Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CH 14 - CH 16

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Blood type A cannot receive blood from which blood type?

(There are two responses that you MUST select to get this question correct).

Select one or more:

a)

B

b)

AB

c)

A

d)

O

2.

Which is the deepest layer of the pericardium listed?

a)


Fibrous pericardium

b)

Morphogenic pericardium

c)

Parietal pericardium

d)

Visceral pericardium (epicardium)

3.

The right side of the heart pumps ______ blood through the ______ circuit.

a)

oxygen poor/deoxygenated; pulmonary

b)

oxygen poor/deoxygenated; systemic

c)

oxygen rich/oxygenated; pulmonary

d)

oxygen rich/oxygenated; systemic

4.

In the normal sequence of blood flow, oxygenated blood from the lungs travels through the pulmonary veins to the __________.

a)

Coronary sinus

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

e)

Right atrium

5.

Chordae tendineae and papillary muscles work together to help

a)

Open the AV valves

b)

Prevent AV valve prolapse (blowing out)

c)

Prevent AV valve transfiguration

6.

What are the first blood vessels that come off of the aorta?

a)

the inferior vena cava

b)

the right and left coronary arteries

c)

the carotid artery

d)

the pulmonary veins

7.

Atrial systole pushes what percentage of blood into the ventricles?

a)

50%

b)

30%

c)

100%

d)

70%

8.

Check all that apply. A heart murmur may be caused by

a)

incomplete closure of the valves

b)

a hole in the lateral wall of the atrial myocardium

c)

a hole in the lateral wall of the ventricular myocardium

d)

a hole in either one or both interatrial or interventricular septums

9.

Check all that apply. Arterial blood pressure is affected by which of the following?

a)

peripheral resistance

b)

decreased stroke volume

c)

increased heart rate

d)

viscosity

10.

how many chambers does a human heart have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

3

11.

The aortic valve in the heart opens because of differences in

a)

blood

b)

gravity

c)

pressure

d)

hematocrit

12.

The ventricles of the human heart are the lower chambers

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The universal donor blood type:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

14.

Why is blood type AB considered to be the universal recipient blood type?

a)

It has neither A nor B antigens

b)

It has both A and B antigens

c)

It has neither A nor B antibodies

d)

It has both A and B antibodies

15.

Why is it important to test for blood type before a blood transfusion is given?

a)

Incompatible blood types may cause the release of antithrombin

b)

Incompatible blood types are no longer a concern due to current technology advances

c)

Incompatible blood types may agglutinate

d)

Incompatible blood types will result in autoimmunity

16.

In the series of events that control bleeding (stoppage of blood loss), which protein is directly responsible for converting fibrinogen into fibrin?

a)

Plasmin

b)

Hageman factor

c)

Antithrombin

d)

Thrombin

17.

Why is iron required for the formation of red blood cells?

a)

To breakdown of bilirubin into biliverdin

b)

To begin blood cell formation

c)

To synthesize hemoglobin

d)

To prevent sickle-cell anemia

18.

Where are red blood cells produced?

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Yellow bone marrow

c)

In blood circulation

d)

Liver

19.

Which vitamin is necessary for red blood cell production and specifically, DNA synthesis of an RBC?

a)

K

b)

B12

c)

B6

d)

A

20.

What is an erythrocyte?

a)

A white blood cell

b)

A stem cell

c)

A red blood cell

d)

A platelet

21.

What is a thrombocyte?

a)

A red blood cell

b)

A white blood cell

c)

A platelet

d)

A stem cell

22.

What is a leukocyte?

a)

A white blood cell

b)

A red blood cell

c)

A platelet

d)

A stem cell

23.

A blood clot that is moving through vessels (not an organ)

a)

Embolism

b)

Infarction

c)

Thrombus

d)

Embolus

24.

Indicates a high white blood cell count.

a)

Sickle-cell anemia

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Thrombosis

d)

Leukopenia

25.

Which type of cell will have the highest count within the blood?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Plasmocytes

26.

The accumulation of fat in arterial linings can lead to what condition?

a)

Leukopenia

b)

Sickle cell disease

c)

Atherosclerosis

d)

Iron-deficiency anemia

27.

