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Atomic structure and thermochemistry test

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In an exothermic process the surrounding looses heat. 
a)
True
b)
False
2.
In an endothermic reaction the system is releasing energy.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
As someone is running on the track they begin to perspire.  If the runner is our system, are they endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic process
b)
Exothermic process
4.

During an endothermic reaction in a beaker if we are part of the surroundings and touched the beaker, it would feel _______.

a)

Warm

b)

Cold

c)

Bubbly

d)

Damp

5.
H2 + Cl2 --> 2 HCl + 1845 kJ
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic 
b)
Exothermic
6.
H2 + 2 C + N2 + 270.3 kJ --> 2 HCN
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic 
b)
Exothermic
7.
The transfer of thermal energy between objects of different temperatures is called...
a)
temperature
b)
heat
c)
internal energy
d)
none of these
8.
Thermal energy always moves:
a)
From a high temperature object to a lower temperature object.
b)
From a lower temperature object to a higher temperature object.
c)
From an object with lower kinetic energy to an object with higher kinetic energy.
d)
From an object of higher mass to an object of lower mass.
9.
The temperature of a glass of cold water will eventually...
a)
Match the temperature of the surrounding environment.
b)
Always be colder than the surrounding environment.
c)
Become warmer than the surrounding environment.
d)
Never change temperature.
10.

This potential energy diagram (graph) represents an _________ change.

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

11.

A change in enthalpy, ΔH, for a reaction is described as energy absorbed or released as  ________.

a)

light.

b)

heat.

c)

sound.

d)

pressure.

12.
Heat is measured in 
a)
joules
b)
grams
c)
degrees celcius
13.

Energy can not be created or destroyed, it can only be transferred refers to the ______________. This is also known as the First Law of Thermodynamics.

a)

law of conservation of energy

b)

law of conservation of mass

c)

life facts

d)

law of conservation of chemistry

14.

A chemical reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings is said to be __________ and has a __________ ΔH at constant pressure.

a)

endothermic; positive

b)

endothermic; negative

c)

exothermic; negative

d)

exothermic; positive

15.

During an exothermic reaction, heat content in the surroundings increases because

a)

heat energy is destroyed during reactions

b)

the reaction absorbs heat energy

c)

the energy contained in the reactants is lower then the products

d)

the energy contained in the products is lower than the reactants

16.

The graph represents the uniform heating of a substance, starting with the substance as a solid below its melting point. Which line segment listed below represents an increase in potential energy and no change in average kinetic energy?

a)

Line segment AB

b)

Line segment BC

c)

Line segment CD

d)

Line segment EF

17.
Exothermic reactions are reactions that
a)
release heat
b)
do not involve heat
c)
absorb heat
d)
take place instantaneously
18.
Which of the following is an endothermic process?
a)
solid to gas
b)
liquid to solid
c)
solid to liquid
d)
gas to liquid
19.
What does temperature measure?
a)
Heat
b)
ºC
c)
Kinetic Energy
d)
Thermal Energy
20.
If two objects have different temperatures, heat will flow from the warmer object to the cooler one UNTIL ____________
a)
one reaches a temperature of zero
b)
they both have an equal temperature
c)
one runs out of energy
21.

Define ΔH

a)

Change in Specific Heat; Heat by one Degree Celsius

b)

Change in Temperature; the energy we calculate; Degree Celsius

c)

Change in Enthalpy; the energy/heat we calculate

d)

Change in Time; time travel

22.

Define Exothermic

a)

Energy is released; ΔH is negative; Going from Gas to Liquid, Liquid to Solid

b)

Energy is absorbed; ΔH is positive; Going from Gas to Liquid, Liquid to Solid

c)

Energy is released; ΔH is positive; Going from Solid to Liquid, Liquid to Gas

d)

Energy is absorbed; ΔH is negative; Going from Gas to Liquid, Liquid to Solid

23.

