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ENVIRO SCI FALL REV 2024

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A population is...
a)
A group of one species in one area
b)
Multiple species that live in one area
c)
All of the living and nonliving things in an area
d)
None of these
2.
If the number of births is greater than the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
3.
The average number of people living in an area
a)
population distribution
b)
population density
c)
urbanization
d)
population rate
4.
The maximum population size of a species that the environment can sustain indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water and other necessities available in the environment.
a)
sparse population
b)
environmental
c)
carrying capacity
d)
dense population
5.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
6.
The number of births compared to the total number of people in a population
a)
death rate
b)
birth rate
c)
baby boom
d)
doubling time
7.
To enter and live in a new country
a)
Emigration
b)
Immigration
c)
Urbanization
d)
Industrialization
8.
The number of organisms in a population which die each year 
a)
Death Rate
b)
Birth Rate
c)
Immigration
d)
Emigration
9.
2 factors which increase population size
a)
Birth Rate, Immigration
b)
Death Rate, Immigration
c)
Birth Rate, Emigration
d)
Death Rate, Emigration
10.

Which of the following is NOT a potential limiting factor of human population growth?

a)

disease

b)

war

c)

medicine

d)

famine

11.

Name the type of pyramid in the picture.

a)

slow growth

b)

rapid growth

c)

zero growth

d)

negative growth

12.
Which of the following would most likely occur if a population exceeded the carry capacity of the environment?
a)
The birth rate would likely increase.
b)
Birth rate would be equal to the death rate.
c)
The death rate would increase.
d)
Immigration would increase.
13.
If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
14.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
15.
Which of the following is likely to be affected by a population of 7 billion?
a)
amount of land for agriculture
b)
amount of clean water
c)
number of people who are unemployed
d)
all of the above
16.

Which of the following age structure diagrams demonstrates little to no growth in the population?

a)
b)
c)
d)

none of the above

17.

Which of the following age structure diagrams demonstrates POSITIVE, RAPID growth in the population?

a)
b)
c)
d)

none of the above

18.

Wealthy, old, low birth and death rates, Industrialized, slow growth

a)

Developed Nation

b)

Developing Nation

19.

Poor, Young, High Birth and Death Rates, Population Increasing rapidly, Agricultural

a)

Developed Nation

b)

Developing Nation

20.

When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what most likely happens to the population?

a)

The population continues to grow

b)

The population starts to die off to return to carrying capacity

c)

The population will go completely extinct due to lack of resources

21.

A limiting factor that is density-independent is something that affects a population regardless of the size of the population.


A limiting factor that is density-dependent is something that can have a greater effect if a population is larger, such as disease, competition of resources, and predation.


Which of the following limiting factors is density-independent?

a)

water

b)

food

c)

natural disasters

22.

If the carrying capacity of a predator decreases, what will happen to the carrying capacity of the prey?

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

23.

The graph shows the interaction of the wolf and moose populations in Yellowstone National Park. If the moose population continues to increase, the wolves' food supply will increase.


What will most likely happen to the wolf population as a result?

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

24.

Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population is known as a __________.

a)

limiting measure

b)

carrying capacity

c)

biodiversity

d)

limiting factor

25.

When did this population of rabbits reach its carrying capacity?

a)

Beginning of May

b)

Beginning of June

c)

Beginning of July

d)

Beginning of September

26.

What is the difference between freshwater and marine ecosystems? Select 2 choices

a)

A marine ecosystem is an aquatic ecosystem with high levels of dissolved salts in the water, freshwater ecosystem have low levels dissolved salts

b)

A freshwater ecosystem is an aquatic ecosystem with high levels of dissolved salts in the water, marine ecosystem have low levels dissolved salts

27.

What is this picture an example of in Figure 1?

a)

Marine ecosystem

b)

Watershed

c)

Water Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

28.

What is an estuary?

a)

a unique aquatic ecosystem where rivers flow into the open sea

b)

Are ecosystems that are covered with water for at least part of the year.

c)

Ecosystems with high dissolved salts

d)

Ecosystems without trees

29.

Plankton are tiny, free-floating organisms that can be found in which aquatic ecosystem____.

a)

Freshwater ecosystems

b)

Marine ecosystems

c)

Wetlands & Estuaries

d)

All of the above

30.

