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Physics Final Exam Review Game

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is another important factor to consider for vehicle safety besides road quality?

a)

Driver's experience

b)

Vehicle maintenance

c)

Traffic laws

d)

All of the above

2.

What trend is observed in number of deaths from vehicles between 1920 and 2015?

a)

The number of deaths increased.

b)

The number of deaths remained constant.

c)

The number of deaths decreased.

d)

The number of deaths showed no clear trend.

3.

What might be a possible reason for the decrease in the number of people injured per crash in the US as shown in the graph from 1996 to 2019?

a)

A) Decrease in the number of cars on the road

b)

B) Improvement in road safety and vehicle design

c)

C) Increase in the number of unreported incidents

d)

D) Shorter distances driven by the average driver

4.

At what point during a collision does a safety feature like an airbag typically activate?

a)

Before the first moment of contact between the vehicles

b)

At the first moment of contact between the vehicles

c)

After the first moment of contact between the vehicles

d)

It does not activate during collisions

5.

How would the forces in a collision differ if crumple zones were not present in the vehicle?

a)

The forces would be less intense, spreading over a longer duration

b)

The forces would be more intense, concentrated in a shorter duration

c)

The forces would be redirected to the rear of the vehicle

d)

There would be no significant change in the forces

6.

What is the function of collision sensors in vehicles?

a)

To secure passengers with a belt

b)

To absorb impact in a crash

c)

To detect potential collisions and assist in activating safety measures

d)

To keep the vehicle in the correct seating position

7.

What is the function of the crumple zone in a vehicle during a crash?

a)

To keep kids in seats

b)

To automatically brake the vehicle

c)

To absorb impacts during crash

d)

To protect passengers after the crash

8.

At 30 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 

a)

0 m

b)

5 m

c)

10 m

d)

30 m

9.

How long did it take this object to travel 40 m?

a)

0 s

b)

50 s

c)

60 s

d)

15 s

10.

What is the speed of an object that covers 100 meters in 5 seconds?

a)

500 m/s

b)

20 m/s

c)

0.05 m/s

d)

20 mph

11.

An object moves from a position of 20 m to a position of 50 m in 6 seconds. What is its velocity?

a)

5 m/s

b)

0.5 m/s

c)

10 m/s

d)

30 m/s

12.

What is the velocity of the object in this graph?

a)

4 m/s

b)

-3 m/s

c)

0 m/s

d)

-5 m/s

13.

What is the initial position of the object?

a)

4 m

b)

6 m

c)

8 m

d)

10 m

14.

What is the average velocity of this object?

a)

+0.5 m/s

b)

-0.5 m/s

c)

+2 m/s

d)

-2 m/s

15.

What is the unit for position?

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s/s

16.

What is the unit for time?

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s/s

17.

At 6 s what is the object's velocity?

a)

5 m/s

b)

16 m/s

c)

15 m/s

d)

20 m/s

18.

On a Position-Time Graph position is located on the _________.

a)

x axis

b)

y axis

19.

On a Position-Time Graph time is located on the _________.

a)

x - axis

b)

y - axis

20.

What is the unit for velocity?

a)

m

b)

s

c)

m/s

d)

m/s/s

21.

A cyclist has a reaction time of 0.3 seconds. If they are traveling at a velocity of 60 m/s, how far will they travel in the time it takes to react?

a)

15 meters

b)

20 meters

c)

18 meters

d)

12 meters

22.

What distance will a car cover in 20 seconds if it is moving at a speed of 15 m/s?

a)

200 meters

b)

250 meters

c)

300 meters

d)

350 meters

23.

A position vs time graph for a driver is shown. Around what time did the driver start to brake?

a)

1 seconds

b)

2 seconds

c)

4 seconds

d)

5 seconds

24.

Around what time did the driver come to a complete stop?

a)

1 seconds

b)

2 seconds

c)

4 seconds

d)

5 seconds

25.

What is NOT important in calculating the reaction time of a driver?

a)

The time of the stimulus

b)

The time at which they respond (brake/swerve)

c)

The amount of time they were traveling before the collision

26.

Which of the following does NOT make reaction distance higher?

a)

Faster speed

b)

Lower speed

c)

Texting and driving

d)

Longer reaction time

27.
What's the object's motion?
a)
Going up
b)
Going backwards
c)
Getting faster
d)
Getting slower
28.

A pro gamer has a reaction time of 0.15 s. While taking a computer reaction time test, a friend talks loudly to the gamer acting as a distraction. The gamer's new reaction time will likely be...

a)

slower

b)

faster

c)

the same

29.

The equation for momentum is?

a)

momentum = velocity - mass

b)

momentum = velocity/ mass

c)

momentum = mass x acceleration

d)

momentum = mass x velocity

30.

What is true about the relationship between mass and momentum.

a)

The less mass an object has, the more momentum it will have.

b)

The more mass an object has, the less momentum it will have.

c)

The more mass an object has, the more momentum it will have.

d)

Mass has nothing to do with momentum.

