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Worksheets

Bio PMA 3 Review

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the brain regions marked on the diagram below is the frontal lobe?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

What lobe is bright pink in this picture?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

3.

What lobe is green in this picture?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

4.

What lobe is pink in this picture?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

5.

The red portion is the ________

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Diencephalon

6.

The cerebellum is labeled

a)

1

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

7.

What structure is blue in this picture?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

8.
What is the variable manipulated by the experimenter in order to study changes in the outcome variable?
a)
Independent Variable
b)
Dependent Variable
c)
Controlled Variable
d)
Hypothesis
9.

Scientists studied the effect of water temperature on how fast a sugar cube dissolves. What was the independent variable?

a)

Time to Dissolve

b)

Amount of Water

c)

Water Temperature

d)

Beaker Size

10.

Scientists tested the effect of water temperature on how fast a sugar cube dissolves. What was the dependent variable?

a)

Amount of Water

b)

Temperature of Water

c)

Time for Sugar cube to Dissolve

d)

Type of Beaker

11.

What is a factor or condition in a scientific experiment that is purposefully kept the same?

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Controlled Variable

d)

Hypothesis

12.

What is a factor, usually being measured or observed, that responds to, or depends on, another factor.

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Controlled Variable

d)

Hypothesis

13.

What is the reproduction of a scientific investigation by another person to ensure accuracy.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

14.

The invention of the microscope allowed scientists to see which of the following?

a)

Cells

b)

Bacteria

c)

Microorganisms

d)

All of the Above

15.

This is an image of a Vespula vulgaris, wasp. What microscope would be used to look at this image?

a)

Transmission Emission Microscope

b)

Light Microscope

c)

Scanning Emission Microscope

d)

Dissecting Microscope

16.

This is an image of the epidermis of an onion root. What microscope would be used to look at this image?

a)

Dissecting Microscope

b)

Light Microscope

c)

Transmission Emission Microscope

d)

Scanning Emission Microscope

17.

I am a microscope that can only view organisms that are no longer living. I am best used to see surface objects in great detail and magnification that result in 3-D images of the specimens. What microscope am I?

a)

Light Microscope

b)

Scanning Emission Microscope

c)

Transmission Emission Microscope

d)

Dissecting Microscope

18.

If blood volume decrease, then there's less blood available to pump causing blood pressure to

a)

Increase

b)

Stay the same

c)

Decrease

19.

Atherosclerosis is the buildup of cholesterol or other substances in blood vessels that causes

a)

low blood pressure

b)

high blood volume

c)

low blood volume

d)

high blood pressure

20.

A student gets hit by a car and it causes extreme blood loss. What will happen to blood pressure?

a)

Increase

b)

Stay the same

c)

Decrease

21.

Which of the following factors affects your body's blood flow in negative ways?

a)

Good Diet

b)

Smoking

c)

Alcohol

d)

Medications

22.
Which produces egg cells and female hormones?
a)
cervix
b)
fallopian tube
c)
vagina
d)
ovaries
23.
(SC.912.L.16.13) A fertilized egg undergoes several stages before it is successfully implanted. The diagram below shows these stages as the fertilized egg travels through the female human reproductive system. In which of the following structures of the female human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted during normal human development?
a)
ovary 
b)
uterus
c)
vagina
d)
amniotic sac
24.
Where is sperm produced?
a)
testes
b)
penis
c)
prostate
d)
epididymis
25.
Once a sperm matures, it travels through this tube
a)
Vas deferens
b)
Fallopian tube
c)
Ovaries
d)
Epididymis
26.
What is the part of the reproductive system shown in the picture?
a)
oviduct or fallopian tube
b)
ovary
c)
uterus
d)
vagina
27.
What is labeled number 4?
a)
uterus
b)
ovary
c)
fallopian tube
d)
vagina
28.
What is labeled number 3?
a)
oviducts
b)
uterus
c)
ovary
d)
vagina
29.
What is labeled number 7?
a)
prostate
b)
scrotum
c)
vas deferens
d)
urethra
30.
What is labeled number 1?
a)
prostate
b)
penis
c)
scrotum
d)
testes
31.
What is labeled number 2?
a)
testes
b)
penis
c)
scrotum
d)
epididymis
32.