Explain the greenhouse effect.

a)

The process where plants use sunlight to create energy for consumers

b)

Are pathways for the movement of matter within ecosystems

c)

Allow light energy to pass through the atmosphere &

  1. Prevent heat energy from escaping from the ground into space

d)

What takes place when water is between the shore and the tide

31.

Observe the image, a system of rivers, streams, and ponds represents which type of aquatic ecosystem?

a)

Freshwater ecosystem

b)

Marine ecosystem

32.

What is the difference between the photic and aphotic zone?

a)

Photic zone is has little to no sunlight, the aphotic zone is penetrated by sunlight

b)

Photic zone is penetrated by sunlight, the aphotic zone has little to no sunlight

33.

What do we call FRESH water that lies beneath the Earth's surface?

a)

groundwater

b)

lake

c)

river

d)

spring

34.

What do we call massive pieces of slow moving ice?

a)

Ice Shelf

b)

Ice Floe

c)

Glaciers

d)

None of the Above

35.
Farmers who grow only enough for personal or local use.
a)
Sustainable farming
b)
Subsistence farming
c)
Monoculture
36.

Which type of agriculture is mainly practiced in developed nations?

a)

hunting and gathering

b)

subsistence agriculture

c)

commercial agriculture

d)

fishing

37.

Explain the concept of crop rotation in sustainable agriculture.

a)

Crop rotation is a method where crops are planted randomly without any specific order.

b)

Crop rotation involves planting the same crop repeatedly in the same area to deplete the soil nutrients.

c)

Crop rotation involves planting different crops in the same area in sequential seasons to improve soil health, prevent pests and diseases, and increase crop yield.

d)

Crop rotation is a technique used to reduce crop yield and increase soil erosion.

38.

What role does organic farming play in sustainable agriculture?

a)

Organic farming plays a crucial role in sustainable agriculture by promoting practices that maintain soil health, biodiversity, and natural resources.

b)

Organic farming depletes soil health and natural resources

c)

Organic farming promotes the use of harmful chemicals in agriculture

d)

Organic farming has no impact on sustainable agriculture

39.

Discuss the importance of reducing chemical pesticide use in sustainable agriculture.

a)

Using more chemical pesticides leads to higher crop yields

b)

Reducing chemical pesticide use in sustainable agriculture is crucial for protecting the environment, human health, and biodiversity.

c)

Chemical pesticides have no impact on human health

d)

Biodiversity is not affected by chemical pesticide use

40.

A biological control uses a

a)

Predator to control a pest

b)

Pest to control a predator

41.

Which chemical controls weeds?

a)

Fungicide

b)

Pesticide

c)

Insecticide

d)

Herbicide

42.

Which chemical controls pests

a)

Fertiliser

b)

Pesticide

c)

Herbicide

d)

Fungicide

43.

A way to control pests naturally with organisms that eat or infect them is called:

a)

Biological Pest Control

b)

Chemical Pesticides

c)

Traditional Agriculture

44.

The manipulation of DNA of organisms by recombinant DNA technology is called:

a)

Factory Farming

b)

Genetically Engineering

c)

Sustainable Agriculture

45.

What is a major advantage of biological control over chemical pesticides?

Answer choices

a)

It is a one-time solution that can be self-sustaining

b)

It guarantees complete eradication of pests

c)

It is cheaper and easier to implement

d)

It requires no initial research or testing

46.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
temperate deciduous forest
d)
tropical rain forest
47.
Which biome, because of its climate, has the largest number of species of plants and animals?
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
tropical rainforest
d)

chaparral

48.
Which major biome is home to cacti, mesquite, white thorn, pack rats, small reptiles, and coyotes?
a)
desert
b)
taiga
c)
tundra
d)
grassland
49.
Which biome covers most of the land mass near the Earth's equator?
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
grassland
d)
tropical rainforest
50.

What are wetlands?

a)

areas of land that are flooded at least part of the year

b)

the ocean

c)

lakes

d)

estuaries

51.

Found in clear, warm salt water with lots of sunlight; most marine organisms are found here.

a)

river

b)

swamp

c)

coral reef

d)

lake

52.

For island biogeography, the founder effect is

a)

an increase in biodiversity when an old population grows

b)

a loss in genetic biodiversity when a new population is established from a larger one

c)

a loss in biogeography when an island sinks

d)

an increase in biogeography when an island emerges from the sea

53.

Which Island has the best chance of being inhabited by new species from the mainland?

a)

An Island that is small and far

b)

An Island that is large and far

c)

An Island that is small and close

d)

An Island that is large and close

54.

