wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Examination in NCM 106 Pharmacology

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where is the majority of extracellular fluid found in the body?

a)


Within blood vessels (intravascular)

b)

Surrounding cells (interstitial)

c)

Inside cells (intracellular)

d)

In the lymphatic system

2.

WWhich of the following compartments contains the largest portion of the body’s total water volume?

a)

Intravascular

b)

Interstitial

c)

Intracellular

d)

Plasma

3.

What is a characteristic of a hyperosmolar solution?

a)

It causes water to move out of cells, leading to cellular dehydration.

b)

It promotes water movement into cells, causing them to swell.

c)

It has the same osmolarity as body fluids.

d)

It has no effect on water distribution in the body.

4.

Which IV solution is most commonly used to treat dehydration?

a)

0.9% Normal Saline (Isotonic)

b)

0.45% Saline (Hypotonic)

c)

3% Saline (Hypertonic)

d)

Dextrose 10% in Water (Hypertonic)

5.

Why is it important to regularly assess fluid balance in patients undergoing treatment?

a)

To evaluate the effectiveness of medications

b)

To determine the patient's nutritional needs

c)

To monitor the patient's fluid status and prevent complications

d)

To assess the patient's mental health

6.

What electrolyte disturbance should be monitored closely during intravenous fluid therapy?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hypermagnesemia

7.

What is an essential task for a nurse when starting intravenous medication administration?

a)

Assessing the patient's vital signs

b)

Calculating the dosage of the medication

c)

Documenting the patient's medical history

d)

Scheduling follow-up appointments

8.

What is the initial action a nurse should perform before starting an IV therapy?

a)

Gather the necessary equipment

b)

Check the patient's medical history

c)

Prepare the IV site

d)

Inform the patient about the IV therapy

9.

What symptoms might suggest an infection at an IV insertion site?

a)

Pain, warmth, and discharge from the site

b)

Clear and dry skin around the site

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Coolness and pallor at the site

10.

Which factor is crucial to assess when determining the best site for IV catheter placement?

a)

The patient's hydration status

b)

The depth of the vein

c)

The patient's medical history

d)

The type of medication to be administered

11.

What should a nurse do if an IV infusion appears to be infiltrating?

a)

Check the infusion rate and adjust as needed

b)

Apply a warm compress to the site

c)

Remove the IV and apply pressure to the site

d)

Notify the physician and document the findings

12.

When should a nurse change an IV dressing?

a)

Every 12 hours

b)

When it becomes wet or soiled

c)

Only when the patient requests it

d)

Once a week

13.

Which complication should a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving IV fluids?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Fluid overload

c)

Dehydration

d)

Hypercalcemia

14.

What is osmolality measure of in IV fluids?

a)

The volume of fluid

b)

The concentration of solutes per kilogram of solvent

c)

The temperature of the fluid

d)

The color of the fluid

15.

Which of the following best describes isotonic IV solutions?

a)

Higher osmolality than blood

b)

Lower osmolality than blood

c)

Same osmolality as blood

d)

No osmolality at all

16.

Which condition may contraindicate the use of hypotonic IV solutions?

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Cerebral edema

d)

Hypoglycemia

17.

Which IV fluid is an example of a hypertonic solution?

a)

0.9% Normal Saline

b)

5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)

c)

3% Saline

d)

Lactated Ringer's

18.

How do hypertonic IV solutions affect fluid movement in the body?

a)

Draw water into cells from the extracellular space

b)

Move water out of cells into the extracellular space

c)

Have no effect on fluid movement

d)

Cause equal distribution of water inside and outside cells

19.

Which of the following patients would most benefit from a hypotonic IV solution?

a)

A patient with severe hyponatremia

b)

A patient with intracellular dehydration

c)

A patient with pulmonary edema

d)

A patient with fluid overload

20.

Which of the following IV fluids would you administer to a patient with dehydration and hypovolemia?

a)

0.45% Saline (Hypotonic)

b)

0.9% Normal Saline (Isotonic)

c)

10% Dextrose in Water (Hypertonic)

d)

Distilled Water

21.

In which situation would a hypertonic IV solution be most appropriate?

a)

Treating intracranial pressure

b)

Treating hypotension

c)

Treating hypervolemia

d)

Treating hyponatremia

22.

