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Sci10 FINAL REVIEW

Total questions: 153

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the important role of organisms such as fungi and bacteria?

a)

Make their own food

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Decomposition

2.

In the Water Cycle: what is the process when liquid water changes into water vapor?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Respiration

3.

What is the name of this process? (CO₂ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ (sugar) + O₂)

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Combustion

d)

Decomposition

4.

What is the name of this process? (C₆H₁₂O₆ (sugar) + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O )

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Transpiration

d)

Evaporation

5.

Nitrogen is a building block of ________________.

a)
Proteins
b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Fatty acids

6.

The majority of nitrogen is “fixed” by

a)

Fungi

b)

Viruses

c)

Worms

d)

Bacteria

7.

These plants have nodules that house N-fixing bacteria, they include lentils, peas, alfalfa, and soybeans. These are all _________.

a)

Grains

b)

Legumes

c)

Oil seeds

d)

Forage

8.

What material would have a higher albedo?

a)

Clean snow

b)

Black soil

c)

Dark rocks

d)

Bare ground

9.

What material would have a lower albedo?

a)

Clean snow

b)

Black soil

c)

Light sand

d)

Ice

10.

Hot water or hot air will ______________ because it is less dense.

a)
Rise
b)

Sink

c)

Fall

d)

Decrease

11.

Cold water or Cold air will ______________ because it is more dense.

a)
Rise
b)

Sink

c)

Go up

d)

Decrease

12.

The Coriolis Effect is a change in the direction of moving air and water due to the Earth being round only.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The Coriolis effect is a change in direction of moving air or water due to the rotation of the Earth

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The greenhouse gas effect ______________ heat from solar energy in Earth’s atmosphere

a)
Traps
b)

releases

c)

combusts

d)

delivers

15.

How much of the energy contained in an organism is passed on to the organism that consumed it?

a)

30%

b)

100%

c)

10%

d)

95%

16.

What is/are the main reason(s) species become endangered?

a)

Increases in genetic variation and increases in habitat

b)

Natural disasters

c)

Too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

Loss of habitat and loss in genetic variation

17.

Tornadoes, volcanic eruptions, and tsunamis are all examples of natural disasters that affect a species’ population size. These are:

a)

Density independent factors

b)

Density dependent factors

18.

Disease, shelter, water supply are all examples of factors that affect a species’ population size. These are:

a)

Density independent factors

b)

Density dependent factors

19.

This is a graph of a deer population in the Saskatchewan. At the end of the curve, there was clearing of some of the deer's habitat so it could be turned into farm land. Which of the following graphs represents how the size of the deer population would likely be affected over time by this?

a)

b)

c)

d)

20.

Which of the following population histograms represents a population that is experiencing rapid growth?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

21.

Which of the following population histograms represents a population that will likely see a decline in population over time?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

22.

Which of the following population histograms represents a population that is relatively stable?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

23.

What is the main way that humans impact the nitrogen and phosphorus cycles?

a)

Overuse of fertilizers

b)

Deforestation

c)

Using manure as fertilizers

d)

Carbon emissions

24.

Which of the following is NOT a piece of evidence that shows the Earth’s climate is changing?

a)

Sea levels are rising

b)

Glaciers are retreating

c)

Global temperature is rising

d)

Extreme weather events are less common

25.

The group/family that begins with Oxygen all has what charge?

a)

0

b)

-1

c)

-2

d)

-3

26.

Which of the following is NOT a piece of evidence that shows the Earth’s climate is changing?

a)

Increases in extreme weather events

b)

Ocean acidification

c)

Global temperature is decreasing

d)

Glaciers retreating

27.

Climate is the ____________; weather is the _____________

a)
Trend; variation
b)
Temperature; precipitation
c)
Variation; trend
d)
Precipitation; temperature
28.

____________________ is important to the sustainability of ecosystems because it helps the ecosystem recover if there is a disturbance (such as a loss of a species, wildfires, drought)

a)
Biodiversity
b)

Having only one food chain

c)

Climate change

d)

Bioaccumulation

29.

What is the atomic number of Oxygen?

a)

9

b)

8

c)

16

d)

11

30.

If Earth had no atmosphere, the result would be

a)

Freezing all water on Earth, including the oceans and life as we know it wouldn’t exist

b)

It would be extremely hot on Earth

c)

There would be no change

d)

There would be a balance between the greenhouse gasses that are allowed to enter and exit the Earth

31.