What part of the water cycle needs a living organism to occur?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Transpiration

d)

Precipitation

55.

Describe how human's negatively impact the water cycle (short answer- need detail)

a)

Pollution

b)

Deforestation

c)

Building on and paving areas

d)

All of the above

56.
Which group do fungi, bacteria, and termites belong to?
a)
decomposers
b)
producers
c)
herbivores
d)
omnivores
57.
Which organism make their own food through the process of photosynthesis? 
a)
decomposer
b)
consumer
c)
herbivore
d)
producer 
58.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
59.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
60.

What is this a picture of?

a)

Nitrogen cycle

b)

carbon cycle

c)

water cycle

d)

plant cycle

61.
Which animal is the apex predator in this food web?
a)
eagle
b)
mouse
c)
spider
d)
snake
62.

What is the frog considered in this food web?

a)

producer

b)

primary consumer

c)

secondary consumer

d)

tertiary consumer

63.

Which organism DOES NOT pass energy directly to the eagle?

a)

rat

b)

thrush

c)

frog

d)

dragonfly

64.

Which environmental factors MOST likely impact the formation of tornadoes in this area?

a)

high-pressure systems colliding with other high-pressure systems

b)

cold dry air and warm dry air moving toward each other

c)

low evaporation rates and windy conditions

d)

cool dry air colliding with warm moist air

65.

Visible light reaches Earth’s surface while infrared light is trapped as heat. Which characteristic of Earth’s atmosphere causes this to happen?

a)

the ozone hole

b)

the inversion layer

c)

the greenhouse effect

d)

the atmospheric continuum

66.

How is weather different from climate?

a)

Weather is the average climate for a particular region.

b)

Weather involves large areas, while climate involves a smaller area.

c)

Weather focuses on long-term observations, while climate focuses on short-term observations.

d)

Weather focuses on short-term changes to the atmosphere, while climate focuses on long-term changes.

67.

An iceberg breaks off of a glacier and floats into the ocean. In the ocean, the iceberg begins to melt. Which temporary effect does this melting have on ocean water in the immediate area of the iceberg?

a)

The melting ice lowers the freezing point of the ocean water.

b)

The melting ice reduces the salinity of the ocean water.

c)

The melting ice releases the carbon dioxide stored in ocean water.

d)

The melting ice increases the acidity of the ocean water.

68.

Which is a major source of air pollution?

a)

planting more trees in forest areas

b)

building dams for hydroelectric plants

c)

the production of energy using solar and nuclear power

d)

farms raising large numbers of animals such as cows and pigs

69.

Which of the following does NOT exert a major influence on Earth's overall climate?

a)

The distribution of land masses and oceans, in combination with Earth's topography.

b)

The daily rotation of Earth on its axis, along with its annual revolution around the sun.

c)

The annual amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth's surface.

d)

All of these can exert a major influence.

70.

The Coriolis Effect is a result of the Earth's ____.

a)

rotation

b)

gravity

c)

curvature

d)

temperature

71.
The most common gas in the atmosphere (78%).
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Trace gases
72.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
73.
Most of Earth's freshwater is ___________
a)
under ground
b)
as a liquid on the surface
c)
frozen
d)
in Olympic swimming pools
74.
Most of the freshwater around the world is used for the following purpose.
a)
industry
b)
residential
c)
agriculture
d)
recreation
75.

An underground layer of sediment or rock that holds water is known as...

a)

Reservoir

b)

Watershed

c)

Aquifer

d)

Runoff

76.

Look closely at the map of the watershed below. If water enters the watershed at the top of the mountain where the arrow is pointing, at which point will it stop draining?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

77.

The boundaries of a watershed are determined by ___________

a)

Elevation

b)

Soil type

c)

The amount of water that flows

d)

The kinds of organisms found in the area

78.
Which type of irritation results in the greatest amount of water lost to evaporation?
I.  Flood irrigation
II.  Drip irrigation
III.  Low-pressure central pivot irrigation
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
III only
d)
II and III
79.

The picture represents a(n) ___ event.

a)

El Nino

b)

La Nina

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

80.

what region within the Earth's stratosphere where the concentration of ozone (O3) molecules is higher than the surrounding atmosphere?

a)

Ozone Layer

b)

Coriolis Effect

c)

Exosphere

d)

Ferrel Cells

81.

what are parts of the ENSO climate pattern?

a)

Coriolis Effect

b)

El Niño/El Niña

c)

Thermohaline Circulation

d)

Polar Cells

82.

