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Worksheets

Blood and Its Functions

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the only type of connective tissue with a liquid matrix?

a)

Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Blood

d)

Adipose tissue

2.

What is the primary function of blood in the body?

a)

Provides structural support

b)

Transports vital substances and regulates processes for homeostasis

c)

Stores energy

d)

Protects against UV radiation

3.

What percentage of body weight does blood typically constitute?

a)

5%

b)

8%

c)

10%

d)

12%

4.

Where do blood cells primarily form?

a)

Yellow bone marrow

b)

Liver

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Spleen

5.

What are the components of blood cells referred to as?

a)

Liquid elements

b)

Formed elements

c)

Structural elements

d)

Functional elements

6.

What percentage of a centrifuged blood sample is made up of plasma?

a)

About 55%

b)

About 45%

c)

About 35%

d)

About 25%

7.

Where are red blood cells (RBCs) found in a centrifuged blood sample?

a)

Top of the centrifuge tube

b)

Middle of the centrifuge tube

c)

Bottom of the centrifuge tube

d)

Evenly distributed throughout the tube

8.

What is the percentage range of red blood cells (RBCs) in females?

a)

25 to 36%

b)

35 to 46%

c)

45 to 56%

d)

55 to 66%

9.

What is the term used for the percentage of red blood cells in a blood sample?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Plasma

d)

Buffy coat

10.

What component of blood makes up less than 1% of the blood volume in a centrifuged sample?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells and platelets

d)

Hematocrit

11.

What is the origin of blood cells according to the document?

a)

Hematopoietic stem cells in the red marrow

b)

Lymphoid stem cells in the spleen

c)

Myeloid stem cells in the liver

d)

Hemocytoblasts in the pancreas

12.

Which type of stem cells give rise to lymphocytes?

a)

Myeloid stem cells

b)

Hemocytoblasts

c)

Lymphoid stem cells

d)

Erythroid stem cells

13.

What do myeloid stem cells give rise to?

a)

Only red blood cells

b)

Only lymphocytes

c)

All other types of formed elements

d)

Only platelets

14.

What is another name for red blood cells?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

15.

What shape do red blood cells have?

a)

Spherical

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Biconcave disc

d)

Cylindrical

16.

What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

a)

Transporting carbon dioxide

b)

Transporting oxygen

c)

Producing ATP

d)

Dividing cells

17.

Which of the following is true about red blood cells?

a)

They have nuclei

b)

They can divide

c)

They lack mitochondria

d)

They produce ATP through the Krebs cycle

18.

Where does red blood cell (RBC) formation occur?

a)

In the liver

b)

In the red bone marrow

c)

In the heart

d)

In the lungs

19.

What stimulates RBC production when blood oxygen levels are low?

a)

Insulin

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

d)

Glucagon

20.

What is the average lifespan of a red blood cell?

a)

60 days

b)

90 days

c)

120 days

d)

150 days

21.

Which of the following is required for DNA synthesis during erythropoiesis?

a)

Calcium

b)

Vitamin B12 and folic acid

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Potassium

22.

What is anemia?

a)

A condition with excess RBCs

b)

A condition with reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

c)

A condition with high blood pressure

d)

A condition with low blood sugar

23.

What is the primary function of white blood cells (leukocytes)?

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Protect against disease

c)

Produce hormones

d)

Store energy

24.

Where are white blood cells produced?

a)

In the liver

b)

In the red bone marrow

c)

In the pancreas

d)

In the kidneys

25.

Which of the following is a type of granulocyte?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Erythrocytes

26.

What controls the production of white blood cells?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Interleukins and colony-stimulating factors

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Vitamins

27.

Which type of white blood cell does not have noticeable granules?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

28.

What percentage of leukocytes do neutrophils make up?

a)

10% to 20%

b)

30% to 40%

c)

54% to 70%

d)

80% to 90%

29.

What is another name for neutrophils?

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes

d)

Basophils

30.

Which type of white blood cell is elevated in bacterial infections?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Lymphocytes

31.

What is the function of eosinophils in the immune response?

a)

Moderate allergic reactions

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Destroy cancer cells

d)

Activate T-cells

32.

What type of nucleus do eosinophils have?

a)

Single-lobed nucleus

b)

Bilobed nucleus

c)

Trilobed nucleus

d)

No nucleus

33.

