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Worksheets

Certification Practice

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Tillage is primarily used for which of the following?

a)

Improving soil aeration

b)

Controlling weeds

c)

Preparing seedbeds

d)

All of the above

2.

How much of the earth's land surface is covered with grasslands?

a)

20%

b)

20-40%

c)

10-30%

d)

40%

3.

Select all the services grasslands provide

a)

Provide very important habitat for wildlife

b)

Filter runoff from precipitation

c)

Build deep and rich soils

d)

Store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

4.

Grasslands typically exist between which of the following?

a)

Forests and deserts

b)

Mountains and rivers

c)

Oceans and lakes

d)

Cities and towns

5.

Which of the following is NOT a main threat which plagues grasslands today?

a)

Overgrazing

b)

Urban development

c)

Climate change

d)

Lasting effects from the Dust Bowl

6.

When topsoil is lost, the loss is fairly permanent because the process to create just three centimeters takes about 1,000 years.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following best describes the Farm Bill?

a)

Incentives provided to landowners to conserve grassland habitats.

b)

A bill focused solely on the regulation of organic farming practices.

c)

A legislative act that deals exclusively with the export of agricultural products.

d)

A policy document that outlines the environmental impacts of farming.

8.

Savannas are typically found in which regions?

a)

Tropical and subtropical regions

b)

Polar regions

c)

Temperate regions

d)

Desert regions

9.

Savannas are typically found in which regions?

a)

Africa, Australia, and South America

b)

The North Pole

c)

North America

d)

The Middle East

10.

Which of the following is the specific mission of the Natural Resources Conservation Service?

a)

To provide financial assistance to farmers

b)

To conserve soils for agricultural production

c)

To regulate water quality standards

d)

To manage national parks and forests

11.

Why do temperate grasslands have the most fertile soil on earth?

a)

Due to high rainfall and dense vegetation

b)

Grass roots decaying below the surface enriches the soil with nutrients

c)

As a result of volcanic activity enriching the soil

d)

Owing to the presence of large rivers providing nutrients

12.

A wetland with woody plants, saturated/slow moving water and a lack of oxygen in the soil can be described as a ______.

a)
Swamp
b)

Marsh

c)

Bog

d)

Ocean

13.

Select all the factors in which a wetland is classified.

a)

Hydrological regime

b)

Landscape position

c)

Vegetation cover

14.

Wetlands are economically important due to which of the following factors?

a)

Conservation

b)

Pollution

c)

Education

d)

Commercial and recreational fishing

15.

Wetlands are NOT critical for which of the following?

a)

Flood control

b)

Water purification

c)

Biodiversity support

d)

Desert formation

16.

Levees are most commonly used for which of the following?

a)

Flood control

b)

Agricultural irrigation

c)

Transportation

d)

Electricity generation

17.

Hurricanes do less financial damage, flood further inland and displace more people when coasts are heavily developed.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Select all the causes of degradation to a wetland.

a)

Soil runoff

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Flooding

19.

In what year was the Migratory Bird Hunting/ Duck Stamp Act passed?

a)
1934
b)

1948

c)

1958

d)

1912

20.

Which president enacted the Farm Bill?

a)
Theodore Roosevelt
b)

Bill Clinton

c)

Franklin D. Roosevelt

21.

The hooded warbler is a ________ wetland species.

a)

temporary

b)

not a temporary

22.

Biological productivity includes which of the following?

a)

Greater volume of food production for large food webs

b)

Less food for smaller animals

c)

Only large offspring

d)

None of these

23.

To be considered a wetland, the area must be covered in shallow water all year.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Riparian wetlands are particularly vulnerable to destruction, but serve a vital role in which of the following?

a)

Floodplain protection

b)

Urban development

c)

Desertification

d)

Deforestation

25.

Which of the following allows organizations like farmers to be paid to reduce the amount of pollution they discharge?

a)

Cap and trade system

b)

Subsidies for sustainable practices

c)

Pollution tax

d)

Water Quality Trading

26.

Recreational activities generate how much money per year?

a)
40 billion
b)

30 billion

c)

20 billion

d)

100 billion

27.

Which of the following is NOT a wetland?

a)
Substrate
b)

Bog

c)

Swamp

d)

Marsh

28.

