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Accounting Quiz

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 3585secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Repairs and maintenance costs are normally:

a)

Recorded as deferred expenses

b)

Expensed in the profit or loss as incurred

c)

Capitalised

2.

Happy Plc vacated an office building and let it out to a third party on 30 June 20X8. The building had an original cost of $800,000 on 1 January 20X0 and was being depreciated over 50 years. It was judged to have a fair value on 30 June 20X8 of $800,000. At the year end date of 31 December 20X8 the fair value of the building was estimated at $1.1 million. Happy Plc uses the fair value model for investment property. What amount will be shown in revaluation surplus at 31 December 20X8 in respect of this building?

a)

136,000

b)

144,000

c)

444,000

3.

Under IAS 36, reversal of impairment loss is allowed if

a)

The recoverable amount of the asset becomes higher than its carrying amount because of the 'unwinding' of the discount.

b)

The loss is related to acquired goodwill

c)

Either A or B

d)

Neither A or B

4.

The Huang Company has a non-current asset which had a carrying amount in the financial statements of $18,000 at 31 December 20X9. Its tax written down value (the tax base) at that date was $9,000. The tax rate is 30%. In accordance with IAS 12 Income taxes, what is the deferred tax balance in respect of this asset at 31 December 20X9?

a)

2,700 asset

b)

2,700 liability

c)

900 asset

d)

9,000 liability

5.

According to IAS 36, an asset is impaired if:

a)

Its carrying amount equals the amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset

b)

If it has been damaged

c)

Its carrying amount exceeds the amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset

d)

The amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset exceeds its carrying amount

6.

A gain or loss arising from a change in the fair value of an investment property should be recognised in the revaluation surplus.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

If a company builds an office building for its own use, it may account for the building at historical cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment losses, with depreciation and impairment losses recognised in profit or loss.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The personal transactions of the business owner that do not involve the business are not recorded in the books of accounts of the business. This relates to the concept of

a)

Business entity concept

b)

Accounting currency

c)

Accounting period

d)

Accrual basis

9.

Should the fees paid to accountants to effect the combination be included in the consideration transferred in a business combination, according to IFRS 3 Business combinations?

a)

Yes

b)

No

10.

Select the correct statement with regards to intragroup balances and transactions during consolidation:

a)

Intragroup balances and transactions must be eliminated

b)

Intragroup balances and transactions must be eliminated to the extent of non-controlling interest

c)

Intragroup balances and transactions must be eliminated in proportion to the percentage of effective ownership

d)

Intragroup balances and transactions do not have to be eliminated

11.

According to IAS 38 Intangible assets, intangible assets with a finite useful life should be measured at cost and tested annually for impairment.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Doogie Plc’s draft net profit for the year ended 31 December 20X4 was £67,890 before recording the depreciation charge on a new machine. Doogie Plc acquired this machine on 1 October 20X4 for £50,000. Doogie Plc planned to depreciate this new machine monthly on the straight-line basis over four years to its residual value of £2,000. What is Doogie Plc’s net profit for the year ended 31 December 20X4 after charging depreciation on the machine?

a)

70,890

b)

64,890

c)

64,765

13.

According to IAS 36, goodwill should be tested for impairment

a)

Only if there is an indication of impairment

b)

Every five years

c)

Annually

d)

On the acquisition of a subsidiary

14.

At the commencement date, a lessee shall measure the lease liability at the future value of the lease payments that are paid at that date.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Oysle Ltd is preparing its trial balance for the year ended 30 September 20X8. Total purchases in the period were £490,850. Opening inventories were valued at £29,980 and closing inventories were valued at £28,730. Which amount should appear as the cost of sales in the trial balance?

a)

491,200

b)

492,200

c)

491,100

d)

492,100

16.

An entity shall account for each business combination by applying the equity method.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

An entity shall apply IFRS 16 to all leases, except leases of right-of-use assets in a sublease.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

On 1 April 20X1, Cake plc acquired a property for £500,000. This property is depreciated on the straight-line basis over 25 years to its residual value of £50,000. On 31 March 20X6, Cake plc performed an impairment review and determined that the property had a fair value less disposal costs of £380,000 and a value in use of £370,000. What is the impairment loss in respect of the property as at 31 March 20X6?

a)

£20,000

b)

£30,000

c)

£40,000

d)

£12,000

19.