Which of the following is a common nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)? Select all that apply.

a)

Diclofenac

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Codeine

d)

Morphine

23.

Which of the following is an example of a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation?

a)

Prednisone

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Atorvastatin

d)

Metformin

24.

What is a potential side effect of corticosteroid use?

a)

Increased immune response

b)

Weight loss

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Hyperpigmentation

25.

Which anti-inflammatory drug is commonly used to treat chronic conditions like rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Lisinopril

d)

Amoxicillin

26.

Which condition requires caution or avoidance when prescribing NSAIDs?

a)

Mild fever

b)

Muscle strain

c)

History of gastrointestinal ulcers

d)

Seasonal allergies

27.

Which of the following medications is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?

a)

Celecoxib

b)

Naproxen

c)

Diclofenac

d)

Indomethacin

28.

Which condition is often treated with NSAIDs?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Inflammatory conditions such as arthritis

d)

Asthma

29.

Which of the following NSAIDs is known for its cardio-protective effects when taken in low doses?

a)

Naproxen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Ketorolac

30.

What is an important nursing consideration when administering NSAIDs to a patient?

a)

Monitoring for signs of infection

b)

Monitoring for gastrointestinal distress and bleeding

c)

Ensuring the patient avoids exercise

d)

Administering the medication without any food

31.

What is a common risk associated with the long-term use of NSAIDs?

a)

Kidney damage

b)

Increased appetite

c)

Vision impairment

d)

Skin discoloration

32.

Which symptom should prompt a nurse to contact the healthcare provider for a patient taking corticosteroids?

a)

Mild headache

b)

Persistent weight gain and swelling in the legs

c)

Slight fatigue

d)

Occasional dry mouth

33.

What advice should a nurse give a patient to minimize the gastrointestinal side effects of NSAIDs?

a)

Take the medication with a full glass of water.

b)

Avoid all dairy products.

c)

Only take the medication at night.

d)

Skip meals when taking this medication.

34.

What is a key nursing intervention to manage potential side effects of corticosteroids?

a)

Encourage a low-sodium diet to prevent fluid retention

b)

Increase the patient's fluid intake drastically

c)

Advise the patient to avoid all physical activity

d)

Recommend fasting for short periods

35.

Why is it important for a nurse to monitor blood pressure in a patient receiving corticosteroids?

a)

Corticosteroids can cause hypotension

b)

Corticosteroids can cause hypertension and fluid retention

c)

Corticosteroids have no effect on blood pressure

d)

To ensure the patient remains drowsy

36.

Which class of antibiotics inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Penicillins

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Fluoroquinolones

37.

Which antibiotic is known to cause teeth discoloration in children?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Erythromycin

38.

After administering a hypertonic solution, what is the nurse's priority action?

a)

Monitor for electrolyte imbalances

b)

Encourage the patient to drink additional fluids

c)

Check the patient's blood glucose levels frequently

d)

Assess for signs of hypovolemia

39.

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias during fluid replacement therapy?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypomagnesemia

d)

Hyperchloremia

40.

Which of the following is a key nursing intervention when monitoring for hypocalcemia during fluid replacement therapy?

a)

Monitor for positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs

b)

Assess for increased blood pressure and pulse

c)

Check for decreased deep tendon reflexes

d)

Observe for dark, concentrated urine

41.

Which IV solution is most likely to cause no significant change in cell size when infused?

a)

Hypertonic solution

b)

Isotonic solution

c)

Hypotonic solution

d)

Colloid solution

42.

In which situation would a hypotonic IV solution be most appropriate?

a)

To treat intracellular dehydration

b)

To reduce cerebral edema

c)

To replace blood volume loss

d)

To manage hyperkalemia

43.

Which IV solution is most commonly used to expand extracellular fluid volume in a patient with hypovolemia?

a)

0.45% Saline (Hypotonic)

b)

0.9% Normal Saline (Isotonic)

c)

3% Saline (Hypertonic)

d)

5% Dextrose in Water (Isotonic)

44.

Which of the following patients would require caution when prescribing NSAIDs?

a)

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease

b)

A patient taking antihypertensive medications

c)

A patient with mild arthritis

d)

A patient recovering from a sprain

45.

