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QCAA-Biology all topics

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the structure of DNA?

a)

Single-stranded molecule

b)

Double-stranded molecule

c)

Triple-stranded molecule

d)

Quadruple-stranded molecule

2.

Which enzyme is involved in the unwinding of the double helix during DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Primase

3.

What type of bonds exist between DNA strands?

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Weak, base-specific hydrogen bonds

d)

Metallic bonds

4.

What is the role of homologous chromosomes during meiosis?

a)

They do not play any role

b)

They are involved in the process of crossing over and recombination

c)

They are responsible for DNA replication

d)

They are involved in protein synthesis

5.

What is the difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

a)

Spermatogenesis occurs in females, and oogenesis occurs in males

b)

Spermatogenesis produces diploid cells, and oogenesis produces haploid cells

c)

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, and oogenesis produces diploid cells

d)

Spermatogenesis produces haploid cells, and oogenesis produces haploid cells

6.

What is the significance of independent assortment and random fertilization?

a)

They do not affect genetic variation

b)

They reduce genetic variation

c)

They increase genetic variation in the genotype of offspring

d)

They eliminate genetic variation

7.

What are the two types of DNA mentioned in the learning material?

a)

Coding and noncoding DNA

b)

Functional and nonfunctional DNA

c)

Transcribed and untranslated DNA

d)

Active and inactive DNA

8.

What is the process of transcription in protein synthesis?

a)

Conversion of mRNA into amino acids

b)

Transcription of a gene into messenger RNA in the nucleus

c)

Translation of mRNA at the ribosome

d)

Binding of proteins to specific DNA sequences

9.

What is the purpose of gene expression?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To synthesize a functional gene product

c)

To mutate genes

d)

To inhibit protein synthesis

10.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that regulates the phenotypic expression of genes?

a)

During transcription and translation

b)

Through the products of other genes

c)

Via environmental exposure

d)

By the process of DNA replication

11.

What is an example of a transcription factor gene that regulates morphology and cell differentiation?

a)

HOX transcription factor family

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA helicase

d)

Ribosomal RNA

12.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of mutations in genes and chromosomes?

a)

A. DNA replication errors

b)

B. Cell division errors

c)

C. Exposure to mutagens

d)

D. Proper DNA repair mechanisms

13.

What is an example of aneuploidy?

a)

A. Sickle cell anemia

b)

B. Trisomy 21

c)

C. Cystic fibrosis

d)

D. Hemophilia

14.

Which tool is used to predict a genetic disorder from given data?

a)

A. DNA sequencing

b)

B. Human karyotype

c)

C. PCR

d)

D. Gel electrophoresis

15.

What is the purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

A. To cut DNA at specific sites

b)

B. To amplify DNA

c)

C. To join DNA fragments

d)

D. To sequence DNA

16.

What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

a)

A. To cut DNA

b)

B. To insert DNA fragments

c)

C. To join DNA fragments

d)

D. To amplify DNA

17.

What does polygenic inheritance refer to?

a)

A. Inheritance of a trait controlled by a single gene

b)

B. Inheritance of a trait controlled by multiple genes

c)

C. Inheritance of a trait controlled by mitochondrial DNA

d)

D. Inheritance of a trait controlled by sex chromosomes

18.

Which of the following is an example of a current genetic biotechnology technique?

a)

A. DNA replication

b)

B. Gel electrophoresis

c)

C. Protein synthesis

d)

D. Cell division

19.

What is the role of bioinformatics in biological research?

a)

To create new species of organisms

b)

To analyze relationships in biological data

c)

To develop new pharmaceuticals

d)

To conduct physical experiments

20.

What potential do genetically modified organisms (GMOs) have?

a)

They can be used to create new species

b)

They have potential for advancement in agriculture and pharmaceuticals

c)

They can replace natural organisms

d)

They are used only for laboratory experiments

21.

What is the term used to describe the increase in taxonomic diversity or morphological disparity over time?

a)

Microevolution

b)

Macroevolution

c)

Evolutionary radiation

d)

Genetic drift

22.

Which of the following is NOT one of the main processes of microevolutionary change?

a)

Mutation

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Natural selection

23.

What is the ultimate source of genetic variation?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Mutation

d)

Gene flow

24.

Which type of selection occurs when environmental pressures confer a selective advantage on a specific phenotype?

a)

Stabilising selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Disruptive selection

d)

Natural selection

25.

What are the three main types of phenotypic selection?

a)

Stabilising, directional, and disruptive

b)

Stabilising, genetic, and disruptive

c)

Directional, genetic, and stabilising

d)

Disruptive, genetic, and directional

26.

Which of the following is NOT a mode of speciation?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Parapatric

d)

Symbiotic

27.

What is the increased risk faced by populations with reduced genetic diversity?

a)

Increased gene flow

b)

Increased risk of extinction

c)

Increased habitat fragmentation

d)

Increased reproductive isolation

28.

Which of the following is NOT a pattern of diversification between species?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Parallel

d)

Symbiotic

29.

What should be referred to in terms of natural and human causes in the context of speciation?

a)

Gene flow

b)

Habitat fragmentation

c)

Allele frequency

d)

Genetic diversity

30.

Which subject matter will not be assessed on the external examination but could be used in the development of claims and research questions for research investigation?

a)

Speciation and macroevolution

b)

Science as a Human Endeavour (SHE)

c)

Genetic diversity

d)

Habitat fragmentation

31.

What technological developments enable the identification of further evidence for evolutionary relationships?

a)

Comparative genomics, comparative biochemistry, and bioinformatics

b)

Gene flow and allele frequency data

c)

Modes of speciation

d)

Patterns of diversification

32.