Which of the following was enacted to restore and maintain the chemical, physical and biological integrity of the nation's waters?

a)
Clean Water Act
b)

Clean Air Act

c)

Farm Bill

d)

Wildlife Act

29.

__________ factors effects occur through the interaction of animals, plants and other organisms.

a)
Biotic
b)

Abiotic

30.

Which of the following methods for measuring populations utilizes recording signs of animals, such as droppings, tracks, nest counts, etc.?

a)
Index of population size
b)

Population census

c)

Landscape Survey

d)

Drone surveillance

31.

Which of the following is a means of manipulating wildlife habitats?

a)

Putting up Fences

b)

Forest fires

c)

Habitat destruction

d)

Urban Development

32.

Emigration can be due to a habitat's ______________.

a)
Limited-carrying capacity
b)

Abundant resources

33.

Death rate is expressed as the number of deaths per __________.

a)
1,000
b)

100

c)

10,000

d)

500

34.

Disease is an biotic factor.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Fertility refers to the number of offspring produced.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Recruitment is NOT affected by immigration.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Dominance occurs when one individual achieves preferential access to resources, including food, cover and mates over other individuals. This may be achieved through submission or smaller body size.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Which of the following is a biotic factor which may impact wildlife populations? Pick 2.

a)
Parasitism
b)

Disease

c)

Hurricanes

d)

Sandstorms

39.

Most permits are regulated to scientific, educational or propagation purposes.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following is an essential reason why wildlife species have home ranges?

a)

Locate a mate

b)

Find food

c)

Avoid predators

d)

Establish territory

41.

Which of the following describes the maximum population size of a species the habitat can support?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Population density

c)

Growth rate

d)

Reproductive rate

42.

Which of the following is NOT a goal for population management?

a)

Increase recreational opportunities for humans

b)

Maintain ecological balance

c)

Preserve genetic diversity

d)

Control population size

43.

Food is NOT crucial for which of the following?

a)

Growth and development

b)

Reproduction

c)

Removal of metabolic wastes

d)

Energy production

44.

Vulnerable species have less than _______ mature individuals.

a)
10,000
b)

1000

c)

100

d)

3000

45.

Which of the following is NOT included when monitoring wildlife populations?

a)

Tracking animal movements

b)

Recording birth and death rates

c)

Instances of human conflict

d)

Counting population numbers

46.

Which of the following is NOT an ecological principle of wildlife management?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Habitat preservation

c)

Predator-prey dynamics

d)

Economic profitability

47.

What year was the first Cooperative Wildlife Research Center established?

a)
1935
b)

1948

c)

2024

d)

1901

48.

Which of the following is the genus and species of the gray partridge?

a)
Perdix; perdix
b)

Falco sparverius

c)

Cyanocitta cristata

49.

White-tailed deer have a maximum lifespan of which of the following?

a)
8 to 9 years
b)

9-10 years

c)

7-8 years

d)

10-20 years

50.

Javelina belongs in the order Tayassuidae

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The scientific name for a moose is Alces americanus

a)

True

b)

False

52.

The genus for both the black and grizzly bear is _______.

a)
Ursus
b)

Aves

c)

Chiroptera

d)

Cervidae

53.

Which of the following is the average home range for bison?

a)
25 square miles
b)

50 square miles

c)

10 square miles

d)

250 square miles

54.

Which of the following best describes the diet of the American woodcock?

(a)  

55.

Which of the following is considered an omnivore?

(a)  

56.

Which of the following describes the diet of the striped and spotted skunk?

a)
Omnivore
b)

Carnivore

c)

Herbivore

57.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a badger?

a)

home range of three to four square miles

b)

stocky, low to the ground

c)

mammal

d)

big game

58.

Which of the following has a home range which averages around 200 yards?

(a)  

59.

Which of the following is the scientific name of the American beaver?

(a)  

60.

American minks are omnivores.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

American minks have an average lifespan of 10 years.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

American minks have three offspring per year.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which of the following is true of gray wolves?

a)

Gray wolves are solitary animals.

b)

Gray wolves are herbivores.

c)

Gray wolves live in packs.

d)

Gray wolves are found only in Africa.

64.

