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Chapter 5 Cell and Dev

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which process involves the direct transfer of a high energy phosphate from a donor molecule to produce ATP?

a)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Photophosphorylation

d)

Chemiosmosis

2.

What is the main site within the mitochondrion where the machinery for ATP synthesis is located?

a)

Cristae

b)

Outer membrane

c)

Intermembrane space

d)

Matrix

3.

Which of the following best describes the structure of a typical mitochondrion?

a)

Bean-shaped organelle with a double membrane

b)

Spherical organelle with a single membrane

c)

Threadlike organelle with no membrane

d)

Disk-shaped organelle with a triple membrane

4.

What is the function of the mitochondrial matrix?

a)

It contains DNA, ribosomes, and enzymes for protein synthesis.

b)

It stores calcium ions for muscle contraction.

c)

It is the site of photosynthesis.

d)

It produces glucose from carbon dioxide.

5.

How does the size and number of mitochondria in a cell relate to its function?

a)

They reflect the energy requirements of the cell.

b)

They determine the cell’s ability to divide.

c)

They control the cell’s water content.

d)

They regulate the cell’s genetic material.

6.

Which process is responsible for the aerobic production of ATP in mitochondria?

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Substrate-level phosphorylation

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Fermentation

7.

A muscle cell rapidly generates ATP using stored creatine phosphate (CrP). Which reaction represents this process?

a)

CrP + ADP → Cr + ATP

b)

ATP + Cr → CrP + ADP

c)

Glucose + ADP → ATP + Pyruvate

d)

NADH + O2 → NAD+ + H2O

8.

Why do heart muscle cells have a high percentage of their cytoplasm occupied by mitochondria?

a)

They have high energy requirements.

b)

They need to store large amounts of calcium.

c)

They are involved in immune responses.

d)

They synthesize large amounts of lipids.

9.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the mitochondrial matrix?

a)

Site of photosynthesis

b)

Contains circular DNA

c)

Contains ribosomes

d)

Contains enzymes for protein synthesis

10.

What is the significance of the cristae in the inner mitochondrial membrane?

a)

They increase the surface area for ATP synthesis.

b)

They store genetic material.

c)

They transport proteins out of the mitochondrion.

d)

They produce glucose.

11.

What is the approximate protein content of the outer mitochondrial membrane?

a)

About 50% protein

b)

About 10% protein

c)

About 75% protein

d)

About 90% protein

12.

Which protein forms large pores in the outer mitochondrial membrane, allowing moderately sized molecules to cross?

a)

Porin

b)

Cardiolipin

c)

Cytochrome c

d)

ATP synthase

13.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to which of the following?

a)

Even small molecules

b)

Large proteins only

c)

Water only

d)

Glucose only

14.

Which lipid is found in the inner mitochondrial membrane but not cholesterol?

a)

Cardiolipin

b)

Sphingomyelin

c)

Phosphatidylcholine

d)

Triglyceride

15.

The inner mitochondrial membrane has characteristics in common with which type of cell membrane?

a)

Bacterial cell membrane

b)

Cardiac muscle cell membrane

c)

Plant cell membrane

d)

Neuronal cell membrane

16.

During carbohydrate metabolism in eukaryotic cells, what process occurs in the absence of oxygen?

a)

Fermentation

b)

Glycolysis

c)

TCA cycle

d)

Electron transport chain

17.

What is the final product when pyruvate is completely oxidized in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle?

a)

Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

b)

Lactate

c)

Glucose

d)

Oxygen

18.

How many pairs of electrons are transferred to NAD+ and FAD+ per pyruvate in the TCA cycle?

a)

5 pairs

b)

2 pairs

c)

3 pairs

d)

7 pairs

19.

What is the main purpose of high energy electrons generated in the TCA cycle?

a)

To generate ATP

b)

To synthesize glucose

c)

To produce lactate

d)

To form pyruvate

20.

Which process in eukaryotic cells converts glucose to pyruvate in the cytosol?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Fermentation

c)

TCA cycle

d)

Electron transport chain

21.

The diagram shows the structure of the outer mitochondrial membrane with a porin protein forming a pore for passage of which type of molecules?

a)

Large proteins

b)

Moderate-sized molecules

c)

Ions only

d)

DNA strands

22.

Refer to the diagram illustrating carbohydrate metabolism in eukaryotic cells, including glycolysis, fermentation, and the TCA cycle. Which process produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Fermentation

c)

TCA cycle

d)

Electron transport chain

23.

Refer to the diagram of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, showing the stepwise oxidation of substrate and transfer of electrons. Which process is primarily illustrated by this cycle?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Pentose phosphate pathway

24.