Specific Heat is..

a)

the temperature initial minus temperature final

b)

the amount of heat/energy required to raise 1 gram of a substance by 1°C (or K) aka "C"

c)

the temperature final minus temperature initial

d)

the item in a system with given weight in grams

24.

Is this phase change representing an exothermic or endothermic reaction?

GAS to LIQUID

a)

Exothermic

b)

Endothermic

25.

Is the phase change representing an exothermic or endothermic reaction?

SOLID to LIQUID

a)

Endothermic

b)

Exothermic

26.
What kind of graph is this?
a)
endothermic
b)
exothermic
27.
The diagram represents which type of reaction
a)
endothermic
b)
exothermic
28.

Which of the following would have the highest entropy?

a)

A cold solid

b)

A hot liquid

c)

A hot gas

d)

A cold gas

29.

Which law states "The entropy of a closed system is always increasing"?

a)

Zeroth Law

b)

1st Law

c)

2nd Law

d)

3rd law

30.

Which law states "Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only be transformed"?

a)

Zeroth Law

b)

1st Law

c)

2nd Law

d)

3rd law

31.

Which law explains the relationship between temperature and entropy?

a)

Zeroth Law

b)

1st Law

c)

2nd Law

d)

3rd Law

32.

Which law of Thermodynamics helps to explain how car engines work?

a)

Zeroth Law

b)

1st Law

c)

2nd Law

d)

3rd Law

33.

Which type of system is always used in the Laws of Thermodynamics?

a)

Open Systems

b)

Closed Systems

c)

Isolated Systems

d)

Skeletal System (obviously)

34.

Which type of system is depicted here?

a)

Open System

b)

Closed System

c)

Isolated System

35.

Which is the best description of equilibrium?

a)

When two systems weigh the same amount as each other

b)

The equal exchange between reactants and products in open systems

c)

The equal exchange between reactants and products in closed systems

d)

When reactants and products become equal to each other

36.

Which would have the highest entropy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
37.

What is entropy?

a)

Disorder

b)

Not disorder

38.
ΔH value in an endothermic reaction is a positive number.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
ΔH value in an endothermic reaction is a positive number.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
What does "ΔH" stand for? 
a)
A change in heat 
b)
A change in hydrogen
c)
A change in how much Helium the Sun releases
d)
A change in heat during an endothermic reaction
41.
What does "ΔT" stand for?  
a)
A change in time
b)
A change in temperature in degrees C
c)
A change in mass
d)
A change in temperature in degrees F
42.
What is specific heat capacity (Cp)? 
a)
The amount of energy it takes for a substance to start a combustion reaction
b)
The amount of heat it takes to raise the temperature of an amount of something by a certain temperature 
c)
The specific way to heat something in capacity
d)
The amount of heat it takes to raise the temperature by at least one degree
43.
Why do we study Specific Heat Capacity and Thermodynamics in Chemistry? 
a)
Because Hagerman is awesome
b)
Because heat is a form of energy that continually moves throughout our world
c)
Because the heat is created and destroyed constantly
d)
Because heat energy is released and absorbed by nature 
44.

What is a subatomic particle with a positive charge that is in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

neutron

b)

proton

c)

electron

d)

valence electron

45.

What is the center of an atom containing protons and neutrons?

a)

nucleus

b)

neutron

c)

proton

d)

electron cloud

46.

The atomic number identifies the number of __________.

a)

electrons

b)

atoms

c)

protons

d)

neutrons

47.

What is the mass number of this atom?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

48.
Most of the mass in an atom is made up of _____________________?
a)
protons and electrons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
neutrons and electrons
d)
electrons and quarks
49.

How many electrons does this atom have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

50.

How many electrons does this atom have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

10

51.

A very few alpha particles were deflected almost straight back by the gold foil.

a)

Rutherford

b)

Dalton

c)

Democritus

d)

Bohr

52.

1. What element is represented in this Bohr Model?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Aluminum

d)

Lithium

53.

An electron emits or absorbs energy when it jumps from one orbit or energy level to another.

a)

Dalton

b)

Rutherford

c)

Bohr

d)

Democritus

54.
Subatomic particle with a charge of 0
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
quark
55.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

56.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
57.

