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Semester 1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 3hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Active Transport requires energy in the form of ...?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

glycolysis

c)

ATP

d)

fats

2.

Which type of cellular transport requires a transport protein?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Passive transport

d)

Osmosis

3.

What is the process by which large molecules are taken out of the cell by transporting them within a vesicle outside the cell membrane?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

osmosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

4.

What is the process by which large molecules are taken into the cell by engulfing them within the cell membrane?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

osmosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

5.

Which type of cellular transport requires energy?

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Passive transport

6.

What is the process by which water molecules move across a cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?

a)

osmosis

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

diffusion

7.

There are two methods for transporting molecules within a cell, they are...?

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Chemical Diffusion

d)

Electromagnetic Pathways

8.

Which molecules make up the "backbone" of DNA and RNA?

a)

Sugar

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Nucleotide base

9.

What molecules are in nucleotides?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Protein

c)

Sugar

d)

lipid

e)

Nitrogenous base

10.

Thymine will bond with...

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

11.

Guanine will bond with...

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Adenine

d)

Uracil

12.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
13.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
14.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
15.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
16.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
17.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

18.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
19.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
20.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

21.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

22.

Am autotroph can:

a)

Make its own food

b)

Make its own water

c)

Make its own oxygen

d)

Make its own carbon

23.

What type of energy conversion occurs in photosynthesis?

a)

Light from the sun to chemical in glucose

b)

Chemical in glucose to chemical in ATP

24.

Which of the following is a reactant of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

25.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

26.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
27.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
28.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
29.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon GUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Valine
30.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
31.
Which  represents the bases of mRNA?
a)
A U C G
b)
A T U G
c)
A T C G
d)
U T C G
32.
Which of the following is heterozygous
a)
FF
b)
tt
c)
Gg
d)
RR
33.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
34.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
35.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
36.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's phenotype?
a)
Brown Hair
b)
Blonde Hair
c)
Brown and Blonde Hair
d)
Black Hair
37.
rr
a)
Homozygous Dominant
b)
Homozygous Recessive
c)
Heterozygous
d)
Heterozygous Recessive
38.

This cell is a -

a)

PROKARYOTIC

b)

PLANT

c)

ANIMAL

d)

PROTIST

39.

What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...

a)

store genetic information

b)

have chloroplasts

c)

use glucose for cellular respiration

d)

have endoplasmic reticulum

40.

FATTY ACIDS AND GLYCEROL ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF..

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

41.

AMINO ACIDS ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

42.

Why do viruses have projections on the outside?

a)

To send signals to other viruses.

b)

To maintain their structure.

c)

To attach to the host cell.

d)

To reproduce.

43.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
44.
Which of the following is a trait that a virus shares with a living organism?
a)
They use oxygen
b)
They have genetic material
c)
They grow
d)
They digest food
45.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
46.
Viruses can reproduce on their own
a)
False
b)
True
47.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

All cells are prokaryotes

b)

All eukaryotes have a nucleus

c)

All viruses are prokaryotes

d)

All viruses are living

48.

Which of the following is a virus?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

Which of the following would be a prokaryotic cell?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

50.

Which of the following would be a eukaryotic cell?

a)

A and B

b)

A and C

c)

A and D

d)

all of these are eukaryotic

51.

Cell differentiation is critical during embryonic development. The process of cell differentiation results in the production of many different kinds of specialized cells. This process is most directly influenced by

a)

DNA

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

ATP

52.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they

a)

have different sets of DNA passed on to the daughter cells

b)

have different sets of genes activated in the daughter cells

c)

have mutations that cause different genes to appear in the daughter cells

d)

randomly assort the chromosomes into different daughter cells

53.

What is the role of stem cells in cell differentiation?

a)

They serve as a precursor for generalized cells

b)

These cells can turn into specialized cells and back into generalized cells when needed

c)

They are generalized cells that can lead to specialized cells

d)

They are specialized cells that can lead to generalized cells

54.

Which are external factors that can regulate gene expression?

a)

Operons

b)

Homeobox Genes

c)

Transcription Factors

d)

Temperature

55.

