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Health Science 2 Final Exam Dec 2024

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a part of the Central Nervous System?

a)

Peripheral Nerves

b)

Spinal Cord

c)

Adrenal glands

d)

Lymph nodes

2.

The peripheral nervous system consists of 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Severe tightening of a flexor muscle

a)

Contractibility

b)

Flexion

c)

Contracture

d)

Strain

4.

The three types of muscles are

a)

Skeletal, Hard, and Digestive

b)

Skeletal, smooth, and respiratory

c)

Skeletal, soft, and

Digestive

d)

Skeletal, smooth, and Cardiac

5.

Myalgia is

a)

an over stretching of muscle tissue

b)

an over development of muscle tone

c)

pain and discomfort in the muscle

d)

Cramping of the muscle fibers

6.

Muscle that compresses the abdomen

a)

Latissimus dorsi

b)

Pectoralis major

c)

Sartorius

d)

Rectus abdominus

7.

The bones that make up the pelvic girdle are

a)

Ischium, Ilium, sacrum, coccyx, and pubis

b)

Ischium, Ilium, sacrum, coccyx and patella

c)

Ischium, Ilium, scapula, coccyx and pubis

d)

Ischium, Ilium, sacrum, clavicle, and pubis

8.

Joints are areas where two or more bones join together.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Osteoporosis is an infection in the bone.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

All are functions of the skeletal system except

a)

Store most of the body's calcium supply

b)

Forms a framework to support the body's muscles, fat and skin

c)

Surrounds the vital organs to protect them

d)

Supplies heat to the main trunk of the body

11.

Innermost layer of skin

a)

Dermis

b)

Subcutaneous fascia

c)

Epidermis

d)

Sebaceous fascia

12.

All are functions of the skin except

a)

Protection

b)

Excretion

c)

Maintaining balance

d)

Storage

e)

Absorption

13.

The three bones of the ear are

a)

Stapes, Malleus, and Incus

b)

Stapes, Mastoid, and Incus

c)

Stapes, Vestibule, and Choclea

d)

Stapes, Vestibule, and Incus

14.
Which part of the eye contracts and dilates based on the environment? 
a)
Pupil
b)
Cornea
c)
Sclera
d)
Iris
15.

What is letter B

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Retina

c)

Cornea

d)

Lens

e)

Pupil

16.

What is letter I?

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Vitreous humor

d)

Optic nerve

e)

Pupil

17.

Letter G is pointing to

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left Atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

18.

Of the four chambers, which one carries deoxygenated blood?

a)

F and J

b)

F and A

c)

A and G

d)

J and G

19.

Letter D is pointing to

a)

Aorta

b)

Right Pulmonary Artery

c)

Superior Vena Cava

d)

Pulmonary Trunk

20.

The mitral valve is another name for the

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Tricuspid valve

d)

Bicuspid valve

21.

The period of ventricular contraction is called diastole.

a)

True

b)

False

22.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
a)
removes excess fluid from around organs
b)
absorbs/transports fats
c)
circulates blood
d)
produces white blood cells
23.

The bulk of gas exchange occurs in which structure?

a)

trachea

b)

larynx

c)

bronchiole

d)

alveoli

24.

What structure contains the vocal cords?

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

nasal cavity

d)

sinuses

25.

What is the primary function of the nasal cavity in the respiratory system?

a)

Transporting oxygen to the lungs

b)

Producing sound for speech

c)

Filtering, warming, and moistening incoming air

d)

Exchanging gases in the alveoli

26.

You are eating a delicious meal and you wonder where it goes after you swallow it. What is the third part of your digestive system that your food would pass through according to the picture?

a)

esophagus

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

liver

27.

Connective tissue that connects bones together at an articulation.

a)

ligament

b)

tendon

c)

meniscus

d)

synovial

28.
What bones are these?
a)
Carpals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Phalanges
d)
Metatarsals
29.

The appendix is attached directly to the:

a)

cecum

b)

pancreas

c)

jejunum

d)

sigmoid colon

30.

