visible Light

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

Microwaves

77.

We perceive various wavelengths within the visible light spectrum as:

a)

sound

b)

color

c)

time

d)

smell

78.

Which of the following is a unit for frequency?

a)

Joules

b)

Hertz

c)

meters per second

d)

seconds

79.

A light particle is called a(n):

a)

electromagnetic wave

b)

photon

c)

electron

d)

atom

80.

If you see an object that is "red", what does this mean?

a)

The object is absorbing only red wavelengths

b)

The object is reflecting only red wavelengths

81.

What are the parts of a longitudinal wave? SELECT TWO from the choices below

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

expansion

d)

trough

82.

Which of the following describes the height of a transverse wave?

a)

frequency

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

83.

Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from low to high energy

a)

Radio, Micro, Infrared, Visible light, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma

b)

Gamma, X-ray, Ultraviolet, Visible light, Infrared, Micro, Radio

c)

Visible light, Micro, Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma, Radio

d)

Micro, Radio, Visible light, Infrared, Ultraviolet, X-ray, Gamma

84.

The areas of "expansion" between compressions of a longitudinal wave are called ________________.

a)

stretches

b)

reflection

c)

rarefaction

d)

frequency

85.

the LOWEST point in a transverse wave is called the...

a)

crest

b)

trough

c)

wavelength

d)

frequency

86.

Light that appears "red" to our eyes has a wavelength of...

a)

700 nm

b)

400 nm

c)

500 nm

d)

100 nm

87.

Arrows are close together on a force field when the force is

a)

stronger

b)

weaker

c)

opposite

88.

A compass needle points north because of Earth's magnetic field unless

a)

it is close to a wire with a current

b)

it is close to any wire

c)

it is close to a battery

89.

The electromagnetic forces from a current carrying wire are strong enough to move the compass needle. The forces can be made stronger by

a)

making the wire shorter

b)

making the wire longer

c)

making the wire into loops

90.

An electromagnet is a magnet that

a)

its strength can be varied and turned on and off

b)

always has a magnetic field around it

c)

has very little strength

91.

What THREE ways are electromagnets different from permanent magnets?

a)

they can be turned off and on

b)

they can increase in strength by increasing the current in the wire

c)

they are smaller in size

d)

they can change which is the north and south pole

92.

Permanent Magnets and Electromagnets are similar in which TWO ways?

a)

it can be turned off and on

b)

they both have a north and south pole

c)

they are surrounded by a magnetic field

93.

A force that can act at a distance is called

a)

non contact force

b)

friction

c)

balanced

94.
Bob made an electromagnet but it was very weak.  How can he make it stronger?
a)
take away a d-cell
b)
wrap the wire loosely
c)
use thicker wire
d)
use less winds
95.
Which rule explains why you would not use a brass rivet to make an electromagnet?
a)
opposites poles attract
b)
only iron and steel can become magnetized
c)
electricity flows from positive to negative
d)
metals conduct electricity
96.

How could the strength of an electromagnet be increased?

a)

by decreasing the amount of current in the electromagnet

b)

by increasing the number of coils in the wires of the electromagnet

97.

A magnetic field is

a)

something used to demagnetize pieces of metal

b)

the area in which a magnet exerts magnetic force

c)

an open area where you are likely to find natural magnets

d)

an electric charge that can be sent through a wire to make it magnetic

98.

1) A wire carries a current, creating a magnetic field around itself as shown. The current in the wire is:

a)

A. Directed to the right

b)

A. Directed to the left

c)

A. Equal to the magnetic field

d)

In the same direction as the magnetic field

99.

1) The magnetic field inside the coil shown below is directed:

a)

Into the page

b)

Out the Page

c)

To the left

d)

Towards the bottom of the page

100.

1) In the figure, using the right hand rule around a solenoid, which of the below statements is correct:

a)

North Pole is 7 and South pole is 8

b)

North Pole is 8 and South Pole is 7

c)

There is no magnet, so no north or south

d)

The current is flowing in the direction from 7 to 8

101.

1) A bar magnet is at rest, next to a fixed electromagnet. In which direction will the bar magnet move when switch S is closed?

a)

to the left

b)

to the right

c)

up the page

d)

down the page

102.

Which best describes how a motor works?

a)

When a fan blows on a wire, it causes it to spin, creating a force.

b)

When a fan blows on a wire, it causes it to spin, creating an electrical current.

c)

When a wire that carries electrical current is placed in zero gravity, the wire experiences a force.

d)

When a wire that carries electrical current is placed in a magnetic field, the wire experiences a force.

103.
If you replace the paper clip with a plastic spoon, what happens?
a)
The bulb doesn't light
b)
The bulb is dimmer
c)
The wires get hot
d)
There is no change
104.

What is the energy transfer in a generator?

a)

Mechanical to Electrical

b)

Physical to Potential

c)

Electrical to Mechanical

d)

Yogurt to Light

105.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
106.
What type of event will occur at this boundary?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Volcano Eruption
c)
Tornado
d)
Mountain Building
107.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
108.
A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....
a)
Pull apart
b)
Come together
c)
Slide past each other
d)
subducting
109.

