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Final Exam Review (CAS Biology)

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Am autotroph can:

a)

Make its own food

b)

Make its own water

c)

Make its own oxygen

d)

Make its own carbon

2.

What type of energy conversion occurs in photosynthesis?

a)

Light from the sun to chemical in glucose

b)

Chemical in glucose to chemical in ATP

3.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

4.
Where do the light-dependent reactions occur? 
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma
c)
mesophyll
d)
mitochondria
5.
Where does the Calvin Cycle occur?
a)
thylakoid
b)
stroma
c)
lumen
d)
mitochondria
6.
What pigment absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
7.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
8.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
9.
The formula for glucose is...
a)
C12 H22 O11
b)
NaCl
c)
NaOH
d)
C6 H12 O6
10.

what are the products of the light reactions

a)

thylakoid

b)

oxygen

c)

ATP

d)

NADPH

11.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
12.
Where does glycolysis take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Stroma
c)
Thylakoid
d)
Mitochondria
13.
Glucose is broken down during which process
a)
Krebs cycle
b)
Calvin cycle
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Photosynthesis
14.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
15.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
16.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
17.

Which statement is true regarding cellular respiration?

a)

The reactants of cellular respiration are identical to the reactants of photosynthesis.

b)

The reactants of cellular respiration are obtained from the products of photosynthesis.

c)

The products of cellular respiration are the same as the products of photosynthesis

d)

Cellular respiration only occurs in autotrophs, photosynthesis occurs only in heterotrophs.

18.

Glucose molecules store _____________.

a)

chemical energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

gravitational potential energy

d)

heat energy

19.

The energy stored in glucose is transferred to ________________.

a)

A molecule known as ATP

b)

A molecule known as ADP

c)

water molecules

d)

oxygen molecules

20.
Where does aerobic respiration take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
21.
Which type of respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen?
a)
Aerobic
b)
Anaerobic
22.

Identical halves of a chromosome are called?

a)

Cousins

b)

Chromatids

c)

Centromere

d)

Centrosome

23.

Chromosomes are visible and spindle fibers start to appear

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

24.

Sister Chromatids separate from each other

a)

prophase

b)

telophase

c)

anaphase

d)

metaphase

25.

Having only one copy of each chromsome

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

triploid

d)

octoploid

26.

After mitosis the number of chromosomes in the newly created cells will be:

a)

Half the number of the original cell

b)

The same number as the original cell

c)

Twice as much as the original cell

27.

The division of chromosomes is called?

a)

anaphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokineses

d)

G0

28.

The division of the cytoplasm is called?

a)

anaphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokineses

d)

G0

29.

Non dividing state of the cell cycle

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Telophase

d)

Cytokinesis

30.

Uncontrolled growth can result in:

a)

G0 phase

b)

S phase

c)

Replication

d)

Cancer

31.

Responsible for making sure that the cell is ready to divide

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

M checkpoint

d)

G0 checkpoint

32.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
33.
During which part of the cell cycle is DNA copied?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
S phase
34.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
35.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Interphase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Telophase
36.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
37.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
38.
What is shown in the picture?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Cytokinesis
39.

The stage of mitosis where the sister chromatids separate:

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

40.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
41.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

42.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

43.

What is unique to Prophase I- is that the duplicated chromosomes pair up to form _______.

a)

a centrosome

b)

a tetrad

c)

the mitotic spindle

d)

sister chromatids

44.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

45.

In Metaphase I, tetrads line up along the _______.

a)

mitotic spindle

b)

centrosomes

c)

equatorial plane

d)

contractile ring

46.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

47.

Check all of the following that DO occur during Telophase I and cytokinesis.

a)

The separated homologous chromosomes are at opposite poles of the cell.

b)

The cell divides in two.

c)

The chromosomes do not uncoil, since they are getting ready for Meiosis II.

d)

Sister chromatids are pulled away from each other.

48.

At the start of Meiosis II, which of the following is NOT true?

a)

There are two cells.

b)

The cells are haploid.

c)

The chromosomes are paired up as homologues.

d)

DNA is present as two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

49.

In Prophase II, the_________ reforms and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome.

a)

mitotic spindle

b)

centrosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

cell plate

50.

In Metaphase II, _________ line up on equatorial plane.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

single chromosomes (made up of 2 sister chromatids)

c)

tetrads

d)

centrosomes

51.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

52.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

53.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad.

54.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

55.

During the process of differentiation

a)

all sections of DNA are activated to determine the structure of a body cell

b)

ONLY ONE section of DNA are deactivated to determine the structure of a body cell

c)

only specific sections of DNA sequence are activated to determine the structure and functions of a body cell

56.

Unspecialized cells in our body that has the ability to differentiate into different types of cells are called

a)

specialized cells

b)

differentiated cells

c)

nerve cells

d)

stem cells

57.

Multicellular organism begin as one cell to undifferentiated masses of cells and ultimately have different type of cells due to

a)

different DNA

b)

deactivated DNA

c)

gene expression in specific parts of DNA

58.

DNA is copied during

a)

During cell division

b)

All the time

c)

During protein production

59.

Which of the following is NOT part of a nucleotide

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

nitrogen base

d)

amino acid

60.

The backbone of DNA is made of

a)

base pairs

b)

sugars and phosphates

c)

only sugars

d)

only phosphates

61.

The two strands of DNA are held together with

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

nothing

62.