Our bodies work to fight off infections through non-specific and specific defense systems. Which of the following statements best reflects the role of the non- specific immune system?

a)

It is designed as a first line of defense against pathogens.

b)

It is designed to dispose of pathogens after they have been found.

c)

It is designed to attack pathogens not found by the specific immune system.

d)

It is designed to deal only with pathogens that are not a serious threat to the body.

33.

Scientists developed a vaccine to protect humans from the H1N1 virus, which caused 17,000 deaths in 2009. Make a prediction which of the following patients in the table below would most likely contract the H1N1 virus?

a)

Patient 1

b)

Patient 2

c)

Patient 3

d)

Patient 4

34.

Scientists have been studying the resistance of bacteria over the past 20 years. What conclusion is supported about the future of MRSA based on the data provided?

a)

MRSA could become extinct by 2025.

b)

MRSA could become isolated to one location of the world.

c)

MRSA could become resistant to all antibiotics and spread rapidly

d)

MRSA could evolve into a virus, where it could not be treated with antibiotics.

35.

Which of the following image answer choices below corresponds to a non-specific defense response?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Which of the following are antibiotics used to fight against?

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

37.

Which of the following are vaccines used to fight against?

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

38.

A DNA molecule reads TCGACGATT. What is the sequence of the bases on the complementary strand?

a)

ACCTGCTAA

b)

AGCTGCTAA

c)

AGCUGCUAA

d)

ACCUGCUAA

39.

The following steps describe which process?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Prescription

40.

If 10% of a DNA sample is made up of thymine, T, what percent of the DNA is cytosine, C?

a)

10%

b)

80%

c)

90%

d)

40%

41.

Which of the following is not a difference between RNA and DNA?

a)

RNA uses Uracil instead of Thymine

b)

RNA contains ribose sugar & DNA contains deoxyribose

c)

RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded

d)

All of the answers are correct

42.

Which conclusion can be made about the potential effect of genetic mutations on physical characteristics?

a)

If a mutation changes a protein sequence, then a person’s traits will too

b)

If a mutation changes a protein sequence, then a person’s traits will not

c)

All genetic mutations will result in a change to a person’s physical traits

d)

If mutation does not change a protein, then a person's traits will change

43.

Which of the following describes the result of the semi-conservative DNA Replication process?

a)

1 DNA with 2 old strands and 1 DNA with two new strands

b)

Two DNA molecules, each with two new strands

c)

2 DNA molecules, each with one original and one new strand

d)

Two DNA molecules, each with two old strands

44.

Mutations that change the amino acid sequence are called what?

a)

Nonsense Mutations

b)

Missense Mutations

c)

Silent Mutations

45.

Which mutation shifts the reading frame by inserting or deleting bases?

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Nonsense Mutation

c)

Missense Mutation

d)

Silent Mutation

46.

Mutations that change an mRNA sequence to stop before the protein is finished are called what?

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Nonsense Mutation

c)

Missense Mutation

d)

Silent Mutation

47.

If the codon in a dog UUU codes for phenylalanine, what does UUU code for in a cat?

a)

Lysine

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Arginine

d)

Nothing

48.

Which of the following processes are shown as Process A in the image?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Prescription

49.

Letter D represents what process?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Prescription

50.

According to the chart, which of the following are codons that signal for translation to stop?

a)

UAA, GAU, AUG

b)

UAG, UAA, UGG

c)

UAG, UAA, UGA

d)

AUG, UAA, UGA

51.

Translate the RNA sequence AUG CUG CCC UAA into amino acids?

a)

Met - Leu - Pro - Trp

b)

Met - Leu - Ser - Stop

c)

Met - Leu - Pro - Stop

d)

Met - Pro - Leu - Trp

52.

According to the chart, which of the following are codons that signal for Asn?

a)

AAC & AAA

b)

AAG & AAU

c)

AAG & AAC

d)

AAC & AAU

53.

Which of the following is a consequence of cloning?

a)

Increased genetic diversity

b)

Decrease genetic diversity

c)

Longer lifespans

d)

New Species

54.

Gene therapy uses genes to treat or prevent disease. What is an ethical concern over its use?

a)

Decreased need for medicine

b)

Increase in technology use

c)

The long term effects on organisms because of it

d)

Financial costs of the technology

55.