What is the main function of ATP in oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

To store genetic information

b)

To provide energy for cellular processes

c)

To transport electrons

d)

To synthesize proteins

25.

Which molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

O2

d)

CO2

26.

How many molecules of ATP are formed from each pair of electrons donated by NADH during oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

27.

Which type of electron carrier contains heme groups bearing Fe or Cu metal ions?

a)

Flavoproteins

b)

Cytochromes

c)

Ubiquinone

d)

Coenzyme A

28.

What is the role of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q) in the electron transport chain?

a)

It is a protein-bound electron carrier

b)

It is a lipid-soluble molecule that transfers electrons

c)

It binds oxygen for ATP synthesis

d)

It synthesizes NADH

29.

Which electron-transport complex catalyzes the transfer of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone?

a)

Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)

b)

Complex II (succinate dehydrogenase)

c)

Complex III (cytochrome bc1)

d)

Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase)

30.

What is the effect of metabolic poisons such as CO, N3-, and CN- on the electron transport chain?

a)

They enhance ATP synthesis

b)

They bind catalytic sites in Complex IV and inhibit function

c)

They increase electron flow

d)

They activate cytochrome oxidase

31.

Explain how chemiosmosis is coupled to ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation.

a)

H+ ions are pumped into the cytoplasm to form ATP

b)

The movement of H+ back across the membrane drives ATP synthesis

c)

Electrons directly combine with ADP to form ATP

d)

Oxygen is converted into ATP by electron carriers

32.

Which complex in the electron transport chain catalyzes the transfer of electrons to O2 and transports H+ across the inner membrane?

a)

Complex I

b)

Complex II

c)

Complex III

d)

Complex IV

33.

Why are three copper atoms important in electron transport complexes?

a)

They bind oxygen for ATP synthesis

b)

They alternate between Cu2+/Cu3+ states to facilitate electron transfer

c)

They synthesize NADH

d)

They transport H+ ions directly

34.

From an energy standpoint, are the reactions in the electron transport chain endergonic or exergonic?

a)

Endergonic

b)

Exergonic

c)

Some are exergonic and others are endergonic.

d)

There is not enough information.

35.

What is the order of arrangement for electron carriers in the electron-transport chain of the inner mitochondrial membrane?

a)

In order of increasingly negative redox potential.

b)

In order of increasingly positive redox potential.

c)

In order of decreasing molecular weight.

d)

In order of decreasing catalytic activity.

36.

Which experimental method is used to determine the sequence of electron carriers in the electron-transport chain?

a)

Use of inhibitors.

b)

Use of fluorescent markers.

c)

Use of radioactive isotopes.

d)

Use of temperature gradients.

37.

What does the tendency for electrons to be transferred from one carrier to the next depend on?

a)

The molecular weight of the carrier.

b)

The potential difference between the two redox centers.

c)

The temperature of the mitochondria.

d)

The pH of the matrix.

38.

What is the role of cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain?

a)

It transfers electrons directly to NADH.

b)

It adds four electrons to O₂ to form two molecules of H₂O.

c)

It removes protons from the matrix.

d)

It synthesizes ATP from ADP.

39.

How do electrons probably flow through the electron transport chain?

a)

By jumping directly from one carrier to another.

b)

Through special "tunneling pathways" of covalent and hydrogen bonds.

c)

By diffusing freely in the intermembrane space.

d)

By being carried by ATP molecules.

40.

Which of the following is NOT a function of cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain?

a)

Adding four electrons to O₂ to form H₂O.

b)

Transferring electrons one at a time.

c)

Promoting movement of H⁺ ions through the protein.

d)

Synthesizing glucose from pyruvate.

41.

Why is the energy released by O₂ reduction important in the electron transport chain?

a)

It drives conformational changes in protein complexes.

b)

It increases the temperature of the mitochondria.

c)

It synthesizes DNA.

d)

It breaks down fatty acids.

42.

Electrons may travel large distances between adjacent redox centers. What is the typical range for these distances?

a)

1–5 Å

b)

10–20 Å

c)

50–100 Å

d)

100–200 Å

43.

What would happen to the flow of electrons if oxygen were not present?

a)

The flow of electrons would continue but at a slower rate.

b)

The flow would cease and ATP production would stop.

c)

The absence of oxygen would have no effect.

d)

The flow of electrons would increase rapidly.

44.

Electron transport produces a gradient of which ion between the intermembrane space and the matrix?

a)

Na+ ions

b)

K+ ions

c)

H+ ions

d)

Cl- ions

45.

Both the H+ concentration gradient and the charge gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane create what kind of energy?

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Potential energy

d)

Thermal energy

46.