According to IAS 38 Intangible assets, intangible assets cannot be treated as having an indefinite useful life.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

According to IAS 36, costs of disposal are:

a)

Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset (or cash-generating unit), plus finance costs and income tax expense

b)

Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, excluding finance costs and income tax expense

c)

Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset (or cash-generating unit), plus finance costs, but excluding income tax expense

d)

Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset (or cash-generating unit), plus tax expense, but excluding finance costs

21.

The cost of goods manufactured by an entity cannot include overhead costs.

a)

T

b)

F

22.

In a period of rising prices, applying the FIFO method in measuring cost of inventories would result in a lower gross profit figure than the AVCO method.

a)

T

b)

F

23.

Under IFRS 16 Leases, which two of the following dates are used to identify the inception of a lease?

a)

The date of the commitment by the parties to all of the provisions of the lease

b)

The date of the commitment by the parties to the principal provisions of the lease

c)

The date when title to the asset is transferred

d)

The date of the lease agreement

24.

Under IAS 36 Impairment of assets are the following statements relating to an active market true or false? 1. Willing buyers and sellers are usually found. 2. Prices are available to the public.

a)

1.False & 2.False

b)

1.False & 2.True

c)

1.True & 2.False

d)

1.True & 2.True

25.

Under IAS 36 Impairment of assets is the following statement relating to an active market true or false? 'Prices are available to the public.'

a)

T

b)

F

26.

TheMarkab Company has acquired a trademark relating to the introduction of a new
manufacturing process. The costs incurred were as follows:
According to IAS38 Intangible assets, what is the total cost that should be capitalised as
an intangible non-current asset in respect of the new process?

a)

CU3,550,000


b)

CU3,500,000


c)

CU3,750,000


d)

CU3,700,000


27.

According to IAS 12 Income taxes, 'The tax base for a machine for tax purposes is greater than the carrying amount in the financial statements up to the end of the reporting period. This will give rise to a deferred tax asset.'

a)

T

b)

F

28.

Which of the following shall a lessee recognise in profit or loss after the commencement date?

a)

A. Interest on the lease liability

b)

B. Variable lease payments not included in the measurement of the lease liability in the period in which the event or condition that triggers those payments occurs

c)

C. Net investment in the lease

d)

D. A and B

e)

E. B and C

29.

The information includes everything necessary to reflect what happened for all of the business activities for which the firm is reporting.

a)

completeness

b)

neutrality

c)

freedom from error

d)

verifiability

30.

TheGrandCompany placed an order with TheLittle Company for new specialist
machinery. Theorder was non-cancellable once signed and Grand agreedto pay for
the machinery at the time the order was signed on1February 20X9.Little held the
machinery to Grand's order from 1June 20X9,the date onwhich it was completed.
Grand commencedusingthe machinery on1August20X9when Little completed
the installation process.Little had staff onstandby to deal with any operating
problems until the warranty period ended on1November 20X9.Under IFRS 15
Revenue from contracts with customers,Little should recognise the revenue from
the sale of this specialist machinery on:

a)

1 Nov X9

b)

1 Aug X9

c)

1 Jun X9

d)

1 Feb X9

31.

According to IAS 12 Income taxes, where accumulated depreciation on an asset is greater than accumulated tax depreciation, the amount should be classified under deductible temporary differences.

a)

T

b)

F

32.

The financial statements of the Farren Company for the year ended 31 December 20X8 included a provision for restructuring of £7 million and an environmental provision of £3 million. At 31 December 20X9, the environmental provision was no longer required and £2 million of the restructuring provision was no longer required. Under IAS 37, the environmental provision is to be written back to profit or loss.

a)

T

b)

F

33.

Geek is developing a new product and expects to be able to capitalise the costs. Which one of the following would preclude capitalisation of the costs?

a)

Development of the product is not yet complete.

b)

No patent has yet been registered in respect of the product.

c)

No sales contracts have yet been signed in relation to the product.

d)

It has not been possible to reliably allocate costs to development of the product.

34.

Which one of the following would be recognised as an investment property under IAS 40 in the consolidated financial statements of Buildco?

a)

A property intended for sale in the ordinary course of business

b)

A property being constructed for a customer

c)

A property held by Buildco as a right-of-use asset and leased out under a six-month lease

d)

A property owned by Buildco

35.