Enzymes work best at a optimal ___ and ___

a)

Temperature and Height

b)

Temperature and Substrate

c)

Substrate and Active Site

d)

Temperature and pH

56.

Enzymes speed up reactions by _______ the activation energy

a)

Increasing

b)

Decreasing

57.

How do enzymes work?

a)

1) Enzymes react w/ other proteins 2) Produce glucose

b)

1) Substrates attach to enzyme's active site 2) Slows chemical reaction

c)

1) Substrates attach to enzyme's active site 2) Produces carbon

d)

1) Substrates attach to enzyme's active site 2) enzyme changes shape 3) Rxn

58.

Amylase is used for breaking down starches in our food. Does it break other macromolecules?

a)

Yes

b)

No, because enzymes are specific and it can only break down starch

59.

Which of the following identifies the optimal (best) pH for Enzymes A & B to react?

a)

Enzyme A works best at a pH of 6, and Enzyme B works best at a pH of 14

b)

Enzyme A works best at a pH of 6, and Enzyme B works best at a pH of 10

c)

Enzyme A works best at a pH of 2, and Enzyme B works best at a pH of 6

d)

Enzyme A works best at a pH of 10, and Enzyme B works best at a pH of 14

60.

Which of the following macromolecules is incorrectly paired with its monomer?

a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

61.

The structure shown corresponds to which macromolecule?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

62.

The structures shown correspond to which macromolecule?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

63.

The structure shown stores genetic information. It corresponds to which macromolecule?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

64.

The structures shown correspond to which macromolecule?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

65.

Which of the following describes the difference between lipids and carbohydrates?

a)

Both have carbon & hydrogen but carbs have oxygen & lipids have nitrogen

b)

Both are made up of monosaccharides but lipids are hydrophobic

c)

Both have carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen, but lipids can have a kink & are either saturated/unsaturated

d)

Both have a carbon backbone but lipids have amins & carbs have carboxylics

66.

Which of these correctly identifies the two cells described in the table?

a)

Both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are eukaryotic

b)

Both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are prokaryotic

c)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic, and Cell 2 is eukaryotic

d)

Cell 1 is eukaryotic, and Cell 2 is prokaryotic

67.

Which structure is in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cell Membrane

68.

Spontaneous generation means that cells are formed from nothing. Which part of the cell theory allows us to reject this?

a)

All organisms are made up of more than one cell

b)

Cells are the basic unit of life

c)

Cells come from pre-existing cells

69.

Which of the following is not in the cell theory?

a)

All organisms are made up of more than one cell

b)

Cells are the driving force of organisms

c)

Cells are the basic unit of life

d)

Cells come from pre-existing cells

70.

I have a coat of cellulose, DNA & a wall. I have mitochondria & chloroplasts. Which cell am I?

a)

Plant Cell

b)

Animal Cell

c)

Bacterial Cell

d)

Viral Cell

71.

Which organelle captures light energy & converts energy stored in food during Photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosomes

72.

Which of the following is the control center of the cell and contains DNA?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Rough ER

d)

Ribsome

73.

Which of the following describes the net movement of molecules during diffusion?

a)

Particles move from low concentration to high concentration

b)

Particles move from high concentration to low concentration

c)

There is no net movement of particles

74.

Which of the following is selectively permeable and made of both lipids and proteins?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Nuclear Envelope

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Nucleus

75.

Which of the following best describes why the cell theory was developed over time?

a)

Changes in cell models showed the theory was only an opinion

b)

As new cells evolved, the cell theory became inaccurate

c)

New discoveries and evidence caused changes in the cell theory

d)

Changes in the theory due to new organelles appearing

76.

Which of the following describes what happens when the concentration on both sides of a membrane is the same?

a)

Particles move into the cell

b)

Particles stop moving

c)

Particles move out of the cell

d)

Particles move faster

77.

Large sac-like structures that store waters, salts, and proteins are called

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Mitochondria

78.

Which of the following is a small piece of RNA that is involved in protein synthesis?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Ribosome

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

79.

Which organelle modifies/sorts & packages proteins from the ER for cell storage/release?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Ribosome

d)

Golgi Apparatus

80.