The smallest particle of an element.

a)

Element

b)

Molecule

c)

Atom

58.

These are found in the nucleus and have a neutral charge.

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

59.
These will determine what element an atom is. 
a)
number of neutrons
b)
number of electrons
c)
number of atoms 
d)
number of protons 
60.

The number 16 for the atomic element sulfur is the

a)

ionic number

b)

isotope

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

61.

How many protons does sulfur have?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

48

d)

12

62.

How many electrons does sulfur have

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

12

63.

In an atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of ____________.

a)

energy levels

b)

neutrons

c)

neurons

d)

electrons

64.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
65.
An atom of the element with atomic number 6 always has _____.
a)
six protons in its nucleus
b)
an atomic mass of six
c)
more than six neutrons
d)
six electron clouds
66.
What are subatomic particles? 
a)
the nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
positive charge
d)
electrons, protons, and neutrons
67.
How many protons are in this element?
a)
79
b)
196
c)
117
d)
Cannot be determined
68.
How many electrons does potassium K contain? (click to see image)
a)
19
b)
39
c)
20
d)
40
69.

How many neutrons does a Hydrogen atom have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

70.

How many electrons does an Iodine atom have?

a)

53

b)

126

c)

73

d)

179

71.

How many neutrons does an Oxygen atom have?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

24

d)

7.999

72.

How many electrons does a Copper atom have?

a)

63

b)

29

c)

92

d)

34

73.
How many protons are in Beryllium?
a)
4
b)
9
c)
5
d)
2
74.

Rutherford's model of atom based on -------------- experiment

a)

Alpha ray scattering experiment

b)

Cathode ray Discharge tube experiment

c)

Millicken oil drop experiment

75.

pick out the correct statements related to Rutherford's model

a)

Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths called orbits

b)

Electrons revolve around the nucleus in certain selected circular paths called orbits

c)

Most of the space in the atom is empty

d)

the energy of a particular shell is a constant

76.

Plank's Quantum theory is based on

a)

Wave nature

b)

Particle nature

c)

Dual nature

77.

In Photoelectric Effect ,number of electrons ejected is proportional to --------------------------

(a)  

78.

Give the name of spectral series of Hydrogen comes in the UV region

(a)  

79.

---------------- the equation used to calculate radius of the orbit

a)

rn=a0n2

b)

rn=a0n

c)

rn=a0/n2

d)

rn=a0/n

80.

What are the possible values for azimuthal quantum number

a)

0 to (n-1)

b)

-l to +l

c)

1,2,3,4------

81.

Identify the law stated below

"No two electrons in an atom can have the set of all four quantum numbers"

(a)  

82.

Pick out the correct configuration of Cu

a)

4s23d9

b)

4s13d10

c)

4s23d4

d)

4s13d5

83.

Give the name of the orbital whose quantum number values are the following

n=5 l=2 m= -1

a)

5d

b)

5s

c)

5p

d)

5f

84.

When electron falls from an excited state to a ground state, (a)   is emitted by the electron.

85.

If a photon hits an atom, the electron will ___________ the energy. It is promoted from a _____ energy level to a ______ energy level.

a)

absorb; lower; higher

b)

emit; lower; higher

c)

absorb; higher; lower

d)

emit; higher; lower

86.

_____________________ is the lowest energy level an electron will occupy in an atom.

a)

ground state

b)

excited state

87.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

The energy of a photon is directly related to its wavelength

b)

A line spectrum is produced when light is emitted from an excited atom

c)

The energy of a photon is directly related to its frequency

d)

Light is composed of photons with specific amounts of energy

88.

Neils Bohr's atomic theory is similar to the concept of the

a)

solar system

b)

circles with dots

c)

spinning wheel

d)

None of the above

89.