Thefinancial statements of the Farren Company for the year ended 31 December 20X8
included a provision for restructuring of £7 million. At 31 December 20X9, £2 million of
the restructuring provision was no longer required. An additional provision of £2 million
was needed for legal claims against the company. Under IAS37, £2 million of the
restructuring provision no longer required is to be re-allocated to cover the legal claims.

a)

T

b)

F

36.

Which TWO of the following are listed in the IASB Framework as enhancing qualitative characteristics regarding financial statements?

a)

The financial statements are reliable

b)

Any changes of accounting policy are neutral

c)

The financial statements are prepared in a timely manner

d)

The financial statements are verifiable

37.

Spring Cospent $25,000 on a patent for the new technique on 30 March 20X7. The
company capitalized it as an intangible asset in the financial statements.
Spring Coexpected to use the patent for 5 years.
According to IAS38, which one of the following journal entry is correct to record the
amount of the patent amortized for the year ended 30 March 20X7?

a)

Dr. Expenses: $25,000 Cr. Accumulated amortization: $25,000

b)

Dr. Expenses: $5,000 Cr. Accumulated amortization: $5,000

c)

Dr. Intangible assets: $5,000 Cr. Accumulated amortization: $5,000

d)

Dr. Accumulated amortization: $5,000 Cr. Intangible assets: $5,000

38.

The Chadwick Company sells electrical goods covered by a one-year warranty for any
defects.
Of sales of CU70million for the year, the company estimates that 3%will have major
defects, 5%will have minor defects and 92%will have no defects.
Thecost of repairs would be CU5million if all the products sold had major defects and
CU3million if all had minor defects.
What amount should Chadwick recognise as a warranty provision?

a)

CU5,600,000

b)

CU8,000,000

c)

CU300,000

d)

CU190,000

39.

According to IFRS 15, Revenue from contracts with customers, an entity should disclose which TWO of the following?

a)

Advances received in cash, analysed according to each material contract

b)

Total amount of contract revenue recognised in the period

c)

For each material contract, the aggregate costs incurred

d)

Impairment losses on receivables or other assets from contracts with customers

40.

Are the following statements true or false, according to IAS 38 Intangible assets?

1. Expenditure during the research phase of a project may sometimes be capitalised as an intangible asset.

2. Expenditure during the development phase of a project may sometimes be capitalised as an intangible asset.

a)

1.False & 2.False

b)

1.False & 2.True

c)

1.True & 2.False

d)

1.True & 2.True

41.

According to IAS 2 Inventories, maintenance expenses for an item of equipment used in the manufacturing process should be included in the cost of inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Are the following statements true or false, according to IAS2 Inventories?
1. Cost of factory management should be included in the cost of inventories.
2. Maintenance expenses for an item of equipment used in the manufacturing process
should be included in the cost of inventories

a)

1.False 2. False


b)

1.True 2. False


c)

1.False 2. True


d)

1.True 2. True


43.

According to IAS38 Intangible assets, expenditure during the development phase of a
project may sometimes be capitalised as an intangible asset.

a)

T

b)

F

44.

Under IAS 16,usingthe cost model,the asset in accountedfor at:

a)

Under IAS 16,usingthe cost model,the asset in accountedfor at:

b)

Cost

c)

Costless accumulated depreciation
and any impairment losses

d)

Costless accumulatedimpairment
losses

45.

Which ONE of the following terms best describes the amount of cash or cash equivalents that could currently be obtained by selling an asset in an orderly disposal?

a)

Fair value

b)

Realisable value

c)

Residual value

d)

Value in use

46.

When allocating an impairment loss, such a loss should reduce the carrying amount of which asset first?

a)

Goodwill

b)

Property, plant and equipment

c)

Intangible assets

d)

Leases

47.

Which of the following does not define an 'asset'?

a)

A resource that is controlled by an entity as a result of past events

b)

A resource which value in use exceeds its historical cost

c)

A resource from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity

d)

None of the above

48.

M Cosets up his demolition business from scratch on 1 January20X0. Which items should
be represented as capital expenditure

a)

Rents office premises


b)

Buys three wrecking machines


c)

Repairs the warehouse roof


d)

Writes off a damaged machine


49.