Which part of the cell theory supports the observation of cells multiplying?

a)

Cells are the basic units of matter

b)

Cells arise from pre-existing cells

c)

All living things are made of one or more cells

81.

The movement of molecules across the cell membrane without energy

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

82.

__________ involves cells using energy in the form of ATP to _________ and bring in molecules into the cell.

a)

Passive Transport, move with the gradient

b)

Passive Transport, move against the gradient

c)

Active Transport, move against the gradient

d)

Active Transport, move with the gradient

83.

The flagella of bacteria allow them to move. They use which of the following to power them?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

Proteins

84.

Which of the following is considered the "Powerhouse" of the cell and produces ATP?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplasts

85.

The ____ lies outside the cell membrane and supports, shapes, and protects the plant cell

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Flagella

d)

Cytoskeleton

86.

Gas levels of a greenhouse are measured. If there is less amounts of carbon dioxide, then

a)

Photosynthesis is occurring at a fast rate

b)

Photosynthesis is occurring at a slow rate

c)

There are low amounts of oxygen

d)

None of the above

87.

Our bodies and cells try to keep the conditions in our body the same by a process called

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Oxidation

88.

Which of the following are reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen and Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide and glucose

c)

Glucose and water

d)

Sunlight, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

89.

Which of the following are products of cellular respiration?

a)

Oxygen and Glucose

b)

Carbon Dioxide, Water, & ATP

c)

Sunlight, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

d)

Carbon Dioxide and glucose

90.

Which of the following transports nutrients & sugars through the plant?

a)

Phloem

b)

Xylem

91.

Which of the following describes the function of root hairs?

a)

Decrease the need for oxygen

b)

Increase the surface area of roots for nutrient absorption

c)

convert minerals into glucose

d)

Prevent water loss in the leaves

92.

Which of the following is created from cellular respiration and stores energy?

a)

ATP

b)

Sunlight

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

93.

How does water travel from the roots to the plan leaf? Name the structure that carries water.

a)

Phloem

b)

Xylem

94.

Which of the following describes the difference between anaerobic and aerobic?

a)

Anaerobic is in photosynthesis and aerobic is in cell respiration

b)

Anaerobic means without oxygen and aerobic means with oxygen

c)

Anaerobic means with oxygen and aerobic means without oxygen

d)

Anaerobic is in cell respiration and aerobic is in photosynthesis

95.

How do cells use the energy stored in ATP?

a)

Break down the energy through aerobic respiration

b)

Add water to it to release energy

c)

Use glucose to combine with it

d)

Break the bonds of the ATP molecule to release energy

96.

How can we convert ADP to ATP?

a)

Remove a phosphate group

b)

Add a phosphate group to store energy

97.

How do heterotrophs relate to autotrophs?

a)

Autotrophs provide heterotrophs with food and oxygen

b)

Heterotrophs provide autotrophs with food and energy

c)

They don't relate because they're not the same organisms

98.

How are the equations of photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?

a)

The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cell respiration

b)

The products are both the same

c)

They're entirely the same

d)

The reactants are the same

99.

What is the tiny openings that let in the carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis?

a)

Stomata

b)

Xylem

c)

Phloem

d)

Chlorophyll

100.

What is the chemical equation for cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

b)

Carbon dioxide + Glucose -> Oxygen + Water + Energy

c)

Oxygen + Carbon dioxide + Energy -> Glucose + Water

d)

Water + Carbon dioxide + Energy -> Oxygen + Glucose

101.

What is the equation for photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen + Carbon dioxide + ATP -> Glucose + Water

b)

Oxygen + Carbon dioxide + Sunlight -> Glucose + Water

c)

Water + Carbon dioxide + Sunlight -> Oxygen + Glucose

d)

Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

102.

Which of the following terms describes the evolution of humans and their most recent ancestors?

a)

Endosymbiotic Theory

b)

Hominid Evolution

c)

Convergent Evolution

d)

Arachnid Evolution

103.

Which of the following sped up Hominid evolution by allowing us to stand up right and have better posture?

a)

Cranial Capacity

b)

Spinalism

c)

Bipedalism

d)

Homidism

104.

Which of the following was the result of an increased cranial capacity (brain size)?

a)

Communication

b)

Lower Common Sense

c)

Development of Computers

d)

Ability to create hunting tools

105.