What is the thermohaline circulation?

a)

A global circulation pattern of ocean water driven by differences in temperature and salinity

b)

A type of cloud formation

c)

A phenomenon caused by volcanic activity

d)

A region with heavy rainfall due to mountainous terrain

83.
The Coriolis effect is responsible for
a)
the convergence of two ascending Hadley cells
b)
the location of atmospheric currents caused by the unequal heating of Earth
c)
the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands
d)
the deflection of atmospheric currents
84.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

85.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
86.
Surface currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
87.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
88.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
89.
Two types of water currents are
a)
local and global
b)
sea and land
c)
surface and deep
d)
warm and cold
90.

Which of the following is the correct description for cross-breeding

a)

Crossing two plants of the same species, but each parent plant has a different number of chromosomes

b)

Breeding two compatible species in hopes of creating an offspring with the desired traits

c)

Plant cells from two distinct species are fused together to form a new hybrid plant

d)

Exposing seeds to chemicals or radiation to promote genetic mutations in hopes that the mutation will produce a desirable trait

91.
The pesticide DDT was used extensively in the past to reduce the numbers of malaria-carrying mosquitoes. At first, application of DDT killed almost all the mosquitoes in treated populations. Over years, however, DDT-resistant populations (ones where most mosquitoes were not killed by normal doses of DDT) began to emerge. Which of the following best explains how DDT resistance emerged in the mosquitoes?
a)
The individual mosquitos in the starting populations sensed the environmental threat and mutated genes that made them insensitive to DDT
b)
Populations with DDT resistance are better-adapted for any environment than populations without DDT resistance, so they would have evolved sooner or later (regardless of whether DDT was applied)
c)
When DDT was applied, rare individuals with DDT resistance mutations were more likely to survive and leave offspring, eventually leading to populations composed largely of resistant mosquitoes
d)
The mosquitoes must all have been DDT-resistant to begin with, because there is no genetic variation in natural populations of mosquitoes
92.

What is one reason some people are AGAINST the use of genetically modified organisms, such as Bt corn?

a)

We do not know the potential health effects for humans and other organism

b)

It helps solve world hunger

c)

It is harmful to farmers in the field

d)

It allows us to stop spraying pesticides

93.
A pesticide is _____________if it does not break down easily or quickly in the environment.
a)
Persistent
b)
Domesticated
c)
Compost
d)
Aquaculture
94.

Which of these may be a cause of non-point source pollution?

a)

back-siphoning of pesticide spills at a wellhead

b)

leaching from a pesticide mixing area

c)

pesticides that dissolve and leach through the soil after a rainfall

d)

dumping leftover pesticide products down a well

95.

The table below shows what happens to an insect population before and after a pesticide is added.

Which of the following best explains why more of the pesticide-resistant insects were present in the second generation?

a)

Because of the pesticides in plants, insects in the second generation developed a tolerance for pesticides

b)

Because of heredity, insects with genes for pesticide resistance passed it on to the following generation

c)

Because of the environment, parent insects taught their offspring to be pesticide resistant in order to survive

d)

Because of heredity, insects learned to avoid pesticides on plants

96.

Pollution can be...

a)

gases

b)

smoke

c)

chemicals

d)

all of the above

97.

How long does it take plastic to decompose?

a)

10,000

b)

1000

c)

5000

d)

50,000

98.

Which of the following is the correct description for cross-breeding

a)

Crossing two plants of the same species, but each parent plant has a different number of chromosomes

b)

Breeding two compatible species in hopes of creating an offspring with the desired traits

c)

Plant cells from two distinct species are fused together to form a new hybrid plant

d)

Exposing seeds to chemicals or radiation to promote genetic mutations in hopes that the mutation will produce a desirable trait

99.
Which would NOT be a reason to use GM crops?
a)
Using GM crops can increase crop yields.
b)
Using GM crops can reduce use of insecticide sprays.
c)
Using GM crops may be able to feed more people faster.
d)
Using GM crops can increase pesticide resistance in pests.
100.

How are GMOs created using bioengineering?

a)

A desirable gene is removed from one organism and inserted into another organisms genome

b)

Two different organisms with desired genes are mated

c)

Bacteria with good genes are inserted into other organisms

d)

An undesirable gene is found, removed, and replaced with the desirable form of the gene