What is the primary function of basophils?

a)

Phagocytize bacteria

b)

Release histamine to stimulate inflammation

c)

Become macrophages

d)

Produce antibodies

34.

Which type of white blood cell is the largest?

a)

Basophils

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

35.

What percentage of leukocytes do monocytes make up?

a)

Less than 1%

b)

3% to 9%

c)

10% to 15%

d)

20% to 25%

36.

What is a characteristic feature of basophils?

a)

Agranulocytes

b)

Spherical nuclei

c)

Granules that stain deep blue in basic stain

d)

Kidney-shaped nuclei

37.

What do monocytes become when they leave the bloodstream?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

38.

What is the size comparison of lymphocytes to red blood cells (RBCs)?

a)

Smaller than RBCs

b)

Larger than RBCs

c)

Same size as RBCs

d)

Not comparable to RBCs

39.

What is a characteristic feature of the nucleus in lymphocytes?

a)

Small and irregular

b)

Large and spherical

c)

Oval and flat

d)

Triangular and dense

40.

Which of the following are the major types of lymphocytes?

a)

Neutrophils and eosinophils

b)

T cells and B cells

c)

Monocytes and basophils

d)

Platelets and erythrocytes

41.

What is the primary function of T cells?

a)

Produce antibodies

b)

Directly attack pathogens and tumor cells

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Clot blood

42.

What percentage of leukocytes do lymphocytes constitute?

a)

10% to 15%

b)

25% to 33%

c)

50% to 60%

d)

70% to 80%

43.

What are platelets also known as?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

44.

What is the normal platelet count in the blood?

a)

50,000 to 100,000/µL

b)

150,000 to 400,000/µL

c)

500,000 to 1,000,000/µL

d)

10,000 to 50,000/µL

45.

What hormone stimulates the production of platelets?

a)

Insulin

b)

Thrombopoietin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Melatonin

46.

What condition is characterized by a platelet count that is too high?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Anemia

c)

Thrombocytosis

d)

Leukopenia

47.

What role do platelets play in the body?

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Immune response

c)

Hemostasis

d)

Hormone regulation

48.

What percentage of blood volume is made up by plasma?

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

65%

d)

75%

49.

What is the primary component of blood plasma by percentage?

a)

Proteins

b)

Salts

c)

Water

d)

Hormones

50.

What color is blood plasma typically described as?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Clear, straw-colored

d)

Green

51.

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood plasma?

a)

Transporting nutrients

b)

Regulating fluid balance

c)

Producing red blood cells

d)

Maintaining pH

52.

What are plasma proteins primarily used for?

a)

Energy source

b)

Structural support

c)

Most abundant dissolved substances

d)

Oxygen transport

53.

What are electrolytes in plasma known for?

a)

They are solid at room temperature.

b)

They can conduct electricity.

c)

They are non-reactive.

d)

They do not ionize in water.

54.

Which of the following is NOT an electrolyte found in blood plasma?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Glucose

d)

Calcium

55.

Where are electrolytes absorbed from?

a)

The skin

b)

The intestine

c)

The lungs

d)

The liver

56.

Which two electrolytes are the most abundant in plasma?

a)

Calcium and Magnesium

b)

Sodium and Chloride

c)

Potassium and Phosphate

d)

Bicarbonate and Sulfate

57.

What is the primary function of hemostasis?

a)

Increase blood flow

b)

Stoppage of bleeding

c)

Enhance oxygen delivery

d)

Reduce blood pressure

58.

Which of the following actions is NOT involved in limiting or preventing blood loss?

a)

Blood vessel spasm

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Blood coagulation

d)

Oxygen transport

59.

In which type of blood vessel injuries are blood vessel spasm and platelet plug formation most effective?

a)

Large blood vessel injuries

b)

Small blood vessel injuries

c)

Capillary injuries

d)

Arterial injuries

60.

What type of surfaces do platelets adhere to in order to form a plug?

a)

Smooth surfaces

b)

Rough surfaces

c)

Slippery surfaces

d)

Transparent surfaces

61.

Which chemical factor is involved in the platelet plug formation process?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Insulin

c)

Von Willebrand factor

d)

Adrenaline

62.

