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NC Biology EOC final practice

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 5hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which best summarizes the role of DNA in the production of proteins?

a)

DNA moves to the cytoplasm to build proteins

b)

DNA transports amino acids to the ribosomes to make proteins

c)

DNA contains the instructions used to make proteins

d)

DNA breaks hydrogen bonds between amino acids

2.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a a result of cellular respiration

3.

Plant cells are able to produce their own food. This process happens in which structure?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

4.

These diagrams show a variety of cells from the same organism. How can cells from the same organism have such different shapes and functions?

a)

As each cell differentiates, the DNA changes so that each type of cell has different DNA once it reaches maturity.

b)

Mutations in the cells' nuclei lead to new combinations of DNA, resulting in different shapes and functions in the different types of cells.

c)

During differentiation, different parts of the DNA in each type of cell are activated, resulting in the different structure and function of the cells.

d)

During differentiation, different types of cells produce proteins which destroy the nonactive DNA, leading to cell specialization.

5.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells.

b)

It regulates body temperature.

c)

It maintains water balance.

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells.

6.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

7.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products.

8.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

The protein produced will have a different identity.

b)

The protein produced will have a coiled shape.

c)

The protein produced will produce excess nitrogen.

d)

The protein produced will produce excess water.

9.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

10.

How mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

both have two cell divisions

b)

both require DNA replication

c)

both produce gametes

d)

both involve crossing over

11.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose --> oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen ---> carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water ---> carbon dioxide + glucose

12.

Which transgenic organism has been used to clean up oil spills?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungus

c)

jellyfish

d)

paramecia

13.

Multicellular eukaryotic autotrophs belong to which kingdom?

a)

Animalia

b)

Fungi

c)

Plantae

d)

Protista

14.

Salivary amylase is an enzyme in humans that breaks down starches. What substance would humans have difficulty digesting without this enzyme?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

15.

Which best explains why the rate of biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The activation energy increases

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms

d)

The bonds between substrates are broken

16.

What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a nucleus

17.

How are mitosis and meiosis similar?

a)

Both have two cell divisions

b)

both require DNA replication

c)

both produce gametes

d)

both involve crossing over

18.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bond between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

19.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)

the protein produced will have a different identity

b)

the protein produced will have a coiled shape

c)

the protein produced will produce excess nitrogen

d)

the protein produced will produce excess water

20.

What would most likely be produced when a cell with eight chromosomes undergoes mitosis?

a)

two cells with four chromosomes each

b)

two cells with eight chromosomes each

c)

four cells with four chromosomes each

d)

four cells with eight chromosomes each

21.

Which adaptation do ferns, gymnosperms and angiosperms have that mosses do not have?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

flowers

c)

stomata

d)

vascular tissue

22.

What activity most contributes to the depletion of the ozone layer?

a)

burning fossil fuels

b)

release of CFC's

c)

deforestation

d)

overuse of fertilizers

23.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

24.

The cell theory is...

a)

All living organisms are composed of at least one cell.

b)

building blocks of life. All cells come from

c)

All of the above

d)

Cells arise only from previously existing cells.

25.

A prokaryotic cell is...

a)

Cells that don't contain a nucleus but do contain other membrane-bound organelles.

b)

Cells that contain a nucleus but no other membrane-bound organelles.

c)

Cells that contain a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Cells that don't contain a nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelles.

26.

A Eukaryotic cell is...

a)

Cell that has no membrane.

b)

Cell with no membrane-bound organelles.

c)

A cell containing a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.

d)

A cell containing a nucleus and other nucleus-bound organelle.

27.

The cell membrane main purpose is...

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Energy Production

c)

Locomotive

d)

Looking good

28.
Which symbiotic relationship is described by one individual benefiting and the other being neither harmed nor benefited?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Competition
29.
Where in the cell does cell respiration occur?
a)
chloroplast 
b)
central vacuole 
c)
mitochondria
d)
cell membrane
30.
Which of the following is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? 
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cell Wall 
d)
Ribosomes 
31.
What plant organelle is used to make sugars?
a)
Cell wall 
b)
Mitochondria 
c)
Chloroplast 
d)
Vacuole
32.
Which part of the cell is often called "the brain of the cell"?
a)
nuclear membrane
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
33.
Which organelle uses energy from sunlight to make sugar?
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
vacuoles
34.
Controls what enters/leaves a cell
a)
cell membrane
b)
Nuclear membrane
c)
cell wall
d)
cytoplasm
35.
A coyote captures, kills, and eats a rabbit. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
36.
The flower of the yucca plant provides the only location where the yucca moth can lay her eggs. In the process, the moth pollinates the yucca flower. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
37.
A tapeworm lives in the intestines of a dog. It absorbs food the dog has eaten and grows larger in the process. The dog becomes weaker from malnutrition. What type of symbiotic relationship is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
38.

