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ACR-103 Final Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The size indicated for the diameter of copper tubing used for plumbing is the ___.

a)

inside diameter

b)

outside diameter

c)

wall thickness

d)

None of the above.

2.

The size indicated for the diameter of ACR copper tubing is the ___.

a)

inside diameter

b)

outside diameter

c)

wall thickness

d)

None of the above.

3.

The maximum temperature at which soft soldering is done is ___.

a)

212°F

b)

400°F

c)

600°F

d)

842°F

4.

Brazing is done at ___ soldering.

a)

the same temperature as

b)

lower temperatures than

c)

higher temperatures than

d)

temperatures that can be higher or lower than

5.

When soldering or brazing, the solder is ____.

a)

heated directly by the flame of the heat source

b)

heated by the surrounding air

c)

used to oxidize the metal

d)

melted by heat from the tubing and fitting

6.

Molten solder flows between the two base metals being soldered because ____.

a)

the atmospheric pressure pushes it in

b)

of capillary attraction

c)

there are no surface pores in the base metal

d)

the tubing surface melts and the pressure differential forces it in

7.

K-type copper is heavy-duty with a thick tubing wall.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

L-type copper is considered medium weight and is used most frequently.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

M is a lightweight copper and is not commonly used in our industry.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

When tubing is cut with a tubing cutter, a burr is produced in the process. This slight decrease in the inside diameter of the tube can adversely affect the operation of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When installing a refrigeration system, the piping should be connected with as few joints as possible.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When soldering, the technician should heat the solder with the torch to allow it to melt.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

An air-acetylene unit usually consists of a B tank of acetylene gas, a regulator, a hose, and a torch.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

ABS and PVC pipe can be used to carry the new blended refrigerants in low temperature applications.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The copper tubing used in the field piping of refrigeration systems is type (a)   .

16.

One reason for insulation on a suction line is to help maintain the proper (a)   .

17.

The abbreviation for the plastic pipe used in high pressure systems at low temperature is (a)   .

18.

The abbreviation for the plastic pipe that can be used with temperatures up to 180F at 100 psig. It is used for both hot and cold water supply systems is (a)   .

19.

When making a swage joint, what should the depth of the enlarged portion of the tube be?

a)

equal diameter of the original tube

b)

less than the diameter of the original tube

c)

more than the diameter of the original tube

d)

none of the above

20.

An operation that causes one end of a copper tube to expand at an angle for flare nut connection to the ​ (a)   system.​

Choose from the below words
brazing
flaring
work hardening
swaging
annealing
reaming
soldering
21.

Operation of heating and cooling tubing to make it softer.​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
brazing
work hardening
swaging
reaming
soldering
annealing
flaring
22.

Accomplished at temperatures under 842°F.​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
brazing
work hardening
swaging
reaming
soldering
flaring
annealing
23.

Removal of burrs and rough edges from tubing.​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
brazing
work hardening
swaging
reaming
flaring
annealing
soldering
24.

Accomplished at temperatures above 842°F.​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
brazing
work hardening
swaging
reaming
flaring
annealing
soldering
25.

Caused by excessive bending and straightening of tubing.​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
work hardening
swaging
reaming
flaring
annealing
soldering
brazing
26.

Operation that allows two tubes of equal diameter to be joined together. ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
work hardening
swaging
reaming
flaring
annealing
soldering
brazing
27.

The best method of leak checking is when the refrigeration system is ____.

a)

in a vacuum

b)

open to the atmosphere

c)

operating with all fans activated

d)

standing with dry nitrogen pressure of 150 psig in the system

28.

When moisture is present in a refrigeration system, it will react with the refrigerant and the oil to form ____.

a)
acid
b)

carbon dioxide

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

carbolic acid

29.

Non-condensable gases ____.

a)

are desirable in a refrigeration system

b)

are undesirable in a refrigeration system

c)

condense readily under normal atmospheric conditions

d)

help in pulling a vacuum

30.

