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Anaphy of Cardiovascular System

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Which of the following is NOT a parameter commonly monitored by a patient monitor?

a)

mmHG

b)

l/min

c)

bpm

d)

ECG

2.

What is the primary reason that ECG machines are equipped with electronic filters?

a)

To remove unwanted signal noise and artifacts from the heart's electrical recording.

b)

To increase the amplitude of the heart's electrical signal.

c)

To prevent the patient from receiving an electrical shock.

d)

To speed up the process of recording the ECG.

3.

Which of the following is true?

a)

AV node delays the delivery of electric impulse through the heart

b)

Purkinje fibers are the pacemaker of the heart

c)

SA node enables rapid delivery of electric impulses in through the ventricles

d)

The conduction system of the heart doesn't have Purkinje fibers

4.

A pulse oximeter uses (a)   and red lights to measure oxygen saturation of hemoglobin?

5.

Why do body parts appear more white in an X-ray image?

a)

They absorb more X-ray radiation.

b)

They reflect more X-ray radiation.

c)

They are transparent to X-ray radiation.

d)

They emit a special type of light that an X-ray detector can see.

6.

Which of the following best describes the primary difference between an infusion pump and a syringe pump?

a)

An infusion pump delivers a small, precise volume of fluid, while a syringe pump delivers large volumes over a short period.

b)

They use fundamentally different technologies, with one being entirely mechanical and the other entirely electronic.

c)

An infusion pump is used for oral medication, while a syringe pump is used for intravenous medication.

d)

A syringe pump delivers fluid from a syringe, and an infusion pump delivers fluid from an IV bag.

7.

Analog sphygmomanometers use what physiological concept to measure blood pressure?

a)

The Doppler effect to measure blood flow velocity.

b)

The plethysmographic method to detect changes in blood volume.

c)

The oscillometric method to detect arterial pulsations.

d)

The principle of auscultation, listening for Korotkoff sounds.

8.

Which of the following statements is true regarding a 2D echo?

a)

It is a form of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that uses a strong magnetic field.

b)

It is an electrocardiogram (ECG) used to measure the heart's electrical activity.

c)

It is an ultrasound for the heart that produces a cross-sectional view.

d)

It is a type of X-ray used to create a static image of the heart.

9.

What is the primary difference in how a traditional X-ray and a CT scan create an image?

a)

An X-ray is a single-projection, 2D image, while a CT scan takes multiple projections to create a 3D image.

b)

An X-ray is a cross-sectional view of soft tissue, while a CT scan is a detailed image of bone.

c)

A CT scan uses a radioactive tracer, while an X-ray does not.

d)

An X-ray uses sound waves, while a CT scan uses X-ray radiation.

10.

What is the primary function of an ECG (electrocardiogram) in diagnosing heart conditions?

a)

Detecting physical blockages in the heart's arteries.

b)

Recording the heart's electrical activity to identify rhythm abnormalities.

c)

Providing a real-time, 3D image of the heart's chambers.

d)

Measuring a patient's blood pressure and heart rate.

11.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between systole and diastole?

a)

During systole, the ventricles fill with blood, and during diastole, blood is ejected from the heart.

b)

Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is at rest, while diastole is when it contracts to pump blood.

c)

Systole is related to the top number of a blood pressure reading, but diastole is not included in the reading.

d)

Systole is the contraction phase when the heart pumps blood out, and diastole is the relaxation phase when the heart fills with blood.

12.

A pulse oximeter determines a patient's pulse rate by analyzing:

a)

The volume of venous blood flowing through the capillaries between heartbeats.

b)

The temperature fluctuations on the skin's surface with each cycle of blood flow.

c)

The change in light absorption caused by the pulsatile flow of blood with each heartbeat.

d)

The ratio of red to infrared light absorbed by oxygenated versus deoxygenated hemoglobin.

13.

Choose the statement/s that are true:

a)

Ventricles are known as the upper chambers of the heart.

b)

Valves are responsible for ensuring there is no backflow during delivery of blood.

c)

Blood flows into the heart thru artery and blood flows out of the heart thru veins.

d)

The smallest blood vessel is the capillaries.

14.

What distinguishes Duplex Ultrasound from 2D Echocardiogram?

a)
Duplex Ultrasound does not visualize heart structures.
b)
2D Echocardiogram provides real-time blood flow analysis.
c)
Duplex Ultrasound is only used for imaging the heart.
d)
Duplex Ultrasound includes Doppler imaging for blood flow analysis, while 2D Echocardiogram focuses on structural imaging of the heart.
15.

What is the purpose of a lead apron that is sometimes used during an X-ray?

a)

To prevent the patient from moving during the scan.

b)

To block X-ray radiation from reaching sensitive parts of the body.

c)

To improve the quality of the image by adding weight.

d)

To help the machine get a clearer image of bone.

16.

What is the most critical function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

To provide structural support for the body's organs.

b)

To transport essential substances and remove waste products from cells.

c)

To fight infections and diseases on its own.

d)

To produce red blood cells and white blood cells.

17.

What is the primary function of a stent?

a)

To perform open-heart surgery

b)

To keep narrowed or clogged arteries open

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To monitor heart rate

18.

What is the purpose of a drug-eluting stent?

a)
To prevent restenosis in narrowed arteries.
b)
To replace damaged heart valves.
c)
To deliver medication directly to the heart muscle.
d)
To enhance blood flow in healthy arteries.
19.

Which procedure is often associated with the placement of a stent?

a)
Angioplasty
b)
Bypass surgery
c)
Heart valve replacement
d)
Coronary artery bypass grafting
20.