True or False: The main function of a lipid is to store energy.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The units of protein are

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Fatty acid

d)

Peptides

40.

Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

41.

Where does transcription take place in EUKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

42.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
43.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
44.

Transcribe the following DNA sequence into RNA:


AAT TAG GGC TCG

a)

AAT TAG GGC TCG

b)

TTA ATC CCG AGC

c)

UUA AUC CCG AGC

d)

TTU UTC CCG UGC

45.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
46.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
47.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
48.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
49.

Which RNA carries the message from the DNA molecule out of the nucleus?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

50.

How many nucleotides equal make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

51.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
52.

Nucleic acids are the building blocks of...

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Atoms

d)

Nucleotides

53.

What is composed of several food chains in an ecosystem that intersect and depend on one another?

a)

niche

b)

feeding level

c)

energy pyramid

d)

food web

54.

What is the ultimate source of energy in any food chain?

a)

the sun

b)

producers

c)

consumers

d)

decomposers

55.

Which organisms can be found at the first, or lowest, trophic level?

a)

herbivores

b)

carnivores

c)

heterotrophs

d)

autotrophs

56.

Herbivores eat only meat.

a)

true

b)

false

57.

Which statement describes an autotroph?

a)

It is an organism that makes its own food.

b)

It is an organism that eats other organisms.

c)

It is an organism that eats decaying matter.

d)

None of the above.

58.

Weather (such as rain) and soil conditions are considered to be part of the ____________ factors of an ecosystem.

a)

biotic

b)

antibiotic

c)

abiotic

d)

biomass

59.

All the nonliving things in an environment are called the ________ factors.

a)

abiotic

b)

biotic

c)

ecological

d)

inorganic

60.

What is an example of a biotic factor?

a)

water

b)

grass

c)

soil

61.

Which of these phrases describes the biotic factors of an ecosystem?

a)

the number of individual organisms in each trophic level of an ecosystem

b)

any living part of an environment

c)

an organism that eats only meat

62.

Which of these is most commonly the largest structure inside an animal cell?

a)

endoplasm

b)

nucelus

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

63.

How do mitochondria regulate energy in a cell?

a)

Mitochondria transfer energy between cells as energy is needed.

b)

Mitochondria convert energy in nutrients into usable energy.

c)

Mitochondria absorb and convert energy from the sun.

d)

Mitochondria convert energy from the nucleus into usable energy.

64.

Which of these is NOT a unique structure to plant cells?

a)

cell wall

b)

central vacuole

c)

chloroplas

d)

nucleus

65.
Which of the following is the smallest unit of life that can carry out all life functions?
a)
the mitochondria
b)
the vacuoles
c)
the nucleus
d)
the cell
66.
What is the function of the cell nucleus found in both plant and animal cells?
a)
to produce energy
b)
to control cell activity
c)
to remove waste products
d)
to allow molecules to enter the cell
67.

All cells need energy (ATP) to function. Which cell organelle is responsible for producing energy in the cell? "The Powerhouse"

a)

chloroplasts

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuoles

68.

Where do new cells come from?

a)

other cells

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi body

d)

macrophages

69.
Communities of living things interacting with non-living things.
a)
ecosystem
b)
community
c)
sphere
d)
population
70.
The parts of cells.
a)
moelcules
b)
organelles
c)
cells
d)
tissues
71.
What is a habitat? 
a)
The place or environment where a plant or animal grows most quickly. 
b)
The place or environment where a plant or animal natural or normally lives and grows. 
c)
The place or environment where a plant or animal are most numerous. 
72.

Mutations can be negative because

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its environment.

d)

They can affect offspring.

73.

Mutations can benefit humans because they can:

a)

Cause illness

b)

Make an organism more suited to live in its environment.

c)

Make organisms live shorter lives

d)

Cause organisms to grow extra limbs.

74.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

75.

A mutation can occur if a base pair is ____________, deleted or substituted for another.

a)

modified

b)

added

c)

transferred

76.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

77.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
78.

Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________

a)

reproduce

b)

become extinct

79.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
80.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
81.
The separation of a group of individuals from the rest of the population is referred to as 
a)
genetic drift
b)
natural selection
c)
geographic isolation
d)
survival of the fittest
82.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
83.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
84.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a)

the wings of a red-tailed hawk

b)

the tail of a house cat

c)

the fins of sharks

d)

the wings of a penguin

85.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)

light 

b)

dark

c)

they would be 50:50 due to random variation

86.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
87.

The _____________ is a gel-like fluid that fills plant and animal cells. It holds the organelles in place and gives each cell its shape.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Chloroplast

88.

A student noticed that the freshwater plant, Elodea, produced bubbles when placed in direct light. What could the student most likely conclude?

a)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

c)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration

d)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a a result of cellular respiration

89.