31.

If both dogs have the same velocity, which one has the greater momentum?

a)

The big dog

b)

The small dog

32.
The momentum of an object depends upon the object's ___________&_____________.  
a)
size and shape
b)
mass and speed
c)
mass and veloctiy
d)
mass and energy
33.
In any collision (crash) the ______ is ALWAYS constant
a)
Total Momentum
b)
total speed
c)
total Velocity
d)
Energy
34.
What is the unit for momentum?
a)
m/sec
b)
kg/sec
c)
kg/m
d)
kg m/sec
35.
What is the unit for velocity?
a)
m/sec
b)
kg/sec
c)
kg/m
d)
kg m/sec
36.

What is the change in momentum of a 5.0 kg car that accelerates from 3 m/s to 7 m/s?

a)

20 kg*m/s

b)

15 kg*m/s

c)

10 kg*m/s

d)

25 kg*m/s

37.

What is the change in momentum of a 3.0 kg bicycle that speeds up from 2 m/s to 8 m/s?

a)

18 kg*m/s

b)

12 kg*m/s

c)

24 kg*m/s

d)

36 kg*m/s

38.

A compact car and a semi truck collide. Which will have a greater change in motion?

a)

Compact Car

b)

Semi Truck

c)

They will have the same change in motion

39.

A compact car and a semi truck collide. Which will feel a greater force ?

a)

Compact Car

b)

Semi Truck

c)

They will have the same force, but in opposite directions

40.

Two nearly identical compact cars collide. One is at rest before the collision. Which will have a greater change in velocity?

a)
The car at rest before the collision
b)
The car in motion before the collision
c)
The change in motion cannot be determined
d)

Both cars will have the same change in velocity

41.

Two nearly identical compact cars collide. One is at rest before the collision. Which will feel a greater force?

a)
The car at rest before the collision
b)
The car in motion before the collision
c)

The force cannot be determined

d)

Both cars will have the same force, but in opposite directions

42.

 

A trampoline increases __________________, which in turn decreases _____________________.

a)

force / time

b)

time / force

c)

mass / weight

d)

acceleration / velocity

43.

Clearly it is safer to jump from a ladder onto a mound of hay rather than onto bare concrete. Which explanation is best as to why this is so.

a)

The collision occurs over a longer time period but with a lower force.

b)

Less momentum is lost when jumping onto hay.

c)

The collision occurs over a shorter time period but with a lower force.

d)

There is a greater change of momentum when jumping onto concrete.

44.

An airbag is a vehicle safety device. It is designed to protect occupants during an automobile collision by inflating rapidly. The primary function of an airbag is to _______ the impact force by distributing it over a larger area and increasing the time over which it acts.

a)

neutralize

b)

amplify

c)

reduce

d)

concentrate

45.

How you can decrease the force of impact to an object?

a)

by increasing the time

b)

by decreasing the time

c)

by changing the momentum

d)

by changing the impulse

46.

A 20 kg cart speeds up from 1 m/s to 3 m/s. What is its change in momentum?

a)
30 kg*m/s
b)
50 kg*m/s
c)
40 kg*m/s
d)
25 kg*m/s
47.

Which of the following statements is most accurate for the image?

a)

This circuit will work because it is a closed circuit.

b)

Energy will freely flow in this circuit.

c)

This circuit will not work because there is no energy source.

d)

This circuit will not work because there is no switch.

48.
Which statement is true?
a)
The light bulb will light up because the  circuit is complete.
b)
The light bulb will light up because the  circuit is broken.
c)
The light bulb will not light up because the  circuit is complete.
d)
The light bulb will not light up because the  circuit is broken.
49.

What is the power source in this circuit?

a)

Bulb

b)

Switch

c)

Wire

d)

Battery

50.
An incomplete circuit is shown.
To complete the circuit, a wire should be placed from —
a)
Point D to Point C
b)
Point B to Point C
c)
Point A to Point D
d)
Point B to Point D
51.
Which bulbs will light?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 and 4
d)
4 and 2
52.

Why is electrical wiring usually covered with a layer of plastic?

a)

To make it look pretty

b)

To help electricity flow along the wire

c)

To make it safe

d)

To add more energy

53.
What is the function of the light bulb in a circuit?
a)
It increases the strength of the electricity.
b)
It changes electricity to light energy.
c)
It provides electricity to the battery.
d)
It opens and closes the circuit.
54.

The circuit on the left is not complete (the light is off) because:

a)

the switch is closed

b)

the switch is open

c)

the battery is missing

d)

the battery is in backwards

55.

A short circuit occurs when...

a)

There is an incomplete path of metal in a circuit

b)

There are too many light bulbs in the circuit

c)

The battery or energy source is only connected at one location

d)

There is a complete path in the circuit with no electrically powered device

56.

Which of the following will NOT have a negative impact on current flow in a wire?

a)

A smaller diameter

b)

Cold/freezing temperature around the wire

c)

The material of the wire

57.