To pull a vacuum means to ____.

a)

lower the pressure in a refrigeration system below atmospheric

b)

raise the pressure in a refrigeration system

c)

allow refrigerant to escape into the atmosphere

d)

condense the gas in the system

31.

A compound gauge ____.

a)

indicates pressures above 14.696 psia

b)

indicates pressures in inches Hg below atmospheric pressure

c)

is one of two gauges on a typical gauge manifold

d)

All of the above.

32.

A micron gauge is used to measure ____.

a)

atmospheric pressures at high altitudes

b)

atmospheric pressures at sea level

c)

absolute pressures below 1 mm Hg

d)

high pressure in a refrigeration system

33.

At what pressure range does the technician valve off the vacuum pump when evacuating to a deep vacuum?

a)

200 to 100 microns.

b)

500 to 200 microns.

c)

300 to 200 microns.

d)

500 to 300 microns.

34.

Which of the following represents the lowest vacuum?

a)

10 psia.

b)

5 in. Hg vacuum.

c)

5 psig.

d)

1000 microns.

35.

A multiple evacuation means that ____.

a)

you connect three vacuum pumps simultaneously to a refrigeration system and pull a vacuum

b)

you pull a vacuum on three different systems at the same time

c)

you pull a vacuum on a refrigeration system more than once, allowing refrigerant or nitrogen into the system between each procedure

d)

there must be more than one system operating before a vacuum can be pulled

36.

Moisture in a liquid state must be ______ before it can be removed with a vacuum pump.

a)

vaporized

b)

condensed

c)

cooled

d)

solidified

37.

To ensure accurate testing, the best material to use for connecting lines to the vacuum pump and gauge set is ____.

a)

light flexible hose

b)

heavy-duty rubber gauge line

c)

copper tube

d)

garden hose

38.

The maximum recommended pressure for leak testing is 150 psig on the low-pressure side of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Air entering a refrigerant system can eventually lead to compressor failure.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

While under a deep vacuum, any liquid water under the oil in the motor-compressor assembly can be removed by operating the compressor motor for several seconds without any adverse effect on the system.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

After repairing a system that has had an electrical motor failure (compressor burnout), it is good field practice to re-use the recovered refrigerant in that system.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

When using a "standing pressure test" for leak-checking, (a)   should never be used since an explosive mixture can be created.

43.

Sludge is produced when moisture, acid, and (a)   are present in the system.

44.

There are (a)   microns in 1 mm Hg.

45.

A deep vacuum involves reducing the pressure in a refrigeration system to a micron gauge reading of (a)   or below.

46.

Why is refrigerant not used for a system standing pressure test?

a)

refrigerant vapor changes pressure too much with temperature change

b)

refrigerant vapor changes acidity too much with temperature change

47.

Why is nitrogen considered a "non-condensable gas"?

a)

nitrogen does not change into a liquid

b)

nitrogen changes into a liquid

48.

A pressure of 100 microns has been reached with the vacuum pump operating. The pump is turned off and the gauge reading rises to 500 microns and stays there. What does this indicate?

a)

The system is leak-tight and moisture free.

b)

The system still has moisture in it.

c)

The system has a leak in it.

d)

none of the above

49.

A pressure of 100 microns has been reached with the vacuum pump operating. The pump is turned off and the gauge reading rises to 5,000 microns and stays there. What does this indicate?

a)

The system still has moisture in it.

b)

The system is leak-tight and moisture free.

c)

The system has a leak in it.

d)

none of the above

50.

A pressure of 100 microns has been reached with the vacuum pump operating. The pump is turned off and the gauge reading rises above 5,000 microns and keeps rising. What does this indicate?

a)

The system has a leak in it.

b)

The system still has moisture in it.

c)

The system is leak-tight and moisture free.

d)

none of the above

51.

How many chlorine atoms does it take to destroy 100,000 ozone molecules in the stratosphere?

a)

a. 1

b)

b. 10

c)

c. 100

d)

d. 1,000

52.