What is a primary mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

a)

Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin system

b)

Blocking the reuptake of serotonin

c)

Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes

d)

Activation of opioid receptors

46.

Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics?

a)

Increased respiratory rate

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Constipation

d)

Hyperreflexia

47.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of opioid use?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Hypertension

48.

When administering opioids for pain management, what is the nurse's priority assessment?

a)

Skin integrity

b)

Respiratory rate

c)

Blood glucose levels

d)

Body temperature

49.

Which of the following medications is commonly used as an antidote for opioid overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Flumazenil

d)

Protamine sulfate

50.

Before administering acetaminophen, which of the following should the nurse assess?

a)

Renal function

b)

Liver function

c)

Neurological status

d)

Electrolyte levels

51.

A patient prescribed ibuprofen for pain management reports stomach discomfort. What should the nurse recommend?

a)

Take the medication on an empty stomach

b)

Discontinue the medication immediately

c)

Take the medication with food or milk

d)

Increase the dose for quicker relief

52.

When administering a narcotic pain reliever, what is the most important nursing intervention?

a)

Monitor the patient's urine output

b)

Assess the patient's pain level after 24 hours

c)

Monitor for signs of respiratory depression

d)

Assess for peripheral edema

53.

Which of the following antibiotics is commonly used to treat bacterial infections caused by gram-positive bacteria?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Gentamicin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Trimethoprim

54.

What is a common adverse effect of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

a)

Rash

b)

Superinfection

c)

Insomnia

d)

Constipation

55.

Which of the following is a common side effect of taking antibiotics like amoxicillin?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Hypertension

56.

Which of the following is a serious adverse reaction associated with the use of the antibiotic vancomycin?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Weight gain

c)

Visual disturbances

d)

Dizziness

57.

A nurse is caring for a patient receiving antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as a possible adverse effect?

a)

Decreased appetite

b)

Renal function

c)

Hypotension

d)

Increased pulse rate

58.

What is the primary therapeutic use of oxytocin in obstetrics?

a)

To prevent preterm labor

b)

To induce or augment labor

c)

To relieve postpartum pain

d)

To treat gestational diabetes

59.

What is a potential adverse effect of oxytocin administration for labor induction?

a)

Uterine hyperstimulation

b)

Hypertension

c)

Fetal bradycardia

d)

All of the above

60.

What is the primary indication for administering Methergine?

a)

To induce labor

b)

To prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage

c)

To manage preeclampsia

d)

To relieve postpartum pain

61.

Which patient condition is a contraindication for Methergine use?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Postpartum depression

62.

Which of the following is a key nursing consideration when administering magnesium sulfate?

a)

Monitor deep tendon reflexes regularly

b)

Encourage the patient to ambulate frequently

c)

Administer magnesium sulfate as a bolus injection

d)

Avoid monitoring urine output during therapy

63.

What is a potential adverse effect of magnesium sulfate that requires immediate nursing intervention?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Hypertension

d)

Increased fetal movements

64.

What is the primary purpose of administering dexamethasone to a pregnant woman at risk of preterm delivery?

a)

To suppress uterine contractions

b)

To promote fetal lung maturity

c)

To reduce maternal blood pressure

d)

To prevent maternal infections

65.

When administering dexamethasone to a woman with preterm labor, which of the following is an important consideration?

a)

It should be given immediately after rupture of membranes

b)

It is typically given in two doses 24 hours apart

c)

It should only be administered after 36 weeks of gestation

d)

It should be used in combination with magnesium sulfate

66.

Antipsychotic medications primarily exert their therapeutic effect by:

a)

Increasing serotonin levels in the brain

b)

Blocking dopamine receptors

c)

Stimulating GABA neurotransmission

d)

Enhancing acetylcholine activity

67.

Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol?

a)

Severe sedation

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

d)

Weight loss

68.

A patient taking phenothiazines develops dry mouth and blurred vision. These symptoms are due to:

a)

Dopamine blockade

b)

Serotonin enhancement

c)

Anticholinergic effects

d)

Histamine stimulation

69.