According to Bohr, the energy absorbed by an electron upon excitation comes in a fixed amount called

a)

exact energy

b)

fixed energy

c)

quantized energy

d)

None of the above

90.
How are electrons arranged in an atom?
a)
In groups of five
b)
In energy levels
c)
By color
d)
By shape
91.

Soon after the electron absorbs energy, this energy is released in a form of light or photon. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

92.

When the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength ___________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

93.

A wave with a low energy has a ___________ frequency.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

medium

94.

What is a photon?

a)

A ray from the sun

b)

An electron

c)

A particle with no mass that can be thought of as a bundle of energy

d)

A particle that has the ability to blow up an atom

95.

Can electrons exist between energy levels/orbits?

a)

Yes

b)

No

96.

According to Bohr, what two things do electrons have to have enough energy to do?

a)

Resist the energy given to it by a photon

b)

Stay in constant motion around its orbital

c)

Resist the attraction from the positive nucleus

d)

Jump between energy levels

97.

Mass of proton is

a)

1.6726×10^–27g

b)

9.1095×10^–31kg

c)

1.6726×10^–24 g

d)

5.4858amu

98.

Which atomic orbital has highest energy

a)

4d

b)

4f

c)

5s

d)

5p

99.

The value of four quantum numbers of valence electron of an element are

n = 4, = 0, m = 0 and s = +1/2. The element is

a)

Li

b)

K

c)

Sc

d)

Na

100.

The atomic number of an element is 30. How many s, p and d-electrons respectively it possesses in ground state?

a)

8, 19, 8

b)

8, 12, 10

c)

10, 15, 10

d)

8, 18, 11

101.

The principal quantum number of an atom is related to

a)

Orientation of orbital in space

b)

Spin of electron around its own axis

c)

Size of the orbital

d)

Shape of orbita

102.

The third electron of Li atom will have quantum number values

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

103.

The ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom can be represented as

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

104.

The set of elements which violates Auf bau principle is

a)

Cr and Co

b)

Cu and Co

c)

Cr and Cu

d)

Cr and M

105.

The shape of 1s, 2s and 3s is

a)

Different

b)

Linear

c)

Similar

d)

Flate

106.

The value of n = 3. What are probable values of azimuthal quantum number ‘ ’

a)

0,1,2,3

b)

0,1,2

c)

0,1

d)

1,2,3,4

107.

Which one is the correct order of frequency of radiations?

a)

-ray > UV rays > red rays> microwave rays

b)

UV-rays > -rays > red rays > microwave rays

c)

Microwave rays > red rays > UV rays> -ray

d)

Microwave rays > UV rays > red rays > -ray

108.

A photon of light moving with energy 3.3 × 10&–30 J. The frequency of photon is

(h = 6.6 × 10^–34 Js)

a)

500 Hz

b)

0.5 × 10^–30 Hz

c)

5000 Hz

d)

2.5 × 10^–4 Hz

109.

The nucleon number of 8O−2

is:

a)

8

b)

10

c)

16

d)

24

110.

In a chemical specie there are 26 protons, 24 electrons and 30 neutrons, it may be:

a)

Fe

b)

Mn

c)

Fe^+2

d)

Zn^+2

111.

The number of unpaired d electrons retained in Cu^2+ (At.Number of Cu = 29) ions is

a)

2

b)

5

c)

1

d)

0

112.

Which is incorrect statement

a)

e/m value of electron is 1.7588×10^11 C/kg

b)

Protons are deflected in electric field

c)

Protons produce flashes on striking Zns plate

d)

Wave number ( v ) is reciprocal of frequency (v)

113.

Which of the following fundamental subatomic particle is different in number than others in the sodium atom?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

All are equal

114.

Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f

orbital?

a)

n = 4, l= 3, m =+4

b)

n = 4, l= 3, m =+1

c)

n = 4, l= 4, m =− 4

d)

n = 3, l= 2, m =− 2

115.

Which is not deflected by magnetic field

a)

Neutron

b)

Proton

c)

Alpha particles

d)

Electron

116.

The electronic configuration of a dipositive ion is 2, 8, 17 and atomic mass is 65. The number of neutrons in the nucleus would

a)

38

b)

65

c)

36

d)

29

117.