Which statement best explains how sweating during exercise maintains homeostasis?

a)

It regulates mineral concentrations in cells.

b)

It regulates body temperature.

c)

It maintains water balance.

d)

It maintains sugar balance in cells.

90.

Which statement best explains why animals are considered heterotrophic?

a)

They are able to produce food through the process of photosynthesis.

b)

They are able to produce food through the process of respiration.

c)

They are able to obtain nutrients by decomposing plant and animal tissue.

d)

They are able to obtain nutrients by consuming other organisms or their products.

91.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose --> oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water --> glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen ---> carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water ---> carbon dioxide + glucose

92.

Which best explains why the rate of a biochemical reaction decreases at high temperatures?

a)

The activation energy increases.

b)

The shape of the enzyme changes.

c)

The enzyme-substrate complex forms.

d)

The bonds between substrates are broken.

93.
Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme’s function?
a)
Enzymes are specific to a substrate
b)
 Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.
c)
Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules.
d)
Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.
94.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

95.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
96.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Equilibrium
97.
In a solution of water and salt, salt is considered the _______.
a)
solvent
b)
solute
c)
solution
98.
In a scenario, salt is placed into a bowl of water.  What is the solvent?
a)
salt
b)
water
c)
saltwater
99.
HYPO means...
a)
Low
b)
High
c)
Equal
d)
Fat
100.
 If the volume of a cell increases when it is placed in a solution, that solution is said to be __________ to the cell
a)
 hypertonic
b)
subatomic
c)
 isotonic
d)
 hypotonic 
101.
An animal cell placed in a hypertonic (salty) solution will
a)
Shrink
b)
Swell
c)
Stay the same
102.

If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into a glass of water with 20% salt, the solution is _______ compared to the cell.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

103.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
104.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
105.
An ISOTONIC solution has a(n) ______________ concentration of solute (dissolved stuff) than inside the cell.
a)
lower
b)
equal
c)
higher
106.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
107.
Low to High
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
108.
The movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration is
a)
diffusion
b)
cell division
active transport
c)
active transport
d)
tonicity
109.
Active transport requires
a)
energy
b)
the nucleus
c)
chloroplasts
d)
lysosomes
110.
Another term for equilibrium is...
a)
Not enough
b)
Too little
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Too much
111.
A cell will _____________________ in a hypertonic solution.
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
will not change
d)
will explode
112.
A cell will __________________ in a hypotonic solution.
a)
swell and perhaps burst (lyse)
b)
shrink
c)
the size of the cell will not change
d)
the size of the cell will change from large to small and from small to large
113.

The chemical formula for glucose is C6H12O6 Which type of molecule is it?

a)

protein

b)

carbohydrate

c)

nucleic acid

114.

Which function is performed by a nucleic acids?

a)

provide energy

b)

function as enzymes

c)

store genetic information

d)

form structural materials like muscles and bones

115.

Four different types of macromolecules and their characteristics are listed below. What type of macromolecule is D?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

116.

The effect of temperature on the relative rate of enzyme activity is shown.

Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the information in the graph?

a)

The maximum rate of human respiration occurs at about 57°C.

b)

The maximum rate of human digestion occurs at about 45°C.

c)

Growth can be controlled by the action of an enzyme.

d)

Temperature can influence the action of an enzyme.

117.

A digestive enzyme that is released into the small intestines by the pancreas is used to break down proteins. Data from a chemical reaction with the digestive enzyme are shown in the graph below.

According to the graph, which conclusion can be made about this digestive enzyme?

a)

It functions most efficiently from pH 7.0 to pH 9.0.

b)

It will work best if pH levels increase above pH 10.0.

c)

It breaks down the most proteins between pH 1.0 and pH 5.0.

d)

It is effective at breaking down proteins from pH 1.0 to pH 10.0.

118.

Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of macromolecules?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbon

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrates

e)

Nucleic Acid

119.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of short-term energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

120.

Which macromolecule stores energy long-term?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids/Fats

d)

Nucleic Acids

121.

Salmon and other types of fish are sources of what 2 macromolecules?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids/Fats

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acids

122.