Which psychiatric medication is commonly used for acute agitation and psychosis because of its rapid onset?

a)

Fluoxetine

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Lithium

d)

Valproic acid

70.

Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam reduce anxiety by:

a)

Blocking dopamine receptors

b)

Increasing serotonin reuptake

c)

Enhancing the inhibitory effects of GABA

d)

Suppressing norepinephrine release

71.

Which instruction is most important for a patient prescribed benzodiazepines?

a)

Increase the dose if anxiety persists

b)

Stop the medication abruptly when symptoms improve

c)

Avoid alcohol and CNS depressants

d)

Take the medication only in the morning

72.

Abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepines may result in:

a)

Hypertension and seizures

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension

c)

Weight gain

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

73.

A patient taking lithium should be closely monitored for:

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Dehydration and sodium imbalance

c)

Elevated liver enzymes

d)

Respiratory depression

74.

Which antidepressant class works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin?

a)

MAO inhibitors

b)

Tricyclic antidepressants

c)

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

d)

Antipsychotics

75.

The nurse evaluates effective antipsychotic therapy when the patient demonstrates:

a)

Complete absence of hallucinations within 24 hours

b)

Improved ability to perform activities of daily living

c)

Immediate weight gain

d)

Increased sedation throughout the day

76.

Which medication is commonly administered to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Misoprostol

d)

Methylergonovine

77.

Magnesium sulfate prevents preterm labor primarily by:

a)

Stimulating uterine contractions

b)

Blocking sodium channels

c)

Relaxing uterine smooth muscle through calcium antagonism

d)

Increasing oxytocin release

78.

Which assessment finding indicates possible magnesium sulfate toxicity?

a)

Increased urine output

b)

Hyperactive reflexes

c)

Respiratory depression

d)

Elevated blood pressure

79.

The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Calcium gluconate

c)

Naloxone

d)

Protamine sulfate

80.

Terbutaline delays preterm labor by:

a)

Enhancing prostaglandin synthesis

b)

Increasing uterine tone

c)

Relaxing uterine smooth muscle via beta-2 receptor stimulation

d)

Blocking serotonin receptors

81.

Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with beta-2 sympathomimetics such as terbutaline?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypotension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Respiratory depression

82.

Oxytocin is contraindicated in which situation?

a)

Prolonged labor

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Fetal distress without imminent delivery

d)

Postpartum hemorrhage

83.

A nurse administering oxytocin should closely monitor for:

a)

Decreased uterine contractions

b)

Uterine hyperstimulation

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Decreased fetal heart rate variability

84.

Which medication is commonly given to prevent postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contraction?

a)

Magnesium sulfate

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Nifedipine

85.

When administering iron supplements during pregnancy, the nurse should instruct the patient to:

a)

Take the medication with milk

b)

Expect black tarry stools

c)

Discontinue use if constipation occurs

d)

Take the medication at bedtime only

86.

Which analgesic is generally considered the drug of choice for pain and fever during pregnancy?

a)

A. Ibuprofen

b)

B. Aspirin

c)

C. Acetaminophen

d)

D. Naproxen

87.

Why are NSAIDs generally avoided during the third trimester of pregnancy?

a)

A. They cause maternal hypertension

b)

B. They increase uterine contractions

c)

C. They may cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

d)

D. They reduce placental blood flow early in pregnancy

88.

A pregnant woman at 10 weeks’ gestation asks which pain medication is safest. Which response is most appropriate?

a)

A. “Ibuprofen is safest during early pregnancy.”

b)

B. “Aspirin should be taken daily for pain.”

c)

C. “Acetaminophen is generally preferred when used as directed.”

d)

D. “All pain medications are contraindicated.”

89.

Which adverse fetal effect is associated with prolonged NSAID use during pregnancy?

a)

A. Neural tube defects

b)

B. Renal dysfunction and oligohydramnios

c)

C. Fetal hypoglycemia

d)

D. Congenital heart block

90.

Which nursing teaching is appropriate for a pregnant patient taking acetaminophen?

a)

“Take higher doses if pain persists.”

b)

“Avoid acetaminophen during all trimesters.”

c)

“Do not exceed the recommended daily dose.”

d)

“Combine acetaminophen with NSAIDs for better pain relief.”