Match list I and list II and pick the correct matching from given codes

a)

A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2

b)

A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

c)

A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1

d)

A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4

118.

With the increase in value of principal quantum number which one will not change

a)

Size of s-orbitals

b)

Energy of p-orbitals

c)

Shape of p-orbitals

d)

Size of p-orbitals

119.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

120.

Total fundamental sub atomic particles are present in hydride ion (H–):

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

121.

The electrons in a sub-shell are filled according to formula

a)

2n^2

b)

2(2l+1)

c)

2l+1

d)

n^2

122.

Deduce the number of protons, neutrons, electrons and nucleons from the given

specie

39

19 K

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

123.

Which of the following is the shape of one of the d-orbital?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

124.

The positive charge in nucleus of an atom is due to a fundamental particle called

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Neutrino

125.

The shapes of orbitals can be determined by

a)

Spin quantum number

b)

Azimuthal quantum number

c)

Principal quantum number

d)

Magnetic quantum number

126.

The number of degenerate orbitals in p–subshell is

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

127.

The isoelectronic pair like argon is

a)

Cl^-, Ca^2+

b)

F^-,Na^+

c)

Cl^-,Na^+

d)

He,Ne

128.

The total number of orbitals containing electrons, if atomic number of the element is 19

a)

9

b)

6

c)

10

d)

16

129.

A(An) ______ is a region of space in which there is a high probability of finding an electron in an atom

a)

Shell

b)

Nucleus

c)

Atomic orbital

d)

Main energy level

130.

Cathode rays and canal rays when pass through electric field they wil

a)

Deflect towards negatively charged plate only

b)

Deflect towards positively and negatively charged plates respectively

c)

Deflect towards positively charged plate only

d)

Not deflect towards negatively charged plate and positively charge plate

131.

Atoms of two different elements having same nucleon number but different proton number are called

a)

Isotopes

b)

Isoelectronic

c)

Isotones

d)

Isobars

132.

A di-valent cation having 10 electrons and 24 nucleon number. The number of

neutrons ar

a)

11

b)

12

c)

10

d)

24

133.

The wavelength of Lyman Series lies in the region

a)

U.V

b)

Visible

c)

I.R

d)

X.rays

134.

Positive ions are formed from the neutral atom by the loss of

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Positrons

135.

e/m value for positive rays is maximum for

a)

Helium

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

136.

Lines of Paschen series are produced when electrons jump from higher orbit to

_______ orbit

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

137.

According to Bohr’s atomic model, radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is

a)

0.529Å

b)

2.11 Å

c)

4.0 Å

d)

0.52 m

138.

An orbital can have maximum two electrons with opposite spins according to

a)

Heisenberg’s Principle

b)

Auf Bau Principle

c)

Hund’s rule

d)

Pauli exclusion Principle

139.

Which particle has a greater wavelength

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Alpha-particle

d)

Electron

140.

The mass of a proton is 1837 times more than that of _____

a)

Neutron

b)

Electron

c)

Positron

d)

Alpha-particle

141.

The limiting lines shows that the energy difference between the first level and the _____

a)

Second

b)

Third

c)

Fourth

d)

Infinite

142.

How do the ‘p’ orbitals Px, Py, Pz differ from each other

a)

Size

b)

Shape

c)

Orientation

d)

Capacity

143.

Magnetic quantum number is related to

a)

Size of orbit

b)

Shape of orbital

c)

Orientation of orbital

d)

Spin of electron

144.

In magnesium atom, in ground state, the number of electron with m = 0 are

a)

4

b)

6

c)

2

d)

8

145.

The two electrons in the K-shell will differ in

a)

Principal quantum number

b)

Azimuthal quantum number

c)

Magnetic quantum number

d)

Spin quantum number

146.

According to Plank’s Quantum theory, Greater the energy of electromagnetic

radiation, lesser will be the _______

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Wave number

d)

Both “B” and “C”

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