When a red blood cell is no longer of use to the body, the cell is broken down into its components and these components are recycled. Which of the following is not a product of hemoglobin breakdown?

a)

Heme

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Globin

d)

Iron

28.

From what organ will EPO be released?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Kidneys

c)

Spleen

d)

Stomach

29.

Blood functions to:

a)

Transport nutrients

b)

Transport waste

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

30.

Part of whole blood:

a)

Water

b)

Red blood cells

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

31.

Part of blood plasma

a)

Red blood cells

b)

White blood cells

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

32.

Protein that mainly functions to carry oxygen in blood:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Plasmin

d)

Fibrinogen

33.

Protein mainly involved with osmotic balance in blood

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Plasmin

d)

Fibrinogen

34.

Protein mainly involved with blood clotting:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Plasmin

d)

Fibrinogen

35.

A patient with blood type A has which anitbodies in their plasma?

a)

AntiB and AntiRh

b)

AntiB and AntiA

c)

AntiA and AntiRh

d)

AntiA

36.

Which white blood cell is most abundant and usually first to respond during an infection?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Lymphocyte

37.

Which white blood cell is an agranulocyte and is highly phagocytic?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Lymphocyte

38.

Which white blood cell makes antibodies?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Lymphocyte

39.

Which white blood cell is mainly responsive during parasitic infections and allergies?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Lymphocyte

40.

The right side of the heart pushes blood through the ________ circulation, while the left side of the heart pushes blood through the ________ circulation.

a)

Coronary; portal

b)

Pulmonary; systemic

c)

Systemic; pulmonary

d)

Lymphatic; coronary

e)

Portal; coronary

41.

I'm a red blood cell. I just left the left atrium. What chamber should I be in next?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right ventricle

42.

After the left ventricle, blood should enter the ______ next.

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Aorta

d)

Pulmonary trunk

e)

Coronary sinus

43.

Alternate name for the left AV valve:

a)

Tricuspid valve

b)

Mitral valve

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

44.

Valve between left atrium and left ventricle:

a)

Aortic

b)

Tricuspid

c)

Bicuspid

d)

Pulmonary

45.

The most superficial pericardial layer:

a)

Visceral pericardium

b)

Parietal pericardium

c)

Fibrous peridcarium

d)

Myocardium

46.

Most accurate normal sequence:

a)

Right atrium > left atrium > right ventricle > left ventricle

b)

Right atrium > left ventricle > left atrium > right ventricle

c)

Right atrium > right ventricle > left atrium > left ventricle

d)

Right atrium > right ventricle > left ventricle > left atrium

47.

Most accurate normal sequence:

a)

Tricuspid valve > bicuspid valve > pulmonary valve > aortic valve

b)

Tricuspid valve > pulmonary valve > bicuspid valve > aortic valve

c)

Bicuspid valve > tricuspid valve > pulmonary valve > aortic valve

d)

Pulmonary valve > tricuspid valve > bicuspid valve > aortic valve

48.

Helps prevent valve prolapse:

a)

Left AV valve

b)

Pulmonary trunk

c)

Coronary sinus

d)

Papillary muscle

49.

Proper sequence through the conduction system of the heart:

a)

SA node > Bundle of His > AV node > Purkinje fibers

b)

SA node > AV node > Purkinje fibers > Bundle of His

c)

SA node > AV node > Bundle of His > Purkinje fibers

d)

AV node > SA node > Bundle of His > Purkinje fibers

50.

The last to depolarize in the conduction system of the heart:

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

Bundle of His

51.

ECG waveform that represents atrial depolarization:

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

ST segment

52.

Heart sound S1 is created by:

a)

Pulmonary and mitral valve closing

b)

Pulmonary and aortic valve closing

c)

Mitral and tricuspid valve closing

d)

Tricuspid and aortic valve closing

53.

The S2 heart sound is associated with:

a)

AV valve closing

b)

AV valve opening

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

54.

Blood vessels that have the thickest walls:

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

e)

Veins

55.