UggyCoentered into a 4-year lease agreement on 1 January20X5. The agreement meets
the definition of a lease in accordance with IFRS16. An initial payment of $150,000 was
made on 1 January20X5 followed by three annual payments on 1 Januaryof $110,000
each. Therate implicit in the lease is 10%. UggyCoincurred initial direct costs of $20,000
to set up the lease
What is the carrying amount of the lease liability at 31 December 20X6?

a)

230,000

b)

300,909

c)

210,000

d)

110,000

50.

According to IAS 37 Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets, a present obligation that arises from past events but cannot be reliably measured is a contingent liability.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Specific identification method, first in-first out (FIFO) and average cost (AVCO) are inventory valuation methods. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Average cost is recomputed following every dispatch or issue of inventory.

b)

Specific identification method is used when items of inventory are individually distinguishable and of high value.

c)

FIFO accounting method assumes that the latest items bought are the first items to be sold.

d)

In a period of rising purchase costs, FIFO
usually gives a lower taxable income than
AVCOand therefore


52.

Which of the following is not included as part of the definition of control under IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements?

a)

Exposure, or rights, to variable returns from its investment

b)

The ability to use its power over the investee to affect the returns received

c)

Ownership of more than 50% of the share capital of the investee

d)

Power over the investee

53.

According to IAS 02 - Inventories, which of the following should be included in the cost of an inventory?

a)

Settlement discounts received

b)

Storage costs of finished goods

c)

Import duties of inventories inwards

d)

Trade discount allowed

54.

Are the following statements in relation to a contingent liability true or false, according to IAS 37 Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets? 1. An obligation as a result of the entity creating a valid expectation that it will discharge its responsibilities is a contingent liability. 2. A present obligation that arises from past events but cannot be reliably measured is a contingent liability.

a)

1.False 2.False

b)

1.False 2.True

c)

1.True 2.False

d)

1.True 2.True

55.

According to IAS 2 Inventories, which TWO of the following should be accounted for in the cost of an inventory item?

a)

Trade discounts received on purchase of inventories

b)

Storage costs of finished goods

c)

Import duties on shipping of inventories inwards

d)

Material wasted due to a machine breakdown

56.

According to IAS 37 Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets, an obligation as a result of the entity creating a valid expectation that it will discharge its responsibilities is a contingent liability.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following shall be accounted in accordance with IAS 38?

a)

Motion picture films

b)

Patents and copyrights

c)

Manuscripts

58.

On 1 April 20X0, Slow and Steady Co held non-current assets that cost $312,000 and had accumulated depreciation of $66,000 at this date. During the year ended 31 March 20X1, Slow and Steady Co disposed of non-current assets which had originally cost $28,000 and had a carrying amount of $11,200. Slow and Steady Co's policy is to charge depreciation of 40% on the reducing balance basis, with no depreciation charged in the year of disposal. What is the depreciation charge to the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 20X1?

a)

$93,920

b)

$98,400

c)

$124,800

d)

$120,320

59.

Muse plc begins trading on 1 January 20X8 and has zero inventories at that date. During 20X8 it makes purchases of £45,500, incurs carriage inwards of £2,400, and carriage outwards of £2,900. Closing inventories at 31 December 20X8 are valued at £5,200. In the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X8 the cost of sales figure is:

a)

£45,600

b)

£43,200

c)

£53,100

d)

£42,700

60.

The Hook Company entered into two new lease arrangements on 1 January 20X9: 1. A lease of a large piece of plant with an 18 month term, so that there were only six months left to run by the year end of 31 December 20X9. 2. A lease of a colour printer for the Chief Executive's office. Which of the leases would qualify for a recognition exemption under IFRS 16 Leases?

a)

The plant lease only

b)

The printer lease only

c)

Both of the leases

d)

Neither of the leases

61.

Which one of the following is not required to be disclosed in a lessee's financial statements in relation to its leases, to comply with the requirements of IFRS 16 Leases?

a)

Interest expense on lease liabilities

b)

A reconciliation between the total of future minimum lease payments and their present value

c)

Total cash outflow for leases

d)

Income from sub-leasing right of use assets

62.