The ______ takes into consideration both the direct and indirect global warming effects of refrigerants.

a)
d. TEWI
b)

GWP

c)

GWI

d)

ODP

53.

Which of the following refrigerants is a CFC-type refrigerant?

a)

a. R-22

b)

b. R-123

c)

c. R-134a

d)

d. R-12

54.

Which type of refrigerant has the highest Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)?

a)

a. HFC

b)

b. HCFC

c)

c. CFC

d)

d. All have the same ODP.

55.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing chlorine, fluorine, and carbon is ____.

a)

a. HFC

b)

b. HCFC

c)

c. CFC

d)

d. HFAC

56.

As of July 1, 1992, it is illegal to intentionally vent ____ refrigerants into the atmosphere.

a)

CFC

b)

HCFC

c)

Polyvinylether (PVE)

d)

Both a and b

57.

Which of the following is an example of an HCFC refrigerant?

a)

R-12

b)

R-22

c)

R-32

d)

R-134a

58.

Which of the following refrigerants is considered an HFC-type of refrigerant?

a)

R-134a

b)

R-12

c)

R-22

d)

R-11

59.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing chlorine, fluorine, carbon, and hydrogen is ____.

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

HFAC

60.

The abbreviation for refrigerants containing fluorine, carbon, and hydrogen is ____.

a)

HFC

b)

HCFC

c)

CFC

d)

HFAC

61.

Refrigerants that are made up of two or more liquids are called ____.

a)

fluorocarbons

b)

azeotropes

c)

chlorofluorocarbons

d)

isotopes

62.

To process refrigerant to new product specifications is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

63.

To clean refrigerant by the use of filter dryers is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

64.

To remove the refrigerant from a system without any testing or processing and to be put back into the same system is called ____.

a)

recovery

b)

renew

c)

reclaim

d)

recycle

65.

Refrigerants that have a low Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP) will, in turn, have a high "Total Equivalent Warming Impact" (TEWI).

a)

True

b)

False

66.

A refrigerant reclaimed from a system may be charged back into the system from which it came.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The DOT-approved cylinder used for recovering refrigerant is gray and yellow.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Mechanical refrigerant recovery equipment must meet specifications established by the 1993 AHRI 740 standard.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Refrigerants that damage the ozone layer contain an element called ________.

a)
chlorine
b)

hydrogen

c)

sulfur

d)

carbon

70.

The trapping of the Earth's heat in the atmosphere which is causing global warming is called the greenhouse effect.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Production of CFC refrigerants became illegal on January 1, ________.

a)
1996
b)

2006

c)

1986

d)

2016

72.

The small amount of refrigerant released when removing gauge hoses from the system is called ________.

a)
de minimus releases
b)

de maximus releases

c)

none

73.

The DOT-approved cylinder in which refrigerant may be recovered has a mechanism for shutting the recovery system off when it reaches approximately ________% full.

a)
80
b)

100

c)

90

d)

75

74.

The fastest way to remove refrigerant from a system is to take it out in the ________ state.

a)
liquid
b)

vapor

c)

solid

d)

none of the above

75.

Why is stratospheric ozone so important to our environment?

a)

It shields the Earth from ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation.

b)

It shields the Earth from ultraviolet (UV-B) convection.

c)

It shields the Earth from ultraviolet (UV-B) conduction.

d)

None of the above

76.

When did it become illegal to "intentionally" vent CFC refrigerants to the atmosphere? Give the month, day, and year.

a)

July 1, 1992

b)

July 1, 1995

c)

July 1, 1998

d)

July 1, 1991

77.

When did it become illegal to "intentionally" vent HFC refrigerants to the atmosphere? Give the month, day, and year.

a)

November 15, 1995

b)

November 15, 1997

c)

November 15, 1993

d)

November 15, 1996

78.

How are near-azeotropic blends identified?

a)

They are designated as the 400 series refrigerants

b)

They are designated as the 500 series refrigerants

c)

They are designated as the 600 series refrigerants

d)

They are designated as the 200 series refrigerants

79.

