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Virtual Preliminary 2021 Practice Exam

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Use the “Questions/Exam” Section on your electronic scan sheet to bubble the correct answer. Read the following passage and bubble letter ”A” in the number 1 spot under your exam section. 1. Florida FFA expects students to be honest in all of their work, including work outside of the classroom related to Career Development Events (CDE). By participating in a competitive event, FFA members, agree to adhere to high standards of academic honesty and integrity and understand that failure to comply with this pledge may result in disciplinary action, up to and including event disqualification and termination of active FFA membership. By selecting the answer “agree” below, you are agreeing to adhere to the following: • You are the actual FFA member named on this event scantron. • Your proctor is not your agriculture teacher or related to you or anyone taking the exam or to a agriculture teacher at your school. Your agriculture teacher should NOT be in the room where you are testing. • You will use only the allowed materials as set forth in the rules. • You will not talk, share questions/answers or any way communicate regarding event materials at any time during the event. • Your exam will be completed solely by YOU during the allotted time without any assistance from anyone else or by any means not allowed in the event rules. • You will have only two internet browser tabs open (your virtual scorecard & event materials) while taking the test. • You will NOT use any electronic devices (other than the device on which the exam is administered on) such as cell phones, smart watches, tablets, etc. • You will not take pictures, screen shots or download test materials. Your ENTIRE TEAM W ILL BE DISQUALIFIED if this is done. • You will complete your contest in one sitting/session and cannot be saved and resumed at a later time. • You will adhere to the CDE/LDE honesty and integrity policy as published. • You will adhere to the Code of Ethics as set forth in the FFA M anual. • Exam inconsistencies and violations of these procedures will be investigated thoroughly, including the monitoring exam submission timestamps and IP addresses.

By selecting answer "A", means you agree to the terms above.

(a)  

2.

Which region of the U.S. produces the most cattle?

a)

Corn Belt

b)

North Plains

c)

Southeast

d)

Southwest

3.

True or False: Nearly all Angus are pure for the dominate polled gene.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Braford cattle are 5/8 Hereford and 3/8 ___________.

a)

Angus

b)

Brahman

c)

Brangus

d)

Charolais

5.

Identify breed of cattle pictured.

a)

Brahman

b)

Charolais

c)

Chianina

d)

Gelbvieh

6.

Which breed of cattle can be described as having light red hair with lighter circles around the eyes and muzzle and small, short heads with broad foreheads?

a)

Brangus

b)

Hereford

c)

Limousin

d)

Pinzguer

7.

Which breed of cattle was developed on the King Ranch in Texas?

a)

Angus

b)

Braford

c)

Santa Gertrudis

d)

Shorthorn

8.

True or False: There is no color requirement for registration of Simmental cattle.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Kobe beef comes from which breed of cattle?

a)

Highland

b)

Salers

c)

Texas Longhorn

d)

Wagyu

10.

Which type of beef production involves keeping a herd of beef cows that are bred each year and then the calves are sold to cattle feeders who feed them to slaughter weight?

a)

calf producer

b)

cow-calf producer

c)

purebred breeders

d)

seedstock producers

11.

Place this class of simmental bulls (cuts of 3-2-4).

(a)  

12.

A muscle conformation score of 5 means

a)

light muscled

b)

average muscled

c)

heavy muscled

d)

double muscled

13.

What body part is indicated by #26?

a)

Back

b)

Chine

c)

Loin

d)

Rump

14.

What body part is indicated by #27?

a)

Dewclaw

b)

Hoof

c)

Loin

d)

Switch

15.

Which of the following is considered to be a high-value wholesale cut?

a)

Chuck

b)

Loin

c)

Plate

d)

Shank

16.

Performance testing records are used to

a)

cull low-producing cows

b)

improve the grade of calves produced

c)

select replacement heifers and bulls

d)

all of the above

17.

What wholesale cut is indicated by letter I?

a)

A. Chuck

b)

B. Loin

c)

C. Flank

d)

D. Round

18.

Place this class of angus heifer calves. (cuts of 4-2-2)

(a)  

19.

When evaluating beef cattle what term refers to the general structure and proportion of the animal's body?

a)

A. Balance

b)

B. Smoothness

c)

C. Style

d)

D. Conformation

20.

When giving oral reasons how far should you stand from the contest official?

a)

A. 1 to 2 feet

b)

B. 2 to 4 feet

c)

C. 6 to 8 feet

d)

D. 8 to 10 feet

21.

Which state leads the U.S. in swine production?

a)

A. Illinois

b)

B. Iowa

c)

C. Minnesota

d)

D. North Carolina

22.

What would you place this class of barrows? (Cuts of 2-3-5)

(a)  

23.