Which of the following accurately describes the energy transfer in a generator?

a)

Rod --> Magnet --> Fields --> Coil of wire --> Light

b)

Light --> coil of wire --> Fields --> Magnet --> Rod

c)

Coil of wire --> Nail/rod --> magnet --> light --> Fields

d)

Coil of wire --> light --> Rod --> magnet --> Fields

58.

Which of the following BEST explains how a generator works?

a)

A generator is connected to a battery which creates a current through the coil of wire.

b)

A magnet spins and gives energy to the coil of wire.

c)

A spinning magnet gives a changing magnetic field which creates an electric field. The electric field creates a current inside the coil of wire.

d)

An electric current moving through the coil of wire creates a magnetic field. This causes the magnet to spin.

59.

An electric current is defined as the flow of ? through a conductor.

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

lithium

d)

insulator

60.

Which of the following describes an ENERGY SOURCE for an electrical grid?

a)

Power lines

b)

Substation

c)

Natural Gas Power Plant

d)

School

61.

Which of the following describes the supply and demand issue in Texas during the energy crisis?

a)

Power plants were overproducing. The communities did not need that much energy.

b)

The power lines were freezing. The people turned up their heat to unfreeze them.

c)

People were using more power to heat their homes. The power plants were failing due to the cold weather.

d)

The power plants were failing due to the cold weather in Texas. Other states redirected their power to help out.

62.

What happens when a switch in an electrical circuit is turned off?

a)

The circuit becomes complete and the device turns on.

b)

The circuit remains unchanged and the device stays in its current state.

c)

The circuit becomes incomplete, stopping the flow of electricity and turning the device off.

d)

The circuit overloads, causing a potential short circuit.

63.

Which of the following devices does not rely on the principles of electromagnetic radiation for its operation?

a)

A remote control sending a signal to a television

b)

A flashlight emitting light in a dark room

c)

A radio receiving broadcast from a local station

d)

A mechanical clock ticking on a wall

64.

A light wave traveling through air has a frequency of 600,000,000 Hz. What is its waves peed if the wavelength is 0.5 meters?

a)

300,000,000 m/s

b)

500,000 m/s

c)

600,000,000 m/s

d)

350,000 m/s

65.

A light wave has a frequency of 400,000,000 Hz. What is its wavelength if the speed of light is 300,000,000 m/s?

a)

0.75 meters

b)

1.33 meters

c)

750 meters

d)

0.5 meters

66.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation has a higher frequency, X-rays or radio waves?

a)

X-rays and radio waves have the same frequency

b)

Radio waves have a higher frequency than X-rays

c)

X-rays have a higher frequency than radio waves

d)

The frequency comparison cannot be determined

67.

How do cell phone towers transmit information?

a)

Through sound waves

b)

Using physical cables

c)

By electromagnetic radiation

d)

Via thermal energy

68.

What type of radiation are most likely used by cell phone networks use to send signals?

a)

Radio Waves and Microwaves

b)

Infrared Rays and Visible Light

c)

Visible Light and Ultraviolet

d)

Gamma Rays and X-Rays

69.

Based on the electromagnetic spectrum diagram, which type of wave has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Radio Waves

b)

Microwaves

c)

Infrared Light

d)

Gamma Rays

70.

Which of the following is not a form of the electromagnetic radiation?

a)

Visible Light

b)

X-Rays

c)

Sound Waves

d)

UV Rays

71.

What is the claim about electromagnetic radiation is not true?

a)

Gamma radiation can cause cancer

b)

Microwave radiation is less dangerous than X-rays

c)

Visible light poses great danger to humans and animals

d)

Ultraviolet light can cause skin cancer or sunburns

72.

As the wavelength of a wave increases, what happens to the frequency of the wave?

a)
Frequency decreases
b)
Frequency becomes negative
c)
Frequency remains constant
d)
Frequency increases
73.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between amplitude and frequency?

a)
Directly related
b)
No relationship
c)
Amplitude and frequency are the same
d)
Inversely related
74.

Which of the following forms of electromagnetic radiation is most dangerous?

a)
Visible light
b)
Microwaves
c)
Ultraviolet radiation
d)

Gamma radiation

75.

Which will likely cause more damage, a high amplitude microwave or a medium amplitude x-ray?

a)
medium amplitude x-ray
b)

high amplitude microwave

76.

When wavelength increases...

a)

energy decreases

b)

energy increases

77.

the distance between peaks of electromagnetic waves is called:

a)

wavelength

b)

frequency

c)

energy

d)

Planck's Constant

78.

Which type of electromagnetic energy carries the least energy?

a)

X-Rays

b)

Visible Light

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

Microwaves

79.

Radio waves are:

a)

short wavelength electromagnetic waves.

b)

short wavelength sound waves.

c)

long wavelength electromagnetic waves.

d)

long wavelength sound waves.

80.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
81.

Which color has the longest wavelength?

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Purple

82.
Infrared waves are used in__________________.
a)
Bath tubs
b)
Microwaves
c)
Remote Controls
d)
Tanning