Which of the following is included in the concept of biodiversity?

a)

A. Diversity of species and ecosystems

b)

B. Only the diversity of species

c)

C. Only the diversity of ecosystems

d)

D. Diversity of physical features

33.

What is used to measure the diversity of species?

a)

A. Species richness, evenness, percentage cover, percentage frequency, and Simpson’s diversity index

b)

B. Only species richness

c)

C. Only percentage cover

d)

D. Only Simpson’s diversity index

34.

Which factors are considered in species diversity indices?

a)

A. Species interactions and abiotic factors

b)

B. Only species interactions

c)

C. Only abiotic factors

d)

D. Physical features and molecular sequences

35.

What is the formula used to quantify biodiversity of a habitat according to Simpson’s diversity index (SDI)?

a)

A. SDI = 1 - (Σ(n(n-1))/N(N-1))

b)

B. SDI = 1 - (Σ(N(N-1))/n(n-1))

c)

C. SDI = Σ(n(n-1))/N(N-1)

d)

D. SDI = Σ(N(N-1))/n(n-1)

36.

What does the term "clade" refer to in biological classification?

a)

A. A group of organisms that includes a common ancestor and all its descendants

b)

B. A group of organisms with similar physical features

c)

C. A group of organisms with similar methods of reproduction

d)

D. A group of organisms with similar molecular sequences

37.

Which system is used for the classification of organisms based on physical features?

a)

A. The Linnaean system

b)

B. The Simpson’s diversity index

c)

C. The molecular phylogeny

d)

D. The Simpson’s index

38.

Which of the following is an example of an interspecific hybrid that does not produce fertile offspring?

a)

Horse

b)

Mule

c)

Donkey

d)

Zebra

39.

What is the purpose of stratified sampling in ecosystem studies?

a)

To estimate population density and distribution

b)

To identify individual species

c)

To measure the height of trees

d)

To count the number of leaves

40.

Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider in the process of stratified sampling?

a)

Site selection

b)

Minimising bias

c)

Counting criteria

d)

Measuring leaf size

41.

What is the role of technology in biodiversity protection?

a)

To increase the number of species

b)

To measure and monitor populations

c)

To decrease the size of ecosystems

d)

To eliminate invasive species

42.

Which classification system could be used for classifying ecosystems?

a)

Holdridge life zone classification scheme

b)

Linnaean classification system

c)

Mendelian inheritance system

d)

Darwinian evolution system

43.

What is the primary focus of setting agreed biodiversity targets?

a)

To increase the number of species in an ecosystem

b)

To achieve positive international action towards biodiversity conservation

c)

To reduce the number of predators in an ecosystem

d)

To increase the biomass of producers

44.

Which of the following is NOT a component of energy transfer within ecosystems?

a)

Loss of energy through radiation, reflection, and absorption

b)

Efficiencies of energy transfer from one trophic level to another

c)

Conversion of light to chemical energy

d)

Production of biomass

45.

What should be used to develop scientific skills and collect data in the study of ecosystems?

a)

Laboratory experiments

b)

Fieldwork

c)

Computer simulations

d)

Theoretical models

46.

What is the term used to describe the role of a species in terms of habitat, feeding relationships, and interactions with other species?

a)

Keystone species

b)

Ecological niche

c)

Trophic level

d)

Biogeochemical cycle

47.

What is the suggested practical activity to test the competitive exclusion principle hypothesis?

a)

Measure the wet biomass of producer samples

b)

Study the abundance of each trophic level in a simple food chain

c)

Study vertical zonation on a tree

d)

Carry out a longitudinal study of a keystone species

48.

What is the term used to describe the maximum population size that an environment can sustain indefinitely?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Population density

c)

Biotic potential

d)

Ecological footprint

49.

Which of the following is NOT a biotic factor that limits population growth?

a)

Competition for resources

b)

Predation

c)

Disease

d)

Availability of nutrients

50.

What formula is used to estimate population size using the capture-recapture method?

a)

Lincoln index

b)

Simpson's index

c)

Shannon index

d)

Mark-recapture index

51.

Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor that can limit population growth?

a)

Predation

b)

Disease

c)

Space availability

d)

Competition for resources

52.

What is the primary difference between primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary succession occurs in an area with no previous soil, while secondary succession occurs in an area with existing soil.

b)

Primary succession occurs in aquatic environments, while secondary succession occurs in terrestrial environments.

c)

Primary succession involves only plant species, while secondary succession involves both plant and animal species.

d)

Primary succession is faster than secondary succession.

53.

Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of pioneer species?

a)

Ability to fixate nitrogen

b)

Tolerance to extreme conditions

c)

Slow germination of seeds

d)

Ability to photosynthesize

54.

What is the impact of human activity on the reduction of biodiversity and ecosystem change?

a)

It increases the speed of ecosystem recovery.

b)

It reduces the magnitude of ecosystem change.

c)

It leads to habitat destruction and overexploitation.

d)

It has no significant impact.

55.

How can Aboriginal knowledge and Torres Strait Islander knowledge contribute to ecosystem conservation?

a)

By providing data for understanding ecosystem dynamics

b)

By developing new species

c)

By eliminating abiotic elements

d)

By reducing biodiversity

56.

What is the role of scientific knowledge in marine reserves?

a)

To eliminate marine species

b)

To analyze unique factors affecting ecosystems

c)

To increase pollution levels

d)

To reduce the number of marine reserves

57.

Why are keystone species important in conservation strategies?

a)

They can be more effective in maintaining complex ecosystem dynamics

b)

They reduce the need for conservation of other species

c)

They increase the number of abiotic elements

d)

They decrease biodiversity

58.

What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Energy production

d)

Cell division

59.

Which of the following processes is an example of genetic recombination?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Crossing over

d)

Replication

60.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D