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Fall 2024 IB SEHS FINAL EXAM REVIEW

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Lipids are a macronutrient. Which are functions of lipids? [select ALL that apply]

a)

To build hormones

b)

To build muscle tissue

c)

To store energy

2.

Which characteristic distinguishes unsaturated fatty acids from saturated fatty acids?

a)

Ability to bond to glycerol

b)

Composition of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

c)

Plant origin

d)

Presence of double bonds between carbon atoms

3.

Which option states the approximate energy content of 100 g of protein?

a)

100 kJ

b)

1720 kJ

c)

1760 kJ

d)

4000 kJ

4.

Which food is most likely to promote growth and repair of muscles?

a)

White rice

b)

Green apple

c)

Red lentils

d)

Olive oil

5.

What type of fatty acid is represented in the diagram?

a)

Trans fat

b)

Monounsaturated fat

c)

Polyunsaturated fat

d)

Saturated fat

6.

What are the general recommendations for a healthy balanced diet?

a)

Carbohydrate: 10–15%, Protein: 15–30%, Fat: 80–90%

b)

Carbohydrate: 55–75%, Protein: 10–15%, Fat: 15–30%

c)

Carbohydrate: 15–30%, Protein: 55–75%, Fat: 10–15%

d)

Carbohydrate: 80–90%, Protein: 15–30%, Fat: 55–75%

7.

Which is a polysaccharide?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucagon

d)

Triacylglycerol

8.

Which 2 are saturated?

a)

Sunflower oil

b)

Dairy yogurt

c)

Coconut oil

d)

Avocado oil

9.

Which food is most likely to contain unsaturated fats?

a)

Cashew nuts

b)

Beef burger

c)

Coconut oil

d)

Dairy yogurt

10.

Which is one characteristic of non-essential amino acids?

a)

They are not required for essential bodily processes.

b)

They are required from a healthy diet.

c)

They can recycle nitrogen from a healthy diet.

d)

They can be synthesized by the human body.

11.

Which are macronutrients? I. Fats II. Carbohydrates III. Water

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

12.

Which is a condensation reaction?

a)

Breaking of the bonds in glycogen and creation of a water molecule

b)

Addition of two glucose molecules and creation of a water molecule

c)

Breaking of the bonds in glycogen and absorption of a water molecule

d)

Addition of two glucose molecules and absorption of a water molecule

13.

An untrained individual with healthy BMI starts to train for a marathon. What change should they make to their diet?

a)

Decrease calorie intake, Decrease carbohydrates

b)

Decrease calorie intake, Increase carbohydrates

c)

Increase calorie intake, Decrease carbohydrates

d)

Increase calorie intake, Increase carbohydrates

14.

Which element distinguishes an amino acid from a fatty acid?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

15.

Which molecule is represented by the diagram below?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fat

c)

Amino acid

d)

Protein

16.

What is the correct order (greatest to least) for the amount of energy contained in 100 g of each body fuel?

a)

A. Carbohydrate, protein, lipid

b)

B. Lipid, carbohydrate, protein

c)

C. Protein, carbohydrate, lipid

d)

D. Lipid, protein, carbohydrate

17.

Insulin and muscle contraction influence glucose during exercise. Which combination correctly states how they influence glucose uptake?

a)

Both stimulate

b)

Stimulates, Inhibits

c)

Inhibits, Stimulates

d)

Both inhibit

18.

Which is a major storage site for glycogen?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Brain

c)

Muscles

d)

Gallbladder

19.

Which process is represented by the breakdown of sugar in the absence of oxygen?

a)

Anaerobic anabolism

b)

Aerobic anabolism

c)

Anaerobic catabolism

d)

Aerobic catabolism

20.

Which is formed from a catabolic reaction?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Adipose tissue

d)

Protein

21.

Which process occurs when blood glucose levels are decreased?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Lipolysis

c)

Glycogenolysis

d)

Glycogenesis

22.

Which reaction represents aerobic catabolism?

a)

Gluconeogenesis

b)

Lactate formation

c)

Electron transport chain

d)

Protein synthesis

23.

Where is glycogen primarily stored in the body?

a)

The liver and brain

b)

The liver and skeletal muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle and the brain

d)

Cardiac muscle and the liver

24.

What is an anabolic reaction?

a)

When small molecules are combined into larger molecules

b)

When complex molecules are broken into smaller molecules

c)

When there is a net release of energy

d)

When no energy is used or released within the reaction

25.

What are major sites for triglyceride storage in the body? (choose all that apply)

a)

pancreas

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

liver

d)

adipose tissue

26.