The "major resistance vessels" of the body

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

e)

Veins

56.

Vessels that experience the lowest pressures:

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

e)

Veins

57.

Helps venous blood return to the heart:

a)

Skeletal muscle action

b)

Venous valves

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

58.

Layer of the blood vessel wall that can constrict the blood vessel:

a)

Tunic media

b)

Tunica interna

c)

Tunica externa

d)

Tunica albugenica

59.

Blood vessels that use simple diffusion and filtration for nutrient, gas, and waste exchange:

a)

Arteries

b)

Arterioles

c)

Capillaries

d)

Venules

e)

Veins

60.

Lowest pressure in the arteries:

a)

Systolic pressure

b)

Diastolic pressure

c)

Parabolic pressure

d)

Metabolic pressure

61.

Considered “normal” resting blood pressure:

a)


100/50 mm Hg

b)

150/80 mm Hg

c)

120/80 mm Hg

d)

160/90 mm Hg

62.

The blood supply returns from the lower extremities through the

a)

superior vena cava

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

hepatic portal vein

d)

external jugular vein

63.

The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of

a)

fibrinogen to fibrin

b)

hemoglobin to globin

c)

abluminogen to albumin

d)

thrombin to prothrombin

64.

Layer of the heart wall that is the thickest and contains cardiac muscle cells:

a)

Epicardium

b)

Endocardium

c)

Myocardium

d)

Pericardium

65.

A person with type A+ blood can successfully donate blood to a person with type__________ blood.

a)

O-

b)

AB+

c)

B+

d)

A-

66.

Where does erythropoiesis occur?

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

bone marrow

d)

spleen

67.

A person with type AB blood can successfully receive blood from

a)

A, B and O blood types.

b)

only A and B blood types.

c)

only type O blood.

d)

only B blood type

68.

Type AB+ blood has which antibodies in its plasma:

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Anti-D

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

69.

The pulmonary circuit pushes blood from the heart to the __________ and back to the heart.

a)

Kidneys

b)

Lungs

c)

Liver

d)

Brain

70.

Ion most critical to blood clotting regardless of pathway:

a)

Chloride

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

71.

Plasma protein mainly involved with the blood clotting process:

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

72.

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

a)

Plasma contains albumin; serum does not.

b)

Plasma does not have blood cells; serum does.

c)

Plasma contains electrolytes such as sodium and potassium; serum does not.

d)

Plasma contains fibrinogen/clotting proteins; serum does not.

73.

Deepest pericardial layer:

a)

Morphogenic pericardium

b)

Fiberous pericardium

c)

Visceral pericardium

d)

Parietal pericardium

74.

Average life span of a red blood cell:

a)

365 days

b)

30 days

c)

451 days

d)

120 days

75.

This orange-yellow-colored product of red blood cell breakdown is responsible for the yellow color we see in plasma:

a)

Degraded platelets

b)

Iron

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Bilirubin

76.

Someone with a blood pressure of 130/90, has a pulse pressure of ____.

a)

30

b)

130

c)

40

d)

220

e)

90

77.

Athletes abuse erythropoeitin (EPO) because it

a)

decreases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells.

b)

increases the white blood cell supply, which prevents infection.

c)

increases the red blood cell supply, which depletes oxygen from muscle cells.

d)

increases the red blood cell supply, which brings more oxygen to muscle cells.

78.

The pulmonary circuit pushes blood from the heart to the __________ and back to the heart.

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

Lungs

d)

Brain

79.

Lymphatic vessels ultimately drain into the

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary veins

c)

Iliac veins

d)

Subclavian veins

80.

Screening station for pathogens:

a)

Lymph node

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Tonsils

81.

Phagocytic white blood cell:

a)

Macrophage

b)

Platelet

c)

Helper T-cell

d)

Cytotoxic T-cell

82.

Type of white blood cell that releases perforin to destroy its target:

a)

Helper T-cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Cytotoxic T-cell

d)

B-cell

83.

Type of white blood cell that makes antibodies:

a)

Helper T-cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Cytotoxic T-cell

d)

B-cell

84.

