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PS/S FINAL EXAM REVIEW 2024

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A process used by scientists to gather evidence that leads to understanding is _______.

a)

the scientific method

b)

continental drift

c)

the big bang theory

2.

Which of the following statements about density is TRUE?

a)

density is a physical property of matter and sizes doesn't matter.

b)

density is not a property of matter and so density depends on the size of the object.

c)

density of a small piece of gold and a large piece of gold will be different.

3.

Particles will move faster and farther apart when its state changes from _______.

a)

liquid to solid

b)

gas to liquid

c)

liquid to gas

4.

The force that ALWAYS opposes motion is called (a)   .

5.

Which of the following is a unit of speed?

a)
m/s
b)

m/s2          

c)

N

6.

Which of the following is NOT accelerated motion?

a)

a ball being juggled

b)

a person walking at 2.5 m/s along a straight road

c)

a braking cyclist

7.

Inertia is the resistance of a physical object to change its state of (a)   .

8.

Any change in an object’s velocity is caused by ____________.

a)

the object’s mass

b)

a balanced force

c)

an unbalanced force

9.

The gravitational force between two objects is proportional to their ___ and decreases rapidly as the distance between the masses ___.

a)

masses, increases

b)

distance, decrease

c)

masses, decreases

10.

(a)   is defined as mass times velocity.

11.

Newton’s first law of motion applies to _________.

     

a)

only objects that are moving   

b)

all objects, whether moving or not      

c)

only objects at rest

12.

Kinetic energy is _____________.

a)

energy of motion                   

           

b)

energy of position   

c)

non-mechanical energy

13.

When the motion of an object is shown by a straight line on a distance vs. time graph with distance on the y-axis (dependent), the slope of the line is the (a)   of the object.

14.

________ is the energy created by wind turning wind turbines.

a)
wind
b)

geothermal                 

c)

nuclear

15.

Renewable resources ...

               

                   

a)

are not replaceable  

b)

used more frequently  

c)

never going to run out

16.

Which of the following is a renewable resource?

a)
solar
b)

oil

c)

natural gas

17.

Geologists classify a certain section of Earth as lithosphere. Which of the following could it be?

a)
tectonic plate
b)

outer core        

c)

inner core

18.

Three common states of matter are ___.

a)

S,L,G

b)

S,P, G

19.

What is one disadvantage of using wind power?

a)

     it is renewable           

b)

it is not always windy

c)

wind is everywhere

20.

Natural Gas is a __________ energy resource.

a)
non renewable
b)

renewable

21.

An atom of nitrogen has how many electrons?

a)

7

b)

14.01

c)

21

22.

Forces that shape Earth’s surface can be divided into what two groups?

a)

constructive and physical.

b)

constructive and destructive.

c)

chemical and destructive.

23.

What is the reaction force when you place a cup on a table?

a)

the force of the cup down on the table  

b)

the force of gravity up on the cup

c)

the force of the table up on the cup

24.

The SI unit of force, named after the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the ______.

a)

 Newton.                       

b)

Smithsonian

c)

Einstein.

25.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of wind energy?

a)

  it is renewable         

b)

it is not always windy

c)

wind is everywhere 

26.

What is a renewable energy source?

a)

An energy source that can be used up and never replaced  

 

b)

An energy source that produces a lot of pollution

c)

 An energy source that can be replenished naturally over time  

 

27.

Which of the following indicate that an object has been subjected to an unbalanced force?

a)

The object speeds up.

b)

The object slows down.         

c)

Both a and b are correct

28.

Which of the following correctly states Newton's third law of motion? Forces occur in matched pairs that are ______.

a)

equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.

b)

equal in magnitude and equal in direction

c)

opposite in magnitude and equal in direction.

29.

What is a variable could be tested in our wind turbine design?

a)

The color of the blades        

                   

    

b)

The shape of the blades  

c)

The type of soil the turbine is placed on  

30.

The gravitational force between any two objects is dependent on their ____.

a)

gravity constants and distance apart.

b)

masses and distance apart

c)

distance apart and density

31.

Compared to your weight and mass on Earth, if you were on the moon ________.

a)

your weight and mass would both be less

b)

your weight would be less, but your mass would remain the same

c)

your weight would remain the same, but your mass would be less.

32.

The ________ variable is plotted on the x-axis of a graph.

a)

dependent

b)

control

c)

independent

33.

Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable energy source?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Wind energy

c)

Coal

34.

Which statement illustrates Newton’s first law?

a)

A stone will not move unless something pushes or pulls it.

b)

A ball rolling across the floor eventually slows down.

c)

Both a and b

35.

Which object has the greatest inertia?

a)

tennis ball

b)

bowling ball

c)

beach ball

36.

What force causes a skater sliding on the ice to gradually slow down?

a)

balanced force

b)

inertia

c)

friction

37.

A seat belt helps you when your car stops suddenly by providing a(n)

a)

balanced forward force.

b)

balanced backward force

c)

unbalanced backward force.

38.

One newton (N) is equal to 1kg per ________

a)

1 m/s.

b)

9.8 m/s.

c)

1 m/s².

39.

Which of the following will result in the greatest acceleration?

a)

56 N acting on a 1-kg box

b)

56 N acting on a 2-kg box

c)

23 N acting on a 2-kg box

40.

What is net force?

a)

The negative force acting on an object

b)

The force required to move an object

c)

applied force and resistance force

41.

Which of the following forces can both attract and repel?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Electromagnetic force

c)

Strong nuclear force

42.

A 0.25 kg steel ball experiences a net force of 1.15 N as it rolls down a ramp. What is the acceleration of the ball?

a)

0.29 m/s²

b)

0.90 m/s²

c)

4.6 m/s²

43.

What is a force?

a)

A push or pull on an object

b)

The speed of an object

c)

The mass of an object

44.

A baseball accelerates downward at 9.8 m/s². The force pulling the ball downward is 1.4 N. What is the mass of the baseball?

a)

3.2 kg

b)

0.4 kg

c)

0.14 kg

45.

What is velocity?

a)

Speed in a given direction

b)

Distance in a given direction

c)

Speed without direction

46.

The force exerted on the racket by a hit tennis ball is the

a)

gravitational force

b)

reaction force

c)

acceleration

47.

What force holds the nucleus together?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Electromagnetic force

c)

Strong nuclear force

48.

An object’s momentum is determined by the object’s ______. (Hint: Think about the variables in the momentum equation)

a)

weight and velocity

b)

mass and acceleration

c)

mass and velocity

49.

Two identical cars are traveling at equal speeds. One is going north and the other south. If they collide head-on and stick together, what will happen to the motion of the cars?

a)

Both cars will move north

b)

Both cars will move south

c)

Both cars will stop

50.

What is the momentum of a 255 g apple falling at 16.0 m/s?

a)

4.08 m/s² downward

b)

4.08 kg • m/s downward

c)

15.9 m/s² downward

51.

Which of the following has a momentum of zero?

a)

newspaper lying on a table

b)

plane flying through the air

c)

leaf falling to the ground

52.

When a moving bowling ball hits a pin, some of the ball’s momentum

a)

doubles in force.

b)

increases the pin’s mass.

c)

is transferred to the pin.

53.

What is a vector quantity?

a)

A quantity with only magnitude

b)

A quantity with both magnitude and direction

c)

A quantity with only direction

54.

How does the total momentum of two objects before a collision compare with the total momentum after the collision?

a)

It is the same.

b)

It is less.

c)

It is equal to zero.

55.

Speeding up, slowing down, and changing direction is best described as

a)

speed

b)

distance

c)

acceleration.

56.

The slope of a line on a distance-time graph is

a)

distance.

b)

time

c)

speed

57.

During which section of the graph above (Figure 1-1) is the person NOT moving at all?

a)

O-A

b)

C-D

c)

E-F

58.

During which section is the person going back the way they came?

a)

B-C

b)

O-A

c)

A-B

59.

Moving from 0 m/s to 25 m/s in 8.0 s equals an average acceleration of ____.

a)

0.312 m/s.

b)

0.312 m/s^2.

c)

3.12 m/s^2.

60.

On a velocity vs. time graph, what shows the value of the acceleration?

a)

the slope of the line

b)

the y-axis

c)

the x-axis

61.

What happens when a car slows down and velocity changes?

a)

positive acceleration

b)

negative acceleration

c)

constant acceleration

62.

What is the layer directly beneath Earth’s crust called?

a)

outer core

b)

inner core

c)

mantle

63.