An entity should treat any difference between the measurement of an IAS 16 property and the measurement of an IAS 40 Investment Property at the date of transfer as an expense to the profit or loss.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

According to IFRS 16 Leases, any initial direct costs incurred by a lessee are added to the amount of the asset recognised in the statement of financial position.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property? An investment property is initially measured at cost, including transaction costs.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Under IFRS 15 Revenue from contracts with customers, which of the following is not given as a method that can be used to establish the standalone selling price of the separate performance obligations in a contract?

a)

Adjusted market assessment approach

b)

Simple cost approach

c)

Expected cost plus a margin approach

d)

Residual approach

66.

Under IAS 36 Impairment of assets, which one of the following statements best describes 'value in use'?

a)

The amount of cash or cash equivalents that could currently be obtained by selling an asset in an orderly disposal

b)

The present value of estimated future cash flows expected to arise from the continuing use of an asset and from its ultimate disposal

c)

The net amount which an entity expects to obtain for an asset at the end of its useful life

d)

The amount at which an asset could be exchanged between knowledgeable, willing parties in an arm's length transaction

67.

IAS 36 applies to which of the following assets?

a)

Property, plant, and equipment and Intangible assets

b)

Inventories

c)

Assets held for sale

d)

Financial assets and property plant and equipment and intangible assets

68.

According to IAS 38 Intangible assets, expenditure during the research phase of a project may sometimes be capitalised as an intangible asset.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

The lease payments shall be discounted using__________, if that rate can be readily determined.

a)

The lessee’s incremental borrowing rate

b)

Benchmark interest rate

c)

Interest rate implicit in the lease

d)

Weighted average cost of capital rate

e)

Internal rate of return

70.

According to IAS 36, value-in-use is

a)

The amount at which an asset is recognized in the statement of financial position

b)

The discounted present value of future cash flows arising from use of the asset and from its disposal.

c)

The higher of an asset’s fair value less cost to sell and its market value.

d)

The market value.

71.

According to IAS 36, if the fair value less costs to sell cannot be determined

a)

The carrying value of the asset remains the same

b)

The asset is not impaired

c)

The net realizable value is used

d)

The recoverable amount is the value-in-use

72.

According to IAS 2 Inventories, cost of factory management should be included in the cost of inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

A company sells goods with a warranty for the cost of repairs required in the first 2 months after purchase. Past experiences suggest: 88% of the goods sold will have no defects, 7% will have minor defects, 5% will have major defects. If minor defects were detected in all products sold, the cost of repairs will be £24,000; if major defects were detected in all products sold, the cost would be £200,000. What amount of provision should be made?

a)

11,000

b)

11,680

c)

12,000

d)

12,680

74.

Once recognized, intangible assets can be carried at

a)

Revalued amount less accumulated impairment.

b)

Cost less accumulated impairment and less accumulated amortization.

c)

Cost less accumulated impairment.

d)

Cost plus a notional increase in fair value since the intangible asset is acquired.

75.

Are the following statements true or false, according to IAS 38 Intangible assets?

1. Intangible assets cannot be treated as having an indefinite useful life.

2. Intangible assets with a finite useful life should be measured at cost and tested annually for impairment.

a)

1. False & 2. False

b)

1. False & 2. True

c)

1. True & 2. False

d)

1. True & 2. True

76.

According to IAS 40, transfer to or from investment property should only be made when there is a change in their use.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

An investment property shall be measured initially at its__________.

a)

Cost

b)

Fair value

c)

Deemed cost

d)

Value in use

78.

Custom duties are included in the cost of inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Under IFRS 3, the acquirer’s application of the recognition principle and conditions may result in recognising some assets and liabilities that the acquiree had not previously recognised as assets and liabilities in its financial statements.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

In cases of conflict, the requirements of the Framework prevail over those of the relevant IFRS.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The Conceptual Framework normally prevails over International Financial Reporting Standards where there is a conflict between the two. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which of the following statements about IAS 2 Inventories are correct?

a)

Production overheads should be included in cost on the basis of a company's actual level of activity in the period.

b)

In arriving at the net realizable value of inventories, settlement discounts must be deducted from the expected selling price.

c)

In arriving at the cost of inventories, FIFO and weighted average cost formulas are acceptable.

d)

It is permitted to value finished goods
inventories at materials plus labour cost
only, without adding production
overheads

83.