Protein released by helper T-cells that signals other cells:

a)

Perforin

b)

Cytokines

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Histamine

85.

Type of nonspecific defense:

a)

Skin

b)

Fever

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

86.

Type of nonspecific defense:

a)

Helper T-lymphocytes

b)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

87.

Type of immunity that is associated with vaccines:

a)

Naturally acquired active

b)

Naturally acquired passive

c)

Artificially acquired active

d)

Artificially acquired passive

88.

Type of immunity that involves injecting a patient with antivenom:

a)

Naturally acquired active

b)

Naturally acquired passive

c)

Artificially acquired active

d)

Artificially acquired passive

89.

Activates the immune system, but is not a disease causing organism:

a)

Teratogen

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Pathogen

d)

Allergen

90.

Opsonization means:

a)

Expulsion

b)

Make tasty

c)

Make a hole

d)

Induce apoptosis

91.

Protein involved with opsonization:

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Antibodies

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

92.

Considered a major hallmark of inflammation:

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Itching

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

93.

The "general" of the specific immune response:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Cytotoxic T-cells

c)

B-cells

d)

Helper T-cells

94.

White blood cell involved with long-term immunity:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Helper T-cells

c)

Memory T-cells

d)

Neutrophils

95.

Autoimmune disease that destroys pancreatic cells:

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Type 1 diabetes

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Lupus

96.

What does "Humor-" refer to?

a)

Self

b)

Disease

c)

Fluid

d)

Resistance

97.

Which of the following is an example of a pathogen?

a)

Antibody

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Bacterium

d)

Thymus

98.

What does "Opsinization" do?

a)

Inhibits antigen-antibody binding

b)

Makes antigen/antibody complexes more susceptible to phagocytosis

c)

Activates B-cells

d)

Enhances T-cell response

99.

What is the function of Thymosin?

a)

Stimulates B-cell activation

b)

Stimulates maturation of T-lymphocytes

c)

Inhibits pathogen entry

d)

Produces antibodies

100.

What is lymphoma?

a)

A type of virus

b)

Abnormal growth of lymphocytes

c)

The production of antibodies

d)

A disease-causing inflammation

101.

Where does lymph join the cardiovascular circulation?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Subclavian vein

c)

Aorta

d)

Lymphatic trunk

102.

Which of the following helps lymph flow?

a)

Contraction of skeletal muscles

b)

Increased hydrostatic pressure in lymphatic vessels

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Increased red blood cell production

103.

Where is the thymus located, and what is its function?

a)

In the brain; produces antibodies

b)

In the chest; stimulates T-lymphocyte maturation

c)

In the abdomen; filters blood

d)

Near the kidneys; filters toxins

104.

What is the primary function of the spleen?

a)

To produce antibodies

b)

To filter foreign particles and damaged blood cells

c)

To secrete lymph fluid

d)

To store red blood cells

105.

What is the difference between humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity?

a)

Humoral immunity involves T-cells, and cell-mediated immunity involves B-cells

b)

Humoral immunity involves B-cells producing antibodies, and cell-mediated immunity involves T-cells targeting infected cells

c)

Humoral immunity is non-specific, and cell-mediated immunity is specific

d)

Both are mediated by macrophages

106.

What is the function of MHC proteins?

a)

They store pathogens for later recognition

b)

They help T-cells recognize foreign antigens

c)

They directly attack pathogens

d)

They produce antibodies

107.

How are B-cells activated?

a)

By binding to antibodies

b)

By exposure to pathogens only

c)

By binding to an antigen and receiving help from helper T-cells

d)

By the production of cytokines

Similar Resources on Wayground

Reproductive, Development & Genetics

110 questions

Reproductive, Development & Genetics

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Atwood CBA 1

104 questions

Atwood CBA 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

Year 7 ESS

110 questions

Year 7 ESS

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University

Horticulture Semester Exam

107 questions

Horticulture Semester Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade - University

only a few can complete this quiz

111 questions

only a few can complete this quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - Professio...

Exam 3

106 questions

Exam 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

KOGIN

106 questions

KOGIN

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Special Senses

110 questions

Special Senses

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University