What substances do platelets release during the formation of a platelet plug?

a)

Serotonin and thromboxane A

b)

Dopamine and adrenaline

c)

Glucose and insulin

d)

Calcium and potassium

63.

What is required to stop bleeding in larger vessels?

a)

Platelet plug

b)

Coagulation

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Osmosis

64.

What is the most effective hemostatic mechanism that occurs within 5 to 15 minutes?

a)

Blood coagulation

b)

Blood pressure regulation

c)

Heart rate adjustment

d)

Oxygen transport

65.

What is the process called where a blood clot forms in a series of reactions, with each step activating the next?

a)

Cascade

b)

Chain reaction

c)

Sequence

d)

Cycle

66.

What are the two methods that initiate blood coagulation?

a)

Extrinsic and Intrinsic clotting mechanisms

b)

Internal and External pathways

c)

Primary and Secondary responses

d)

Direct and Indirect methods

67.

What are the chemicals used in coagulation called?

a)

Clotting factors

b)

Enzymes

c)

Hormones

d)

Proteins

68.

Which vitamin is necessary for the functioning of some clotting factors?

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin A

69.

What is the major event in blood coagulation involving fibrinogen?

a)

Conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble threads of fibrin

b)

Breakdown of fibrinogen into amino acids

c)

Transformation of fibrinogen into glucose

d)

Dissolution of fibrinogen in plasma

70.

In what year was the ABO blood antigen gene identified, explaining blood type incompatibilities?

a)

1900

b)

1910

c)

1920

d)

1930

71.

What distinguishes blood types on the surfaces of red blood cells?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins (antigens)

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

72.

What is required for safe blood transfusions?

a)

Knowing the blood types of donor and recipient

b)

Matching blood pressure levels

c)

Checking for blood sugar levels

d)

Ensuring similar blood volume

73.

What is the process of cross matching in blood transfusions?

a)

Matching blood pressure

b)

Matching blood volume

c)

Matching donor RBCs with recipient’s serum

d)

Matching blood sugar levels

74.

What are antigens?

a)

Proteins in blood plasma that react against a specific antigen

b)

Any molecules that evoke an immune response

c)

Clumping of RBCs

d)

Symptoms of a transfusion reaction

75.

What role do antibodies play in the immune system?

a)

They evoke an immune response

b)

They are molecules that cause clumping of RBCs

c)

They react against a specific antigen

d)

They are symptoms of a transfusion reaction

76.

What happens during an incompatible blood transfusion?

a)

The recipient's antibodies clump the donor RBCs

b)

The donor's antibodies clump the recipient RBCs

c)

The recipient's RBCs clump the donor antibodies

d)

The donor's RBCs clump the recipient antibodies

77.

Which antigens are most likely to cause serious transfusion reactions?

a)

Antigens of the ABO and Rh groups

b)

Antigens of the A and B groups

c)

Antigens of the O and Rh groups

d)

Antigens of the AB and O groups

78.

What are some symptoms of a transfusion reaction?

a)

Fever and chills

b)

Anxiety, breathing problems, facial flushing

c)

Nausea and vomiting

d)

Dizziness and fatigue

79.

What are the two major antigens on red blood cell membranes that determine the ABO blood group?

a)

Antigen X and Antigen Y

b)

Antigen A and Antigen B

c)

Antigen C and Antigen D

d)

Antigen E and Antigen F

80.

What are antigens A and B classified as?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

81.

What must be ensured for transfusion compatibility?

a)

Antibodies in recipient's plasma bind to donor's RBC antigens

b)

Antibodies in recipient's plasma do not bind to donor's RBC antigens

c)

Antibodies in donor's plasma bind to recipient's RBC antigens

d)

Antibodies in donor's plasma do not bind to recipient's RBC antigens

82.

Which blood type contains Antigen A on RBC membranes and Anti-B antibodies in plasma?

a)

Type O

b)

Type B

c)

Type A

d)

Type AB

83.

Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

84.

Why can Type O blood be donated to any blood type?

a)

It has both antigens A and B

b)

It lacks antigens A and B

c)

It has only antigen A

d)

It has only antigen B

85.

Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

86.

Why can individuals with Type AB blood receive donor RBCs of any type?

a)

They have both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

b)

They lack both Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

c)

They have only Anti-A antibodies

d)

They have only Anti-B antibodies