According to IAS2 Inventories, which one of the following lists consists only of items which may be included in the cost of inventories?

a)

Supervisor's wages, carriage inwards, carriage outwards, raw materials

b)

Raw materials, carriage inwards, costs of storage of finished goods, plant depreciation

c)

Plant depreciation, carriage inwards, raw materials, Supervisor's wages

d)

Carriage outwards, raw materials, Supervisor's wages, plant depreciation

84.

According to IFRS15, which one of the following criteria must be satisfied before revenue from the sale of goods should be recognised in profit or loss?

a)

The customer has no right to return

b)

The outcome of the transaction is certain

c)

A performance obligation has been met

d)

The transaction price has been settled in full by the customer

85.

TheHogbean Company is a construction company that has the following costs on its
contracts:
1)Project managers' costs
2) Purchase of supplies for construction work
3) Payments to subcontractors.
According to IFRS15 Revenue from contracts with customers, which costs may be included within contract costs?

a)

Cost (2) and cost (3) only

b)

Costs (1), (2) and (3)

c)

Cost (1) and cost (3) only

d)

Cost (1) and cost (2) only

86.

Which of the following disclosures is not required by IAS38?

a)

Fair value of similar intangible assets used by its competitors.

b)

Reconciliation of carrying amount at the beginning and the year-end.

c)

Contractual commitments for the acquisition of intangible assets.

d)

Useful lives of the intangible assets.

87.

If an investmentproperty is held at fair value, this must be applied to all of the
entity's investment properties

a)

T

b)

F

88.

According to IFRS15 Revenue from contracts with customers, which of the following factors is not taken into account when establishing the transaction price of a contract?

a)

Financing components

b)

Variable consideration in contract price

c)

Non-cash consideration

d)

Customer credit quality

89.

Inventory should be valued at the lowest of cost, net realisable value and
replacement cost

a)

T

b)

F

90.

IAS 16applies to bearer plants but it doesnot apply to the produce onbearer
plants

a)

T

b)

F

91.

IFRS15 allows the recognition of revenue through the duration of a contract for services if
it has been demonstrated that the performance obligation is met over time

a)

Revenueto date divided by total contract
revenue


b)

Advances received to date as a
percentage of the total amount
receivable


c)

Surveys of work performed


d)

Machine hours worked to date


92.

According to IAS12 Income taxes, deferred tax liabilities are the amounts of income taxes
payable in future periods in respect of taxable temporary differences

a)

T

b)

F

93.

According to IAS12 Income taxes, interest expense accrued but included in taxable profit
on a cash basis should be classified under deductible temporary differences

a)

T

b)

F

94.

In a period of rising prices, applying the FIFOmethod in determining cost of inventories
would result in a lower cost of sales and higher closing inventory than the AVCOmethod

a)

T

b)

F

95.

Are the following statements regarding the classification of items under IAS12 Income taxes true or false?

1. Interest expense accrued but included in taxable profit on a cash basis should be classified under deductible temporary differences.

2. Where accumulated depreciation on an asset is greater than accumulated tax depreciation, the amount should be classified under deductible temporary differences.

a)

1. False 2. False

b)

1. False 2. True

c)

1. True 2. False

d)

1. True 2. True

96.

What will be the appropriate accounting treatment to unsold goods held at the year end?

a)

Recording them as expense for the year

b)

Recording them as liability for the year

c)

Recording them as fixed asset for the year

d)

Recording them as current asset for the year

97.

Which ONE of the following terms best describes information in financial statements that is neutral?

a)

Understandable

b)

Reliable

c)

Relevant

d)

Unbiased

98.

Atruck held for resale should be considered asa non-current asset in the statement of
financial position

a)

T

b)

F

99.

An entity shall not recognise a contingent liability__________.

a)

Unless an entity has a present liability as a result of a past event

b)

Unless it is probable that an outflow of resources embodying economic benefits will be required to settle this liability

c)

Unless a reliable estimate can be made of the amount of this liability

d)

None of the above

100.

A contingent liability is not recognised in the statement of financial position.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

No disclosure of a contingent liability is required if the possibility of a transfer of
economic benefits arising is remote.

a)

T

b)

F

102.

Under the principles of IAS 16 Property, plant and equipment, which TWO of the followings should be included in the cost of an item of property, plant and equipment?

a)

Installation and assembly costs

b)

Costs of training staff on the new asset

c)

Apportioned general overhead costs

d)

Initial delivery and handling costs

103.