Which breed of swine is most popular in swine production in the U.S.?

a)

Duroc

b)

Hampshire

c)

Landrace

d)

Yorkshire

24.

Which of the following swine breeds is known for their mothering ability and large litters?

a)

American Landrace

b)

Berkshire

c)

Duroc

d)

Hampshire

25.

Which of the following swine breeds was originally known as the Warren County hog?

a)

Duroc

b)

Poland China

c)

Tamworth

d)

Yorkshire

26.

Identify breed of swine pictured.

a)

Berkshire

b)

Berkenstock

c)

Hampshire

d)

Poland China

27.

Identify breed of swine pictured.

a)

Chester White

b)

Landrace

c)

Pietrain

d)

Yorkshire

28.

Identify breed of swine pictured.

a)

Duroc

b)

Hereford

c)

Poland China

d)

Spotted Swine

29.

True or False: To be eligible for registry, Hampshire’s white belt must include no more than one-third the length of the body.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four primal cuts of the hog carcass?

a)

Boston shoulder

b)

Ham

c)

Loin

d)

Rump

31.

Which wholesale cut of pork is from the hind leg?

a)

Ham

b)

Loin

c)

Rib

d)

Shank

32.

Place this class of duroc gilts. (cuts of 3-6-2)

(a)  

33.

What body part is #21?

a)

Belly

b)

Fore flank

c)

Rear flank

d)

Side

34.

What body part is #5?

a)

Brisket

b)

Jowl

c)

Pastern

d)

Snout

35.

How much does the typical market hog weigh today?

a)

250

b)

270

c)

275

d)

290

36.

How many pounds of lean meat does the typical market hog produce?

a)

55 pounds

b)

105 pounds

c)

197 pounds

d)

270 pounds

37.

What is the minimum breeding age for a boar?

a)

4 months

b)

7.5 months

c)

9 months

d)

1 year

38.

When evaluating the amount of muscle on a hog it is best to view the hog from the

a)

front

b)

rear

c)

side

39.

True or False: Range production accounts for more than 50 percent of the sheep production in the U.S.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following is a reason that sheep make a good second enterprise on a farm?

a)

Initial costs are low

b)

Increased management and labor requirements

c)

Sheep can be fed on roughages and small amounts of grain

d)

Both A and C

41.

Which of the following sheep breeds is a fine wool breed?

a)

Cheviot

b)

Lincoln

c)

Merino

d)

Romney

42.

Identify the breed of sheep pictured.

a)

Dorset

b)

Hampshire

c)

Montedale

d)

Southdown

43.

Which breed of sheep's wool demands a high price around the world and is called the "Golden Fleece"?

a)

Debouillet

b)

Hampshire

c)

Merino

d)

Suffolk

44.

Which of the following sheep breeds is a fur sheep breed?

a)

Dorper

b)

Karakul

c)

Oxford

d)

St. Croix

45.

True or False: It is necessary to handle sheep to determine the exact conformation and muscling.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What body part is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Dock

b)

Fore flank

c)

Head

d)

Poll

47.

What would you place this class of market goats? (Cuts of 3-5-2)

(a)  

48.

True or False: A great portion of the increase in goat production is due to the increased popularity of fiber goats.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the most common meat goat breed in the U.S.?

a)

A. Boer

b)

B. Kinder

c)

C. Pygmy

d)

D. Spanish

50.

Where did Boer goats originate?

a)

A. New Zealand

b)

B. South Africa

c)

C. Tennessee

d)

D. Washington

51.

Which breed of meat goat are often called fainting goats?

a)

A. Boer

b)

B. Kiko

c)

C. Myotonic

d)

D. Nubian

52.

When evaluating meat goats you should first view each animal from how many feet away?

a)

A. 5 feet

b)

B. 15 feet

c)

C. 25 feet

d)

D. 40 feet

53.

What is the most important characteristic when evaluating market goats?

a)

capacity

b)

finish

c)

muscling

d)

soundness and structure

54.

What is the term used to describe the amount of fat cover on a market animal?

a)

condition

b)

finish

c)

hide

d)

marbling

55.

True or False: Most meat goat producers use pasture or rangeland to meet the needs of their goats.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

What is the name of a male intended for beef only?

a)

Bullock

b)

Steer

c)

Cow

d)

Bull

57.

Which of the following is not utilized in pig feed?

a)

Corn

b)

Wheat

c)

Alfalfa

d)

Fish Meal

58.

What is the name of the operation that keeps mature cattle to produce calves to sell to other producers?

a)

Backgrounders

b)

Cow-Calf

c)

Seedstocker

d)

Commerical

59.

Place this class of ewe lambs. (cuts of 4-2-3)

(a)