Which complexes will be completely reduced in the presence of rotenone, an inhibitor that blocks the transfer of electrons along the chain?

a)

Only complex I

b)

Complex I and II

c)

Only complex III and IV

d)

All of them (complexes I – IV)

e)

None of them

47.

Inhibitors block the transfer of electrons along the chain. Which complexes will be completely reduced in the presence of Cyanide?

a)

Only complex I

b)

Complex I and II

c)

Only complex III and IV

d)

All of them (complexes I – IV)

e)

None of them

48.

Cyanide blocks final transfer of electrons to O₂. What will happen?

a)

Reduced ATP yield

b)

Only Glycolysis & Krebs Cycle continue

c)

Only Glycolysis can continue

d)

Glycolysis & fermentation can continue

e)

Zero ATP produced

49.

What is the effect of Dinitrophenol (DNP) on glucose oxidation and ATP formation?

a)

It couples glucose oxidation and ATP formation

b)

It increases ATP yield by enhancing the proton gradient

c)

It uncouples glucose oxidation and ATP formation by increasing membrane permeability to H⁺

d)

It blocks electron transfer at complex IV

50.

Which of the following is a result of eliminating the proton gradient in mitochondria?

a)

Increased ATP synthesis

b)

Decreased metabolic rate

c)

No ATP formation via chemiosmosis

d)

Enhanced electron transfer

51.

What is the role of uncoupling proteins (UCPs) in brown fat?

a)

They increase ATP production

b)

They generate heat

c)

They block electron transfer

d)

They decrease glucose oxidation

52.

Which of the following creates a pH gradient (ΔpH) in mitochondria?

a)

Concentration gradient between matrix and intermembrane space

b)

Separation of charge across the membrane

c)

Accumulation of ATP in the matrix

d)

Movement of electrons through complex IV

53.

What is the proton-motive force (Δp) in mitochondria?

a)

The force generated by ATP synthase

b)

The energy present in both the pH gradient and electric potential across the membrane

c)

The movement of electrons from NADH to O₂

d)

The gradient of glucose concentration

54.

Fluorescent, cationic dye rhodamine accumulates in active mitochondria due to which property?

a)

High ATP concentration

b)

Voltage inside the mitochondria is negative

c)

Presence of uncoupling proteins

d)

Increased permeability to H⁺

55.

Select the statement that best describes the diagram showing DNP uncoupling the proton gradient and ATP synthase in the mitochondrial membrane.

a)

The diagram illustrates the role of DNP in increasing membrane permeability to H⁺ and uncoupling ATP synthesis.

b)

The diagram shows the Krebs cycle and its intermediates.

c)

The diagram depicts glycolysis in the cytoplasm.

d)

The diagram demonstrates the structure of a ribosome.

56.

Select the statement that best describes the image showing fluorescent rhodamine dye accumulation in active mitochondria due to inside-negative voltage.

a)

The image shows the accumulation of rhodamine dye in active mitochondria due to negative voltage inside.

b)

The image depicts the process of glycolysis.

c)

The image shows the structure of a chloroplast.

d)

The image illustrates the electron transport chain in bacteria.

57.

What is the main source of potential energy used by ATP synthases during chemiosmosis?

a)

The H+ ion gradient

b)

The Na+ ion gradient

c)

The glucose concentration

d)

The oxygen gradient

58.

Which process allows ATP synthase to produce ATP by attaching phosphate groups to ADP?

a)

Chemiosmosis

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Photosynthesis

59.

In which cellular locations is chemiosmosis used to produce ATP?

a)

Mitochondria, chloroplasts, photosynthetic bacteria, bacterial cellular respiration

b)

Nucleus, ribosomes, lysosomes, Golgi apparatus

c)

Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes, vacuoles

d)

Cell wall, plasma membrane, centrioles, microtubules

60.

How does ATP synthase act when compared to an ATPase ion pump?

a)

It acts in reverse, generating ATP

b)

It acts in the same direction, consuming ATP

c)

It does not interact with ions

d)

It only works in the presence of glucose

61.

What is the role of Coupling factor 1 (F1) in the identification of ATP synthase?

a)

It hydrolyzes ATP in certain conditions and behaves as ATP synthase in others

b)

It synthesizes glucose from pyruvate

c)

It transports oxygen across membranes

d)

It breaks down fatty acids

62.

Why was it concluded that an ionic gradient is important for ATP synthase function?

a)

It establishes a proton-motive force to phosphorylate ADP

b)

It increases the temperature of the cell

c)

It allows DNA replication to occur

d)

It produces ribosomes for protein synthesis

63.

Which two major portions make up the structure of bacterial ATP synthase?

a)

F1 and F0

b)

Alpha and Beta

c)

Gamma and Epsilon

d)

Matrix and Channel

64.