The existence of which of the following in the entity’s internal reporting does indicate that an asset may be impaired?

a)

Cash flows for acquiring the asset, or subsequent cash needs for operating or maintaining it, that are significantly lower than those originally budgeted

b)

Actual net cash flows or operating profit or loss flowing from the asset that are significantly worse than those budgeted

c)

A significant decline in budgeted net cash flows or operating profit, or a significant increase in budgeted loss, flowing from the asset

104.

A company's financial statements must disclose the accounting policies used in measuring inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE in accordance with IAS 40 Investment Property? Transfer from investment property to an IAS 16 property must be made at the FV of the IP at the date of the transfer.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

LIFO can be applied to measure cost of inventories.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

If the closing inventory is understated, then the current year's profit will be understated and next year's profit will be overstated.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Which one of the following terms best describes the removal of an asset from an entity’s statement of financial position?

a)

Write-off

b)

Depreciation

c)

Impairment

d)

Derecognition

109.

When an item is revalued, any accumulated depreciation at the date of the revaluation is treated in which of the following ways:

a)

Restated proportionately, with the change in the gross carrying amount of the asset, so that the carrying amount of the asset after revaluation equals its revalued amount.

b)

Eliminated against the gross carrying amount of the asset and the net amount restated to the revalued amount of the asset.

c)

Either A or B

d)

Neither A nor B

110.

According to IFRS 15 Revenue from contracts, which TWO of the following are indicators that a performance obligation is satisfied over time rather than at a point in time?

a)

The customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits as the entity performs

b)

The entity's performance creates or enhances an asset that the customer controls as it is created or enhanced

c)

The entity takes a substantial period of time to meet the performance obligation

d)

The entity is entitled to stage payments as the work progresses

111.

Which of the following shall a lessee classify in the statement of cash flows?

a)

Cash payments for the principal portion of the lease liability within operating activities

b)

Cash payments for the interest portion of the lease asset

c)

Short-term lease payments, payments for leases of low-value assets and variable lease payments not included in the measurement of the lease liability within financing activities

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

112.

According to IAS 16 Property, plant and equipment, the cost includes cash equivalents paid to acquire an asset.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Candy Plc received an invoice on 31 March 20X9 for maintenance work done on one of its machines. £21,000 of the cost is actually for a machine upgrade, which will improve the machine’s efficiency. However, the accountant charged the whole amount of the invoice to maintenance costs. This machine is depreciated at 20% per annum on a straight-line basis, with a proportional charge in the years of acquisition and disposal. Which amount will be understated in respect of Candy Plc’s profit for the year ended at 30 June 20X9?

a)

16,800

b)

21,000

c)

19,950

d)

19,600

114.

Under IFRS 3, at the acquisition date, the acquirer shall ________ the identifiable assets acquired and liabilities assumed as necessary to apply other IFRSs subsequently.

a)

Revaluate or classify

b)

Classify or designate

c)

Dispose or transfer

d)

Transfer or designate

115.

A non-erous contract is a contract in which ________ of meeting the obligations under the contract ________ the economic benefits expected to be received under it.

a)

Sunk costs; exceed

b)

Unavoidable costs; exceed

c)

Opportunity costs; are less than

d)

Avoidable costs; are less than

116.

Which of the following statements is true with regards to an investment property?

a)

An investment property generates cash flows largely independently of the other assets held by an entity

b)

The value in use of investment property is significantly higher than of owner-occupied property

c)

An investment property unlike owner-occupied property shall not be
depreciated over its useful life


d)

An investmentproperty unlike owner
occupied property shall always be
measured at its historicalcost


117.

ThePlaice Company acquired a new filing machine, the list price of which was $49,000.
Thesupplier allowed a trade discount of $1,700 off the list price. On delivery, the cost of
installing the machine in its desired location was $450. According to IAS16 Property,
plant and equipment, at what cost should the filing machine be measured in the financial
statements of Plaice?

a)

49,000

b)

49,450

c)

47,750

d)

47,300

118.

Which of the following does not define investment property?

a)

A. Property held to earn rentals


b)

Property held for capital appreciation


c)

.Property used in the production or
supply of goods or services