Because of intense pressure, the inner core of Earth is

a)

liquid.

b)

solid.

c)

gaseous.

64.

Which of the following gives evidence for plate tectonics?

a)

magnetic alignment of oceanic rock

b)

cooling molten rock

c)

the age of Earth’s crust

65.

Mid-oceanic ridges are formed by ________.

a)

bends and folds along the subduction zone.

b)

the diving of oceanic plates.

c)

collisions of Earth’s continental crust.

66.

Where do most earthquakes occur?

a)

along convergent boundaries

b)

at vents in Earth’s crust

c)

along shifting plate boundaries

67.

The location on Earth’s surface where most earthquake damage occurs is called the ________.

a)

focus.

b)

epicenter.

c)

vent.

68.

Longitudinal waves are called primary waves because they ________.

a)

are shaped like a “P.”

b)

reach recording stations first.

c)

only move across Earth’s surface.

69.

A __________ wave does not originate from the focus.

a)

surface

b)

transverse

c)

direct

70.

Which of the following statements is not true about the Richter scale?

a)

The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake.

b)

Earthquakes with equal ratings do not have the same severity.

c)

The Richter scale allows us to make predictions of earthquake severity.

71.

Where do volcanoes tend to form?

a)

convergent plate boundaries

b)

divergent plate boundaries

c)

both a and b are correct

72.

Shield volcanoes are known for their ______________.

a)
mild eruptions.
b)

small size

c)

             viscous Magma

73.

What determines the severity of volcanic eruptions?

a)

composition of magma

b)

size of the volcano

c)

number of vents

74.

Volcanoes that form along convergent plate boundaries are located _________.

a)

along the Ring of Fire.           

               

b)

at high altitudes.    

c)

at the edges of plate collisions.    

75.

Cinder cone and composite volcanoes both____________.

a)

go dormant quickly.          

         

b)

have trapped gas.                                    

c)

have mild eruptions.

76.

Which of these does not support the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Some continental coastlines fit together.

b)

Similar fossils are found on separate continents.

c)

Earth’s core is solid.

77.

A geologic feature of divergent plate boundaries in oceanic crust is the formation of

a)

mountain ranges.

b)

U-shaped valleys

c)

faults.

78.

A zone where oceanic crust dives beneath continental crust is called a zone of

a)

subduction.

b)

divergence

c)

coastal

79.

Earthquakes occur mostly__________.

a)

in the middle of continents.

b)

reduction.

c)

in the asthenosphere.

80.

A cinder cone is caused by _____________.

a)

converging plates

b)

large amounts of gas trapped in the magma

c)

vents

81.

Composite volcanoes are made up of __________.

a)

many layers of ash, cinders, and lava.      

  

b)

many layers of lava rich in magnesium and iron. 

c)

many layers of cinder

82.

What causes an earthquake to occur?

a)

Stress forces exceed the strength of rock

b)

Magma forces the crust apart

c)

Mountains become too tall and break the surface under them

83.

The motion of tectonic plates causes stretching, which produces faults and folds in Earth’s crust.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Short, isolated chains of volcanoes, such as the Hawaiian Islands, occur at __________.

a)
  1. divergent boundaries.   

b)

convergent boundaries.

c)

hot spots.

85.

What type of structure forms when magma hardens in a volcano’s pipe?

a)
  1. batholith

b)

a sill

c)

a volcanic neck

86.

A quiet eruption occurs when a volcano is filled with __________.

a)

very hot, low-silica magma.                    

                    

 

b)

high-silica magma.  

c)

cinders and lava bombs.

87.

What information has been found from seismograms of earthquakes?

a)

the size and shape of tectonic plates

b)

the location of liquid and solid layers in Earth’s interior

c)

the location and strength of Earth’s magnetic field

88.

What is a frame of reference?

a)

A system of objects that are moving with respect to one another 

     

b)

A system of objects that are not moving with respect to one another

c)

The distance between two points

89.

Which of the following is not a rock?

a)

 granite.           

                                            

b)

 sandstone   

c)

quartz

90.

The slope of a line on a distance-time graph is

a)

distance

b)

time

c)

speed

91.

During which section of the graph above (Figure 1-1) is the person NOT moving at all?

a)

    O-A                                                       

b)

C-D 

c)

E-F

92.

During which section is the person going back the way they came?

a)

B-C 

b)

O-A

c)

A-B