Which outlines lipolysis?

a)

Two glucose molecules combine to form a disaccharide

b)

One glycerol and three fatty acids combine to form a triglyceride

c)

One disaccharide breaks down to form two glucose molecules

d)

One triglyceride breaks down to form glycerol and three fatty acids

27.

What type of process is lipolysis?

a)

Aerobic anabolism

b)

Anaerobic anabolism

c)

Aerobic catabolism

d)

Anaerobic catabolism

28.

Which is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Glycogenesis

c)

Glycogenolysis

d)

Beta oxidation

29.

What is the function of glucagon during fasting?

a)

Stimulate the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

b)

Stimulate the uptake of glucose to form glycogen

c)

Stimulate the uptake of glycogen to form glucose

d)

Stimulate the production of adipose tissue from glucose

30.

Which processes require the presence of oxygen to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? I. Glycolysis by the lactic acid system II. Glycolysis followed by the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain III. Beta oxidation of fatty acids followed by the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

31.

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in the cell?

a)

It is the site of aerobic respiration.

b)

It contains chromosomes and nucleolus.

c)

It packages proteins for secretion.

d)

It contains digestive enzymes.

32.

What is the main fuel source for an elite athlete in a 400 m running race?

a)

Creatine phosphate

b)

Glycogen

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Amino acid

33.

Which processes metabolize glucose and fat?

I. Glycolysis

II. Kreb's Cycle

III. Electron transport chain

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

34.

Which component of the aerobic energy system also occurs in the anaerobic system?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Glycolysis

d)

There are no common components

35.

Which represents the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) via the aerobic glycolysis system?

a)

PC + ADP → 1ATP + C

b)

glucose → pyruvate + 2 ATP + lactate + H⁺

c)

glucose → pyruvate + O₂ → acetylCoA → Krebs cycle → electron transport chain → 38 ATP + H₂O + CO₂ + heat

d)

ADP + P = ATP

36.

Which donates a phosphate group to adenosine diphosphate (ADP) during the initial stages of intense exercise to regenerate adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Glucose-6-phosphate

c)

Amino acid

d)

Creatine phosphate

37.

What is the definition of cell respiration?

a)

The controlled release of energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from organic compounds in cells

b)

The controlled release of energy in the form of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) from organic compounds in cells

c)

The controlled release of energy in the form of glycogen from organic compounds in cells

d)

The controlled release of energy in the form of carbon dioxide from organic compounds in cells

38.

Which energy system is the predominant contributor of ATP for a runner participating in a marathon?

a)

ATP–PC system

b)

Anaerobic system

c)

Lactic acid system

d)

Aerobic system

39.

What is the main function of the mitochondria?

a)

A. Protein synthesis

b)

B. Digestion of macromolecules

c)

C. Cellular respiration

d)

D. DNA storage

40.

What are the products of anaerobic glycolysis?

a)

2 ATP per glucose molecule and lactic acid

b)

2 ATP per glucose molecule and no lactic acid

c)

34–36 ATP per glucose molecule and no lactic acid

d)

34–36 ATP per glucose molecule and lactic acid

41.

Which energy system is the most rapid to resynthesize ATP?

a)

Anaerobic glycolysis

b)

Aerobic glycolysis

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Creatine phosphate

42.

What is the attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone?

a)

Insertion

b)

Ligament

c)

Origin

d)

Synapse

43.

The diagram shows a posterior view of the legs. Which skeletal muscle is labelled X?

a)

A. Biceps femoris

b)

B. Gastrocnemius

c)

C. Gluteus maximus

d)

D. Soleus

44.

What is the muscle labelled?

a)

Sartorius

b)

Iliopsoas

c)

Vastus medialis

d)

Vastus lateralis

45.

Which is the origin of a muscle?

a)

The attachment of a muscle to a stationary bone

b)

The attachment of a muscle to a joint

c)

The attachment of a muscle to a moveable bone

d)

The attachment of a muscle to a bursa

46.

Which statement is correct about the insertion of a skeletal muscle?

a)

The attachment of a muscle tendon to a moveable bone

b)

The attachment of a muscle tendon to a stationary bone

c)

The attachment of a muscle tendon at the proximal end

d)

The attachment of a muscle tendon on the anterior aspect

47.

What is the lateral muscle of the quadriceps group?

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Vastus medialis

c)

Sartorius

d)

Vastus lateralis

48.

An athlete’s broken leg is immobilized in a cast. Which muscle characteristic causes difficulty in walking after the prolonged inactivity?

a)

Extensibility

b)

Elasticity

c)

Atrophy

d)

Hypertrophy

49.

Which correctly identifies functions of slow twitch (type I) muscle fibers?

a)

Force generation: Small, Durability: Maintain contractions for a long time

b)

Force generation: Moderate, Durability: Fatigue quickly

c)

Force generation: Large, Durability: Maintain contractions for a long time

d)

Force generation: Small, Durability: Fatigue quickly

50.