The cycle of chest compressions and rescue breaths on an adult in CPR is:

a)
15 compressions to 1 rescue breath
b)
15 compressions to 3 rescue breaths
c)
30 compressions to 1 rescue breath
d)
30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths
31.
What is the most important part of CPR?
a)
breaths
b)
head chin tilt
c)
holding the nose
d)
compressions
32.

You are performing single person CPR. The AED (automatic external defibrillator) advises a shock. After the shock is delivered what is the next immediate step?

a)

Call for help

b)

Check for pulse

c)

Resume CPR with compressions

d)

Clean AED paddles for next use

33.
You believe that a person has a head, neck or
spinal injury. What should you do?
a)
Remove the person’s safety helmet.
b)
Have the person remain in the position he or
she is in until emergency medical services
(EMS) personnel arrive and take over.
c)
Put the person in the recovery position.
d)
Have the person nod the head up and down
and shake the head from side to side to see if
there is any pain or difficulty with movement.
34.
Which of the following statements about
anaphylaxis is true?
a)
A person experiencing anaphylaxis may have
trouble breathing and go into shock.
b)
It is important to act quickly when a person is
showing signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis.
c)
The effects of anaphylaxis can be stopped or
slowed by administering epinephrine.
d)
All of the above
35.
Which of the following could be signs or symptoms
of stroke?
a)
Drooping features on one side of the face
b)
Trouble with speech or language
c)
An arm that drifts downward when both arms
are lifted in front of the body
d)
All of the above
36.
Which of the following could cause shock?
a)
A burn
b)
A wound that is bleeding heavily
c)
Anaphylaxis
d)
All of the above
37.

A fast pulse is also called...

a)

tachycardia

b)

tachypnea

c)

bradycardia

d)

bradypnea

38.

The area of the body where you take a carotid pulse is...

a)

the neck

b)

the groin area

c)

the wrist

d)

the inside of your elbow

39.
_______________ can be counted most accurately if a patient is not aware of the procedure
a)
Weight
b)
Height
c)
Vision
d)
Respirations
40.

What is diastolic pressure?

a)

Indicates the health and tone of arterial walls.

b)

Pressure that occurs in the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is contracting.

c)

Measurement of the pressure that the blood exerts on the walls of the arteries during stages of heart activity.

d)

Constant pressure in the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle is at rest

41.

HIPAA imposes penalties for breaches of confidentiality regarding medical records that identifies a patient by name

a)

A) True

b)

B) False

42.

What is the purpose of the Good Samaritan Law?

a)

To protect patients from healthcare fraud

b)

To protect healthcare providers who give care in emergency situations

c)

To mandate insurance coverage for all patients.

d)

To regulate healthcare provider licensing.

43.

What is the role of an advance directive?

a)

A document that gives permission after a patient is informed of risks, benefits, and alternatives.

b)
  • A set of activities that licensed healthcare professionals are permitted to perform in their profession.

c)

A document that permits an individual to appoint another person to make any decision regarding health care if the principal should become unable to make the decision

d)

A document that allows individuals to state what medical treatment they want or do not want in the event that they become incapacitated and are unable to express their wishes regarding medical care.

44.

What is an advantage of using the EHR? (Click all that apply)

a)

Improved patient care

b)

Free healthcare

c)

Improved care coordination

d)

Able to directly message your doctor

e)

Can make payments on the portal

45.

The mature egg cell goes into the fallopian tube where it waits for a sperm cell. Thus, the fallopian tube serves as the site of fertilization.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

What is considered as the ovulation day for regular menstrual cycle?

a)

1st day

b)

7th day

c)

14th day

d)

28th day

47.

Identify the structure labelled "B" in the diagram.

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureter

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

48.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?

a)

Production of urine

b)

Disposal of waste products

c)

Regulates blood ions (electrolytes)

d)

Produces hormones that help in digestion

49.

The hormone insulin is made here......

a)

ovaries

b)

pancreas

c)

thyroid gland

d)

pituitary gland

50.

The main source of fuel for our cells?

a)

fats

b)

proteins

c)

vitamins

d)

glucose