Environmental factors can influence the regulation of gene expression.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

How can environmental factors affect gene expression?

a)

a) By modifying DNA sequences

b)

b) By altering how a gene is expressed.

c)

c) By directly changing gene function

d)

d) None of the above

57.

What is the function of carbohydrates?

a)

Perform cell's functions/tasks

b)

Fast energy

c)

Energy storage

d)

Alter other biomolecules

e)

Store information for cells

58.

What is the function of proteins?

a)

Perform cell's functions/tasks

b)

Fast energy

c)

Energy storage

d)

Alter other biomolecules

e)

Store information for cells

59.

Bowhead whales can have a specialized layer of blubber up to 30 cm’s thick. This acts as a special insulation that traps the heat their muscles create from movement.


What biomolecule is the blubber primarily made of?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

60.

Dystrophin is a molecule that holds muscle fibers together. In people with muscular dystrophy, a genetic disease that causes people to lose the ability to walk at a young age, dystrophin molecules never develop.


What biomolecule is this person missing?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

61.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
62.
Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and contain you DNA?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipids
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
63.
What biomolecule do enzymes belong to? 
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Protein
64.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
Stores energy
b)
Stores genetic information
c)
Movement
d)
Physical structure
65.
Which biomolecule contains pastas and breads?
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Carbohydrate
66.
Which biomolecule helps form muscles?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Protein
d)
Lipids
67.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
68.

What goes in box 15

a)

aabb

b)

AABB

c)

aaBB

d)

AAbb

69.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
70.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
71.

What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

3 AA : 1 aa

b)

1 AA : 3 aa

c)

1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa

d)

2 AA : 2 aa

72.

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

(A-Brown fur color; a-white fur color)

a)

50 % Brown fur and 50% White fur

b)

25 % Brown fur and 75% White fur

c)

75 % Brown fur and 25% White fur

d)

0% Brown fur and 100% White fur

73.
In cacti, long arms (A) are dominant to short arms (a).  Suppose 2 heterozygous cacti are crossed.  What percentage of their offspring are expected to have short arms?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
100%
74.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
75.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

76.

A point mutation where one nucleotide base replaces an original nucleotide base

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Chromosomal Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Substitution Mutation

77.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

78.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

79.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

80.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base is added

to the DNA sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Substitution Mutation

d)

Chromosomal Mutation

81.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

82.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

83.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

84.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

85.

Part of one chromosome is transported and attached

to a non-homologous chromosome

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Translocation Mutation

c)

Duplication Mutation

d)

Point Mutation

86.

Cancer is defined as the

a)

uncontrolled division of mutated cells

b)

normal division of cells

c)

normal DNA replication

d)

abnormal ATP synthesis

87.

A ________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle

a)

tumor

b)

checkpoint

c)

growth factor

d)

oncogene

88.
What type of cell has a nucleus? 
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic 
89.

Plant and animal cells are examples of

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

90.

Which of the following structures is ALWAYS found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

91.

Which of the following is only found in EUKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

92.

PROKARYOTIC cells do NOT have

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

93.

Which cell type tends to be smaller?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

there is not a size difference

94.

Bacteria is an example of a(n)

a)

prokaryotic cell.

b)

eukaryotic cell.

95.

Which type of cell is this?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

96.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

97.

Prokaryotic cells do not have…….

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA or RNA

d)

life

98.
All living things are made of...
a)
atoms 
b)
cells 
c)
bacteria 
d)
plants 
99.
This is a picture of:
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
100.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
floating DNA
c)
very small
d)
complex
101.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
102.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
103.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
104.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

105.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
106.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
107.

Ends with diploid number of chromosomes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

108.

Involves crossing over

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

109.

Produces four cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

110.

produces identical daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

111.

forms gametes

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

112.

produces haploid cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

113.

produces two cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

114.

produces non-identical cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

115.

Click on the image to enlarge, then answer the question.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

116.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

117.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

118.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

119.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

120.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

e)

Cytokinesis

121.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Cytokinesis

122.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Cytokinesis

123.

what phase am I?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

e)

Cytokinesis

124.

What phase am I?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

125.

What phase am I?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

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