Which of the following is the name of the ancient supercontinent formed 280 Million Years ago.

a)

Pangea

b)

Gondwanda

c)

Laurasia

d)

Neverland

110.
Which of the following is NOT evidence to support the theory of plate tectonics?
a)
Fossils
b)
Mountains
c)
Glaciers
d)
Sand Erosion
111.
What geologic feature/event you be most likely to find at a transform boundary?
a)
Earthquakes
b)
Volcanoes
c)
Mountains
d)
Rift Valleys
112.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)
Flat land
113.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?
a)
Volcano
b)
Mountain
c)
Rift
d)
Island Arc
114.
The core is mostly made up mostly of which elements?
a)
Oxygen and Silicon
b)
Silicon and Magnesium
c)
Nickel and Iron
d)
Iron and Magnesium
115.
How are scientist able to estimate the thickness of each layer of the Earth?By studying __________
a)
 radio waves
b)
sonar waves
c)
laser waves
d)
seismic waves
116.
This is the plastic layer of the mantle on which pieces of the lithosphere move.
a)
Lithosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Crust
117.
This layer is divided into pieces called tectonic plates.
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Mantle
d)
Lithosphere
118.
A giant landmass that existed 200 million years ago
a)
Wegener
b)
Pangaea
c)
Archyopteryx
d)
Ammonite
119.
Which piece of evidence did Wegener use to prove continental drift?
a)
The shape of the continents
b)
Similar fossils found on separate continents
c)
Tree fossils found in odd places
d)
All of the above
120.
As you travel from the inner core to the crust, how would temperature, pressure and density of the material change?
a)
The would all increase
b)
The would all decrease.
c)
Nothing, the layers are made of the same material throughout
d)
Temperature would decrease, but pressure and density would increase
121.
Which of the following changes would end Earth's tectonic activity?
a)
Earth's crust becomes a cooler solid
b)
Earth's mantles becomes a warmer semiliquid
c)
Earth's mantle becomes cooler and solid.
d)
Earth's outer core becomes warmer
122.
Convection currents in the mantle are thought to be the driving force behind tectonic movement. At which location do the convection currents cause the plates to diverge?
a)
strike-slip fault
b)
subduction zone
c)
mid oceanic ridges
d)
folded mountains.
123.
The diagram shows what can occur when two continental plates collide.Which characteristic of the Indian Plate explains why it moves under the Eurasian Plate?
a)
It is larger.
b)
It is denser.
c)
It is molten.
d)
It is younger.
124.

What do we call an area where more then two plates interact in different ways

a)

plate boundary zones

b)

hot spots

c)

convergent boundaries

d)

subduction

125.

Mixture of minerals, volcanic glass, organic matter, or other material

a)

Brick

b)

Soda Pop Bottle

c)

Steel

d)

Rock

126.

A model showing the processes that create and change rock.

a)

Water Cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

c)

Rock Cycle

d)

Nitrogen Cycle

127.

_________ rock can be changed by heat and pressure into metamorphic rock.

a)

Large

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Hard

d)

Soft

128.

__________ rock can be broken into fragments that may later form sedimentary rock.

a)

Igneous

b)

Hard

c)

Soft

d)

Small

129.

______ rock can melt and cool to form igneous rock.

a)

Soft

b)

Hard

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Large

130.

Magma that reaches the surface flows from a volcano as ____________

a)

Magma

b)

Water

c)

Ice

d)

Lava

131.

Magma trapped below the surface forms large – grained ______________ rock when it cools.

a)

Extrusive

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Intrusive

132.

Magma cooling at or near Earth’s surface forms small-grained __________ igneous rock.

a)

Extrusive

b)

Intrusive

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Metamorphic

133.

Igneous rocks are classified in 2 ways.

a)

Heavy and Light

b)

Hot and Cold

c)

Sedimentary and Metamorphic

d)

Extrusive and Intrusive

134.

Volcanic glass rock (obsidian) __________ so quickly that few crystals form.

a)

break

b)

melt

c)

cool

d)

flow

135.

_____________ and ______________ result from one layer of rock on top of another layer.

a)

Tall and short

b)

Heat and pressure

c)

Big and small

d)

Sand and gravel

136.

Sometimes temperature and pressure are great enough to melt rock, forming ______________.

a)

magma

b)

lava

c)

water

d)

sandstone

137.

_____________ texture – mineral grains flatten and line up in parallel layers or bands.

a)

Sandstone

b)

Limestone

c)

Granite

d)

Foliated

138.

_______ texture - mineral grains grow and rearrange but do not form layers.

a)

Drywall

b)

Non-foliated

c)

Smooth

d)

Rough

139.

Sometimes ____________ flattens mineral grains in rocks without melting them.

a)

lava

b)

cold

c)

pressure

d)

granite

140.

Type of rock mostly found on the exposed surface of Earth.

a)

Igneous

b)

Granite

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Sedimentary

141.

Sedimentary Rocks form in

a)

Layers

b)

the desert only

c)

underground

d)

on top of water

142.

Rock fragments, mineral grains, and bits of plants and animal remains moved by wind, water, ice or gravity are called _________________.

a)

sediments

b)

granite

c)

marble

d)

sandstone

143.

When water and other minerals move through open spaced between larger sediments, gluing them together, ____________ occurs.

a)

Compaction

b)

Deposition

c)

Cementation

d)

Erosion

144.

_________ ___________ rocks are made from the remains of once – living plants or animals.

a)

Igneous and metamorphic

b)

Clastic sedimentary

c)

Chemical sedimentary

d)

Organic sedimentary