According to hominid evolution, which of the following structures increased in size?

a)

Brain Size

b)

Jaw Size

c)

Skull Size

d)

Teeth Size

106.

According to hominid evolution, which of the following decreased in size?

a)

Jaw Size

b)

Brain Size

c)

Skull Size

d)

Hip Size

107.

How does size and function of structures provide evidence for evolution?

a)

Increase in function shows that two species are related

b)

Increase in size/function shows that organisms evolve

c)

Reduced size & function show that organisms change over time

d)

Decrease in function shows that two species are related

108.

According to the endosymbiotic theory, which organisms came first?

a)

Prokaryotic and Aerobic

b)

Prokaryotic and Anaerobic

c)

Eukaryotic and Anaerobic

d)

Eukaryotic and Aerobic

109.

When Earth first formed, which gas was missing?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Methane

d)

Monoxide

110.

According to the endosymbiotic theory where did early eukaryotes come from?

a)

Meteorites

b)

Prokaryotic Mutations

c)

Bacteria eaten by prokaryotes that underwent symbiosis

d)

Primitive forms of plants

111.

Chimpanzees and rats are closely related. According to the cladogram, why?

a)

They have few derived characters

b)

They share no derived characters

c)

They both derive from a recent common ancestor

d)

Natural Selection

112.

The idea that all species descended from common ancestors is called

a)

Common Ancestry

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

113.

Which are structures that are inherited from ancestors but have lost their function?

a)

Homologous Structures

b)

Analogous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

114.

Organisms that have identical DNA and share anatomical structures most likely what?

a)

Are unrelated

b)

Have a common ancestor

c)

One evolved from the other

d)

They are siblings

115.

Which is the idea that life can come from nonliving components?

a)

Nonspontaneous Generation

b)

Spontaneous Generation

c)

Evolution

d)

Ecology

116.

Miller-Urey experimented on compounds. What's the BEST resulting explanation of the experiment?

a)

Methane and ammonia will always create organic molecules

b)

Organic compounds came from inorganic compounds in the past

c)

Life could not develop without natural processes

d)

We do not know the true mechanism of life

117.

Which of the following are structures that are similar in different species of common ancestry?

a)

Homologous

b)

Vestigial

c)

Analogous

118.

Which of the following are structures that are different but have the same function?

a)

Analogous

b)

Homologous

c)

Vestigial

119.

Which of the following BEST explains the presence of vestigial structures in sperm whales?

a)

Used for embryonic development

b)

In the process of evolving

c)

Same bones as other living mammals

d)

Once were used for walking on land in past ancestors

120.

Which is the concept that life can only arise from another living organism?

a)

Biogenesis

b)

Nonspontaneous Generation

c)

Spontaneous Generation

d)

Meiosis

121.

Which describes how well an organism survives and reproduces?

a)

Fitness

b)

Finesse

c)

Survival Rate

d)

Genetic Drift

122.

When an organism of a species has an adaptation, it will compete for resources better, survive longer and pass that adaptation on to it's offspring. This process is called

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Outbreeding

123.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To look different from other species.

b)

To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.

c)

To protect itself against predators.

d)

To protect itself against prey.

124.

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which

of the following?

a)

A gene from one organism can theoretically be expressed by another organism.

b)

Each species has its own unique set of amino acids that is different from all other species.

c)

The same codons in different organisms translate into different amino acids.

d)

Proteins were the first genetic material.

125.

Which of the following Macromolecules is shown in the image?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

126.

What is the name of the purple shaded part of the brain diagram?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

127.

Which plant structure creates the xylem?

a)

Cambium

b)

Stoma

c)

Guard Cell

d)

Dermal Tissue

128.

Which of the following correctly identifies label A and B in the diagram?

a)

A = O2 & C6H12O , B = CO2 & H2O

b)

A = CO2 & H2O , B = O2 & C6H12O

c)

A = CO2 & C6H12O , B = O2 & H2O

d)

A = O2 & H2O, B = CO2 & C6H12O

129.

Which of the following describes tissue in plants that are made of undifferentiated tissue allowing for plant growth?

a)

Meristematic

b)

Cambium

c)

Xylem

d)

Phloem

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