Macromolecules are made up of small repeating subunits which are called ___.

a)

polymers

b)

monomers

c)

enantiomers

d)

carbomers

123.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to: 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
124.
____ is a process that brings CO2 back to land from the atmosphere.  If a plant is submerged in water, what type of gas bubbles are given off?______
a)
Photosynthesis, CO2
b)
Photosynthesis, O2
c)
Cellular Respiration, O2
d)
Cellular Respiration, CO2
125.
___ are made up of ____  _____ and function in building and repairing cells, give you your characteristics; form bone and muscle, & transport materials.
a)
Proteins, amino acids
b)
Lipids, fatty acids
c)
Carbohydrates, simple sugars
d)
Nucleic Acids, nitrogen bases
126.
A(n)  _______ shows interconnected food chains.
a)
energy pyramid
b)
tropic level
c)
food web
d)
feeding diagram
127.
In a trophic level, ____ always have the most energy and the most biomass.  ____ level consumers always have the least energy.  Decomposers are located on the ____ of the trophic level diagram.
a)
producers, top, side
b)
top level consumers, primary, bottom
c)
producers, primary consumers, side
d)
top level consumers, producers, bottom
128.
A(n) ___ chain shows the flow of ___.  It always starts with the ____ and ends with the ____.  Examples of decomposers are _____ and fungi.
a)
food, energy, prey,  predator, bacteria
b)
food, energy, producers, decomposer, bacteria
c)
energy,food, prey, predator decomposers, protists
d)
energy, food, producers, decomposer, bacteria
129.
Only ___ of energy is given to the next trophic level.  ___ is eliminated as waste heat.
a)
10%, 90%
b)
90%, 10%
c)
25%, 75%
d)
75%, 25%
130.
Autotrophs use ____ to produce _____.
a)
O2, glucose
b)
CO2, glucose
c)
O2, deoxyribose
d)
CO2, deoxyribose
131.
________ releases CO2 into the atmosphere.
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Cellular Respiration
c)
Anaerobic Respiration
d)
Fermentation
132.
The two reactants for cellular respiration are ____ and ____ which produces ____, water, and ATP (energy).
a)
carbon dioxide, glucose, oxygen
b)
carbon dioxide, water, oxygen
c)
oxygen, glucose, carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen, water, carbon dioxide
133.
The process of breaking down glucose in the presence of oxygen is called _____ respiration. this takes places in the _____ and produces more ATP than ______.
a)
aerobic, mitochondria, anaerobic 
b)
anaerobic, cytoplasm, aerobic
c)
aerobic, cytoplasm, anaerobic
d)
anaerobic, mitochnodria, aerobic
134.

"The modification of characteristics in an organism through the manipulation of genes," describes which term?

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Gel electrophoresis

d)

Cloning

135.

When fragments of DNA are connected from different sources, this creates:

a)

A plasmid

b)

A clone

c)

Recombinant DNA

d)

Fragmented DNA

136.

Bacterial DNA that is often circular or in the shape of a ring is called a:

a)

Clone

b)

Plasmid

c)

Fragment

d)

Recombinant DNA

137.

An alternative to genetic engineering is carefully choosing the parent organisms and breeding them to arrive at desired traits in the offspring. This is called:

a)

Genetic engineering

b)

Bacterial Transformation

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

138.

Organisms that have had DNA from other organisms inserted into their DNA to produce certain traits are called:

a)

Plasmids

b)

Clones

c)

Transgenic organisms

d)

Recombinant organisms

139.

Which of the following is a medical application of genetic engineering?

a)

Inserting human DNA into bacterial DNA for insulin production

b)

Manipulating of DNA to produce glowing monkeys

c)

Engineering crops for greater nutritional content

d)

Modifying genes to achieve a desirable phenotype

140.

Which of the following means of genetic engineering would have the greatest impact on world hunger?

a)

Inserting human DNA into bacterial DNA for insulin production

b)

Manipulating DNA in trees to require less water

c)

Engineering crops for greater nutritional content

d)

Modifying genes to achieve a desirable phenotype

141.

Inserting human DNA into a bacterial plasmid to create insulin-producing bacteria is an example of:

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial Transformation

c)

Cloning

d)

Selective breeding

142.

Crops are often genetically engineered for certain traits such as:

a)

Longer shelf life

b)

Better appearance

c)

Increased crop yield

d)

Shorter growing season

e)

Insect resistance

143.

Crops are often genetically engineered for improved traits. Such crops and organisms are called:

a)

Genetically modified organisms

b)

Clones

c)

Transformed

d)

Nutritionally improved

144.

What was the purpose of the Human Genome Project?

a)

To develop the first human clones

b)

To map out the entire human genome

c)

To create new antibiotics

d)

To improve stem cell research

145.

The engineering of organisms that are genetically identical is known as:

a)

Cloning

b)

Bacterial transformation

c)

Selective breeding

d)

Gene therapy

146.

Using genetic engineering to treat or cure diseases is called:

a)

Bacterial transformation

b)

Selective breeding

c)

Gene therapy

d)

Alternative medicine

147.

Despite the successful cloning of human embryos, much of this research has been halted due to:

a)

National laws prohibiting human cloning

b)

Insufficient funding

c)

Lack of experimental research

d)

Ethical concerns

148.

Crops may be genetically modified for pesticide resistance. Which of the following practices is then unnecessary?

a)

Spraying with pesticides

b)

Irrigating crops

c)

Rotating crops

d)

Harvesting

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