On what does universal EPA certification allow a service technician to work?

a)

TYPE I

b)

TYPE II

c)

TYPE III

d)

All of the above

80.

Charging a refrigeration system refers to ____.

a)

removing refrigerant from a system

b)

adding refrigerant to a system

c)

cleaning the refrigerant

d)

vaporizing the refrigerant

81.

Refrigerant in vapor form is normally put into the system through the ____.

a)

liquid line

b)

suction line

c)

hot gas line

d)

liquid return line

82.

When charging a system with vapor refrigerant from a refrigerant cylinder, the cylinder will become ____.

a)

cold

b)

very warm

c)

the same temperature as the ambient air

d)

warm

83.

Refrigerant in liquid form is normally put into the system through the ____.

a)

liquid line

b)

suction line

c)

hot gas line

d)

liquid return line

84.

When charging liquid refrigerant from a single valve supply cylinder, the cylinder is placed ____.

a)

upside down

b)

right side up

c)

on its side

d)

in any position indicated

85.

A graduated cylinder charging device is a device that ____.

a)

measures refrigerant by volume for precise refrigerant charging

b)

has a compensation dial for adjusting for the temperature of the refrigerant

c)

often has a heater to keep the refrigerant temperature from dropping when refrigerant is released into the system

d)

All of the above.

86.

If 22 oz. of refrigerant are to be added to a refrigeration system and the supply cylinder weighs 24 lb. 12 oz. before any is added, what will be the supply cylinder weight after the system has been charged?

a)

23 lb 12 oz

b)

22 lb 12 oz.

c)

23 lb 6 oz.

d)

22 lb 6 oz.

87.

If 30 oz. of refrigerant are to be added to a refrigeration system and the supply cylinder weighs 26 lb. 4 oz. before any is added, what will the supply cylinder weigh after the system has been charged?

a)

22 lb 8 oz.

b)

24 lb 6 oz.

c)

24 lb 8 oz.

d)

22 lb 4 oz.

88.

If a critically charged refrigeration system is overcharged, which of the following is a likely result?

a)

Increased cooling capacity.

b)

Reduced compressor discharge temperature.

c)

Increased system efficiency.

d)

Increased operating pressures.

89.

Fractionation occurs when ____.

a)

some of a blended refrigerant evaporates or condenses before the rest of the blend

b)

when only a fraction of the total charge has been added to a system

c)

the operating pressures of a system increase

d)

Both a and c.

90.

When charging a refrigeration system with a near-azeotropic mixture, what must be done to prevent liquid from entering the system?

a)

Charge only as a vapor through the high side.

b)

Charge only liquid through the high side.

c)

Charge as a liquid through the low side using a restrictor.

d)

Charge as a vapor through the low side using a resistor.

91.

When adding refrigerant in vapor form to an operating refrigeration system, the refrigerant must be added to the low-pressure side of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

When the system pressures are lower than the pressure in the refrigerant tank, such as when the system has just been evacuated or if the system is out of refrigerant, refrigerant can be added to both the high- and low-pressure sides of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

If the tank is a reusable tank, there are no check valves and system refrigerant can enter the tank as long as the system pressure is higher than the pressure in the tank.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The quickest method to charge a system is to charge only vapor.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

When adding refrigerant in liquid form into the high-side of the system, the system motor/compressor assembly is running.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Using a restrictor, liquid refrigerant can be charged into the low-side of the system with the system operating.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

One good feature of an electronic charging scale is that it counts upward as refrigerant is removed, to tell the technician how much refrigerant was used.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

A manufacturer's charging chart may be used when available to determine the correct charge for a system.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Glide is the range of temperatures/pressures in which a blended refrigerant will condense.

a)

True

b)

False

100.

If the pressure in the refrigerant cylinder drops down too low to charge a system (cylinder pressure = low side system pressure), how can the technician increase the cylinder pressure?

a)

Place tank in a bucket of warm water

b)

Place tank in a bucket of ice water

c)

Place tank in a bucket of hot water

d)

none of the above