What is the primary function of the F1 particle in ATP synthase?

a)

It acts as the catalytic subunit and contains 3 catalytic sites for ATP synthesis.

b)

It transports protons across the membrane.

c)

It forms the base of the enzyme.

d)

It binds to the mitochondrial DNA.

65.

Which subunit runs from the tip of F1 down to F0 to form a central stalk in ATP synthase?

a)

Gamma (γ) subunit

b)

Alpha (α) subunit

c)

Beta (β) subunit

d)

Epsilon (ε) subunit

66.

What is the role of the epsilon (ε) subunit in ATP synthase?

a)

It helps attach the gamma subunit to the F0 base.

b)

It catalyzes ATP synthesis.

c)

It transports protons.

d)

It forms the spherical head of the particle.

67.

How do protons move through ATP synthase?

a)

Through a channel in the F0 from the intermembrane space to the matrix

b)

Through the F1 subunit only

c)

Across the cytoplasm directly

d)

By binding to the gamma subunit

68.

What is the ratio of the five different subunits in the F1 subunit of ATP synthase?

a)

3 α : 3 β : 1 δ : 1 ε : 1 γ

b)

2 α : 2 β : 2 δ : 2 ε : 2 γ

c)

4 α : 2 β : 1 δ : 1 ε : 1 γ

d)

1 α : 1 β : 1 δ : 1 ε : 1 γ

69.

What causes the shift in conformation of the catalytic subunit in the "Binding Change Mechanism" model of ATP production?

a)

Movement of H+ ions

b)

Movement of Na+ ions

c)

Change in temperature

d)

Addition of glucose

70.

Which statement best describes the role of the gamma subunit in ATP synthase?

a)

It rotates relative to the surrounding subunits.

b)

It binds ATP directly.

c)

It forms the channel for proton movement.

d)

It synthesizes ATP.

71.

In the "Binding Change Mechanism" model, what determines the conformation of the catalytic site of the beta subunit?

a)

Its contact with the gamma subunit

b)

The number of protons present

c)

The presence of ATP

d)

The shape of the F0 base

72.

Which of the following is NOT a state that the binding sites on the catalytic subunit can be in?

a)

Open (O)

b)

Loose (L)

c)

Tight (T)

d)

Closed (C)

73.

Why is the "Binding Change Mechanism" model of ATP production supported?

a)

There is structural and experimental evidence.

b)

It is the only possible explanation.

c)

It was proposed by a Nobel laureate.

d)

It does not require any subunits.

74.

How is ATP synthesized in the "Binding Change Mechanism" model?

a)

Through rotational catalysis while the stalk of ATP synthase rotates relative to the head.

b)

By direct transfer of phosphate from F0 to F1.

c)

By diffusion of ATP through the membrane.

d)

By chemical reaction in the cytoplasm.

75.

Where do the H+ ions accumulate as a result of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

a)

Intermembrane space

b)

Matrix

c)

I really don’t know

d)

Cytoplasm

76.

What is the role of the c ring in the F₀ subunit of ATP synthase?

a)

It binds ATP directly.

b)

It forms a base for proton diffusion and rotation.

c)

It synthesizes glucose.

d)

It transports electrons.

77.

How does the rotation of the c ring contribute to ATP synthesis?

a)

It breaks down ATP.

b)

It provides twisting force that drives ATP synthesis.

c)

It releases oxygen.

d)

It absorbs light energy.

78.

Describe the experimental demonstration of rotation in ATP synthase using a labeled actin filament.

a)

The actin filament remains stationary.

b)

The actin filament rotates when ATP is present, powered by ATP hydrolysis.

c)

The actin filament glows but does not move.

d)

The actin filament breaks apart.

79.

Which direction is the ATP synthase pointing?

a)

F₀ base opens to Intermembrane space

b)

F₀ base opens to Matrix

c)

I really don’t know

d)

F₀ base opens to cytoplasm

80.

Where does the ATP end up?

a)

in Intermembrane space

b)

in Matrix

c)

in cytoplasm

d)

in nucleus

81.

What does the H⁺ gradient drive in mitochondria?

a)

Transport of ADP into and ATP out of the mitochondrion

b)

Synthesis of glucose from pyruvate

c)

Movement of DNA into the nucleus

d)

Export of oxygen from the cell

82.

Which factor is most important in controlling the rate of respiration in mitochondria?

a)

ADP

b)

Oxygen

c)

Glucose

d)

Pyruvate

83.

Other factors influence the rate of respiration, but what is true about these pathways?

a)

The pathways are poorly understood

b)

The pathways are well understood

c)

The pathways do not exist

d)

The pathways only occur in plants