If a DNA molecule has 30% Guanine bases, how many Cytosine bases will it have?

a)

30%

b)

25%

c)

20%

d)

10%

63.

One function of DNA is to

a)

code for proteins

b)

code for lipids

c)

code for carbohydrates

64.

The first step in DNA replication is

a)

to unwind and unzip the two strands

b)

to break the backbone in half so the sequence can be copies

c)

to attach new nucleotides

d)

to proof read the sequence

65.

What does semiconservative replication mean?

a)

that the DNA is proof read at the end of the process

b)

that the newly made DNA has one strand from the original DNA and one new strand

c)

that the newly made DNA will send half of its strand to one cell and leave the old strand in the original cell

d)

that the original DNA strands come back together after replication is over

66.

What does semiconservative replication mean?

a)

that the DNA is proof read at the end of the process

b)

that the newly made DNA has one strand from the original DNA and one new strand

c)

that the newly made DNA will send half of its strand to one cell and leave the old strand in the original cell

d)

that the original DNA strands come back together after replication is over

67.

What does the term antiparallel refer to?

a)

the two strands are connected upside down

b)

the the DNA is made of two strands

c)

DNA twists

d)

DNA copies itself from bottom up to the top of the strand

68.

When DNA replicates what is separated?

a)

the backbone

b)

the base pairs

c)

the sequence of bases

d)

the sugar- phosphate bond

69.
What is the complement to the DNA strand below:
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
a)
5'-TACGGTA-3'
b)
3'-TACGGTA-5'
c)
3'-ATGGCAT-5'
d)
5'-ATGGCAT-3'
70.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
71.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
72.

The two strands of DNA are

a)

Parallel

b)

Antiparallel

c)

Perpendicular

d)

At Right Angles

73.

What enzyme is responsible for the second step of DNA replication?

a)

DNA Ligase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primers for new nucleotide bases.

c)

RNA polymerase builds new strands by bringing in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Helicase knits together fragments on lagging strand

74.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

75.

Which letter in the given picture depicts the okazaki fragments?

a)

A - lagging strand

b)

C - leading strand

c)

B - lagging strand

d)

C - replication fork

76.

DNA replication puts down nucleotides ______' to _____' and is said to be ______________________

a)

5, 3, antiparallel

b)

3, 5, antiparallel

c)

5, 3, parallel

d)

3, 5, parallel

77.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
78.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
79.
If you are missing or have an extra base  at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?
a)
Substitution
b)
Frameshift
c)
Duplication 
d)
Insertion
80.
mRNA is read in chunks of three, called...
a)
quadralets
b)
anticodons
c)
codons
d)
capsids
81.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
82.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Inversion
b)
Translocation
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
83.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
84.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
85.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
86.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

87.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

88.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

89.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
90.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
91.

Which organelle contains rRNA and reads the mRNA to synthesize a protein?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

92.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

93.

Which process does this diagram illustrate?

a)

transcription

b)

DNA replication

c)

translation

94.

What determines the shape and function of a protein?

a)

The sequence of amino acids

b)

The type of ribosome that assembles the protein

c)

The cell that manufactures the protein

95.

How can a mutation in the DNA sequence result in NO change to the protein that is made?

a)

There are multiple codons that can code for the same amino acid and result in the same protein

b)

There is always a change in the protein when a mutation occurs

c)

Only the mRNA is used in protein synthesis so a mutation in the DNA would have no effect on the protein

96.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
97.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
98.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
99.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
100.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
101.
In pea plants, the tall allele is dominant to the short allele. What key would demonstrate this?
a)
Tall = T
Short = S
b)
Tall = T
Short = t
c)
Tall = t
Short = T
d)
Tall = TT
Short = tt
102.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
103.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

104.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3:1

b)

1:3

c)

1:2:1

d)

2:2

105.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

106.
If you cross a black guinea pig with a white guinea pig and the offspring are gray, what type of dominant trait would that be.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
codependant
d)
cooperative
107.
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown fur (b). If a rabbit has brown fur, what can you conclude about its genotype?
a)
It is BB.
b)
It is Bb
c)
It is brown
d)
It is bb.
108.
This is an example of
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Mendelian Genetics
c)
Codominance
d)
Incomplete Dominance
109.
 One dog carries homozygous, long-haired traits (SS), and its mate carries homozygous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Punnett square to determine the probability of one of their offspring having long hair.
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
110.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
111.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
112.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
113.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
114.

What do we call a change in a species over time?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Evolution

c)

Extinction

d)

Environmental influences

115.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
116.

An organisms with the “best” traits (adaptations) will live longer and

reproduce more than others, causing changes in the population over time by acting on traits that are heritable

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Fitness

d)

Variation

117.

Genes that are beneficial to the species will....

a)

evolve a new species

b)

will not be passed down to its' offspring

c)

become more common over time

d)

cause the extinction of a species

118.

Which one does not increase variation?

a)

Gene flow

b)

Migration

c)

Mitosis

d)

Crossing Over

119.

A grizzly bear survives because he is well-adapted to his environment. When he reproduces he passes on those traits to his offspring. This process is called

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Random mutations

d)

Variations in a species

120.

Where do adaptations come from?

a)

The individual organism decides to adapt

b)

Mutations that give an organism an advantage in its environment

c)

Genetic recombination during meiosis

d)

Both mutations and genetic recombination are sources of adaptation

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