What is in the center of the cell body of a neuron?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell body

c)

Axon

d)

Motor end plate

51.

What are the predominant muscle fibre characteristics of an elite 100 m sprinter’s gastrocnemius?

a)

High capillary supply, High contraction force, Low glycogen content

b)

High capillary supply, Low contraction force, High glycogen content

c)

Low capillary supply, High contraction force, High glycogen content

d)

Low capillary supply, Low contraction force, High glycogen content

52.

What is released from the axon terminal at the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Cholinesterase

d)

Acetylcholine

53.

Which muscle fiber type is predominant in the gastrocnemius muscle of an elite 200m sprinter?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIb

d)

Slow twitch

54.

What is the function of calcium ions during muscle contraction?

a)

Calcium ions move across the synapse to initiate a nerve impulse on the muscle cell.

b)

Calcium ions bind to troponin, causing tropomyosin to move, allowing actin and myosin to bind.

c)

Calcium ions bind to the myosin head following contraction, allowing detachment of myosin from actin.

d)

Calcium ions cause ATP molecules stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to be released, initiating contraction.

55.

In which area does the neurotransmitter acetylcholine act?

a)

axon

b)

motor end plate

c)

dendrite

d)

cell body

56.

The diagram shows an athlete extending their left elbow while throwing a javelin. According to the sliding filament theory, which occurs in the muscle fibres of the athlete’s left triceps?

a)

The H zone increases.

b)

The A band shortens.

c)

The Z lines move closer together.

d)

The A band lengthens.

57.

What shortens during muscular contraction according to the sliding filament theory?

a)

Z line

b)

A band

c)

H zone

d)

Actin

58.

What describes the role of acetylcholine in skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

To open an axon’s synaptic vesicle

b)

To close an axon’s synaptic vesicle

c)

To open a motor-end plate channel

d)

To block a motor-end plate channel

59.

A skier, when snowplowing, turns the soles of their feet outwards. What action are the feet performing?

a)

Extension

b)

Circumduction

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

60.

What is the sequence of a motor unit signal travelling from the brain to the muscle?

a)

Synapse, axon, cell body, dendrite, motor end plate

b)

Synapse, dendrite, cell body, axon, motor end plate

c)

Motor end plate, dendrite, cell body, axon, synapse

d)

Synapse, dendrite, axon, cell body, motor end plate

61.

An athlete, while running, sprains the ligaments on the lateral side of their ankle. What type of movement occurred at the ankle to stretch the lateral tendons?

a)

Inversion

b)

Dorsi flexion

c)

Plantar flexion

d)

Eversion

62.

What action occurs at the ankle of a swimmer as they push off the wall?

a)

Extension

b)

Dorsi flexion

c)

Plantar flexion

d)

Adduction

63.

The diagram shows a swimmer performing backstroke. What type of movement correctly describes the motion at the shoulder joint?

a)

Circumduction

b)

Eversion

c)

Adduction

d)

Supination

64.

Which states the correct anatomical relationship among the bones of the hands and arms?

a)

Phalanges are medial to the humerus.

b)

Carpals are proximal to the ulna.

c)

Humerus is distal to the metacarpals.

d)

Ulna is medial to the radius.

65.

What type of bone is the fibula?

a)

Short

b)

Flat

c)

Long

d)

Irregular

66.

Which movement involves bones of the axial skeleton?

a)

Extension of the elbow when pitching a baseball

b)

Rotation of the neck to breathe while swimming freestyle

c)

Flexion of the knee when rowing

d)

Pronation of the radius and ulna joint to apply topspin in tennis

67.

Which correctly matches the connective tissue to its function?

a)

Ligaments are the connections between muscles and bones.

b)

Cartilage reduces friction between bones and helps absorb shock.

c)

Tendons are the connections between bones and bones.

d)

The synovial membrane provides stability to the joint.

68.

Where are the external oblique muscles located in the body?

a)

posterior - upper leg

b)

lateral - trunk

c)

anterior - upper arm

d)

posterior - trunk

69.

Which structure attaches muscle to bone to facilitate movement?

a)

Ligament

b)

Cartilage

c)

Joint

d)

Tendon

70.

What is the function of a ligament?

a)

To attach muscle to bone

b)

To attach bone to bone

c)

To reduce friction

d)

To secrete synovial fluid

71.

Which type of joint provides the greatest degree of movement?

a)

Fibrous

b)

Synovial

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Gliding

72.

What lines the joint cavity and secretes synovial fluid

a)

Articular capsule

b)

Synovial fluid

c)

Articular cartilage

d)

Synovial membrane