Which of the following is NOT true about beavers?

a)

Beavers are herbivores.

b)

Beavers build dams.

c)

Beavers can fly.

d)

Beavers have webbed feet.

65.

The two layers of fur which furbearers have are known as which of the following?

a)

Guard hair and underfur

b)

Topcoat and base coat

c)

Outer layer and inner layer

d)

Primary fur and secondary fur

66.

Which species lives underground in burrows up to 60 cm deep?

a)

Meerkat

b)

Prairie Dog

c)

Mole

d)

Rabbit

67.

What is the maximum lifespan for a house finch?

a)

5 years

b)

10 years

c)

15 years

d)

20 years

68.

Which of the following is NOT part of the Viperidae family?

a)

Rattlesnake

b)

Copperhead

c)

Python

d)

Viper

69.

Which of the following belongs to the Turdidae family?

a)

Robin

b)

Sparrow

c)

Eagle

d)

Penguin

70.

What is the maximum lifespan for a black rat snake?

a)

10 years

b)

15 years

c)

20 years

d)

25 years

71.

The Mexican free-tailed bat belongs to the order Chiroptera.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What is the average number of ducklings wood ducks have annually?

a)

5-10

b)

10-15

c)

15-20

d)

20-25

73.

Which of the following is the nesting site of the American pigeon?

a)

Forests

b)

Urban areas

c)

Cliffs

d)

Grasslands

74.

Which of the following male ducks have a white chin strap and iridescent green crest?

a)

Mallard

b)

Wood Duck

c)

Northern Pintail

d)

American Wigeon

75.

Which of the following male ducks have a yellow eye?

(a)  

76.

When chicks are born fully-developed, they are referred to as which of the following?

(a)  

77.

Which of the following birds have a spatulate bill?

a)

Spoonbill

b)

Hummingbird

c)

Eagle

d)

Penguin

78.

What is the speculum on waterfowl?

a)

A type of feather pattern

b)

A part of the beak

c)

A type of webbed foot

d)

A type of nesting behavior

79.

Select the waterfowl known for forming seasonally monogamous pair bonds.

a)

American Wigeon

b)

Canvasback

80.

Which of the following typically triggers migration for waterfowl?

(a)  

81.

The lesser scaup is classified as which type of waterfowl?

(a)  

82.

Waterfowl belong to which taxonomic class?

(a)  

83.

Around (a)   percent of nests will hatch, the rest will be lost to predation or agricultural practices.

84.

Where are the lamellae located?

(a)  

85.

Select all the necessary parts of a goose, hunters, who are participating in the Parts Collection Survey, are required to submit.

a)

Wings

b)

Beak

c)

Feet

d)

Tail

86.

Which of the following is information which does NOT help biologists when collecting banding data?

(a)  

87.

Why are waterfowl thought of as indicator species?

a)

Because they are sensitive to environmental changes

b)

Because they are the most common birds

c)

Because they migrate long distances

d)

Because they are easy to observe

88.

As a result of the sales from the Duck Stamp Act, how many wildlife refuges have been created or expanded?

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

89.

Which of the following is NOT an essential breeding habitat?

a)

Wetlands

b)

Forests

c)

Deserts

d)

Grasslands

90.

How many species of waterfowl are currently endangered?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

91.

Select all the significant threats to waterfowl.

a)

Habitat loss

b)

Climate change

c)

Pollution

d)

Predation

e)

Overhunting

92.

What is the purpose of the Lacey Act?

a)

To regulate the trade of wildlife and plants

b)

To promote international trade agreements

c)

To establish national parks

d)

To protect endangered species

93.

Which of the following Acts has conservation provisions including the Conservation Reserve Program?

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Endangered Species Act

c)

Food Security Act

d)

National Environmental Policy Act

94.

What is the difference between the Wetland Reserve Program and the Agricultural Conservation Easement Program?

4 lines
95.

Which type of agriculture provides important waterfowl wintering habitats in southern states and along the west coast?

(a)  

96.

Select the basic goals of The North American Model of Wildlife Conservation.

4 lines
97.

According to the presentation, the Migratory Bird Treaty Act of 1918 is credited with saving which of the following species from extinction?

(a)  

98.

Which of the following was the first federal law protecting wildlife?

(a)