Stents are only used in coronary arteries.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Can stents cause blockages?

a)
No, stents cannot cause blockages.
b)
Yes, stents can cause blockages.
22.

What type of device is a Holter monitor?

a)
A Holter monitor is a type of blood pressure cuff.
b)
A Holter monitor is a portable electrocardiogram (ECG) device.
c)
A Holter monitor is a portable ultrasound machine.
d)
A Holter monitor is a device for measuring body temperature.
23.

How long is a Holter monitor typically worn?

a)
  • A few minutes

b)
  • 24 to 48 hours

c)
  • One week

d)
  • One month

24.

How is a Holter monitor attached to the patient?

a)
  • By inserting it into the body

b)
  • Through an intravenous line

c)
  • By wearing a special wristband

d)

Using adhesive electrodes attached to the skin

25.

What component of the Holter machine acts as a conductor that picks up the heart's electrical activity?

a)

Leads

b)

Electrodes

c)

Monitor

d)

Storage

26.

What is typically done after the Holter monitor is removed?

a)
  • The data is analyzed to identify any irregularities in heart rhythm

b)
  • The monitor is sent for cleaning and maintenance

c)
  • The electrodes are kept for future use

d)
  • The data is deleted immediately

27.

Why is MRI considered the imaging of choice for assessing cardiac masses?

a)
  • It uses X-rays for high resolution

b)
  • It provides a restricted view of the heart

c)
  • It offers unrestricted view, high temporal resolution, and non-invasive tissue characterization

d)
  • It is less expensive than other imaging techniques

28.

What does MRI stand for?

a)
  • Magnetic Resonance Imaging

b)
  • Magnetic Radioactive Imaging

c)
  • Mechanical Radiology Imaging

d)
  • Minimal Radiation Imaging

29.

What primary technology does an MRI machine use to create images of the body?

a)
  • X-rays

b)
  • Ultrasound waves

c)
  • Magnetic fields and radio waves

d)
  • Infrared light

30.

What is the primary function of an Implantable Cardiac Defibrillator (ICD)?

a)
  • To regulate heartbeats

b)
  • To provide artificial respiration

c)
  • To prevent fatal irregular heartbeats by delivering shocks

d)
  • To measure blood oxygen levels

31.

Which part of the ICD delivers the electric shock to the heart?

a)
  • Pulse generator

b)
  • Leads and electrodes

c)
  • Antenna

d)
  • Battery

32.

ICDs are designed to only deliver shocks when necessary, and they can also function as pacemakers.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

A pacemaker can function as both a heart rate regulator and a defibrillator.

a)
True
b)
False
34.

How does a pacemaker assist in regulating the heart’s rhythm?

a)
  • By delivering shocks to the heart

b)
  • By providing electrical impulses to compensate for faulty natural pacing

c)
  • By performing open-heart surgery

d)
  • By monitoring blood pressure

35.

How is a pacemaker typically implanted?

a)

By injecting a device directly into the heart

b)

Through a small incision in the abdomen

c)

Using a robotic arm for remote implantation

d)

Through a catheter inserted into a vein in the chest

36.

What component of a pacemaker provides the electrical signals to the heart?

a)
  • Pulse generator

b)

Lead/s

c)

Electrodes

d)

Battery

37.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a typical cardiopulmonary bypass machine?

a)

ECG Machine

b)
Oxygenator
c)
Pump
d)
Heat exchanger
38.

The cardiopulmonary bypass machine is used to take over the functions of the heart and lungs during surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

During which type of surgery is a cardiopulmonary bypass machine most commonly used?

a)
  • Appendectomy

b)
  • Hip replacement

c)
  • Open-heart surgery

d)
  • Gallbladder removal

40.

How is blood redirected to the cardiopulmonary bypass machine during surgery?

a)
  • Through a catheter placed in the abdomen

b)
  • Through tubes inserted into the veins and arteries

c)
  • By manual extraction using a syringe

d)
  • Through a surgical incision in the leg

41.

What is the role of the pump in a cardiopulmonary bypass machine?

a)
  • To regulate the temperature of the blood

b)
  • To circulate the blood throughout the body

c)
  • To administer anesthesia

d)
  • To monitor heart rhythm

42.

What does a duplex ultrasound machine combine?

a)
  • X-rays and CT scans

b)
  • MRI and PET scans

c)
  • Standard ultrasound imaging with Doppler ultrasound

d)
  • Endoscopy and radiography

43.

What is the primary purpose of the Doppler component in a duplex ultrasound?

a)
  • To measure tissue density

b)
  • To assess blood flow and velocity in vessels

c)
  • To identify bone fractures

d)
  • To evaluate organ size

44.

Duplex ultrasound can be used to visualize both the structure and the function of blood vessels.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What does "duplex" mean in Duplex Ultrasound?

a)

The type of imaging equipment used

b)

The combination of two types of imaging modes

c)

The frequency of sound waves used

d)

The size of the ultrasound probe

46.

Which of the following is NOT caused by atherosclerosis?

a)
Heart attack
b)

Pulmonary Embolism

c)
Hypertension
d)

Diabetes

47.

The following are considered as imaging medical equipment:

a)

CT scan

b)
Ultrasound
c)

MRI

d)

Electrocardiogram

48.

The normal heart beat of a healthy adult is between 90 to 140 bpm.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The following are cardiovascular diseases except:

a)

Stroke

b)

Hypertension

c)

Chronic Obstructive Cardiac Disease

d)

Coronary Artery Disease

50.

The following lifestyle habits does NOT increase the risk of hypertension.

a)
Excessive alcohol consumption
b)
High salt intake
c)
Regular exercise
d)
Sedentary lifestyle