If Earth had a much higher concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, the result would be

a)

Freezing all water on Earth, including the oceans and life as we know it wouldn’t exist

b)

It would be extremely hot on Earth

c)

There would be no change

d)

There would be a balance between the greenhouse gasses that are allowed to enter and exit the Earth

32.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of weather?

a)

Global winds

b)

Distance from the equator

c)

Air Masses

d)

Fronts

33.

Examples of greenhouse gases that occur naturally in the atmosphere:

a)

Tungsten and Plutonium

b)

Ice, crystals, clouds

c)

Carbon dioxide, water vapour, nitrous oxide, methane

d)

None of these are greenhouse gases

34.

The atmospheric events that occur each day is the

a)

Climate

b)

Albedo effect

c)

Global winds

d)

Weather

35.

The weather conditions in a specific area over a long period of time

a)

Climate

b)

Albedo effect

c)

Global winds

d)

Weather

36.

Which of these statements is FALSE:

a)

Protons have a positive charge

b)

Electrons have a negative charge

c)

The nucleus of an atom is positively charged

d)

The electrons and the neutrons are located in the nucleus of the atom

37.

For any given atom the atomic number is the same as the...?

a)

Atomic mass

b)

Number of neutrons

c)

Ionic mass

d)

Number of protons

38.

If an atom has 4 protons, 2 neutrons and 4 electrons, what is its atomic mass?

a)

10

b)

6

c)

8

d)

4

39.

Which of the following would increase the rate of reaction?

a)

doing the reaction over a hot plate

b)

putting the reactants into a larger vessel

c)

using a lower concentration

d)

using large chunks of the reactant

40.

Which of the following situations would DECREASE the rate of reaction?

a)

Adding a catalyst

b)

Doing the reaction over a hot plate

c)

Crushing up the reactants into a fine powder

d)

Using a dilute form of the reactants

41.

If an atom has 12 protons, 14 neutrons and 12 electrons, what is its atomic mass?

a)

24

b)

26

c)

12

d)

38

42.

What is the atomic number of Helium?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

4

d)

3

43.

Grass is classified as a:

a)

Decomposer

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Consumer

d)

Autotroph

44.

Ag, Li, Ca are all considered....

a)

Metals

b)

Non-metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Noble gases

45.

H, F, Ne are all considered....

a)

non-metals

b)

gases

c)

metals

d)

diatoms

46.

A family/group of highly reactive gases

a)

halogens

b)

noble gases

c)

alkaline earth metals

d)

Alkali metals

47.

Which of the following population histograms represents a population that likely to see a decline in population because there are fewer offspring being produced?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

48.

Which of the following is an example of a polyatomic ion?

a)

H₂

b)

NH₄⁺

c)

Na

d)

H⁺

e)

H₂O

49.

How many orbits/rings would be needed for the Bohr diagram of Boron, B?

a)

11

b)

5

c)

2

d)

3

50.

An atom becomes a negatively charged ion when it...

a)

Loses protons

b)

Gains electrons

c)

Gains protons

d)

Loses electrons

51.

The most unreactive (stable) group of elements on the Periodic Table are the:

a)

Alkali metals

b)

Noble gases

c)

Transition metals

d)

Halogens

52.

An atom becomes positively charged when it

a)

gains electrons

b)

loses electrons

c)

gains protons

d)

loses protons

53.

Which of the following statements is correct? Atoms bond...

a)

In order to attain a full valence shell

b)

When protons are transferred from one atom to another

c)

In order to produce ions

d)

In order to share electrons

54.

A covalent bond would most likely form between a...

a)

Chlorine atom and a chlorine atom

b)

Sodium atom and a fluorine atom

c)

Beryllium atom and chlorine

d)

Aluminum atom and oxygen atom

55.

An ionic bond would most likely form between a...

a)

Chlorine atom and a chlorine atom

b)

Sodium atom and a fluorine atom

c)

a negative ion and a negative ion

d)

Oxygen and hydrogen

56.

What does the “→” mean in the chemical equation: water → hydrogen + oxygen

a)

Reacts to produce

b)

Equals

c)

Is balanced

d)

Coefficient

57.

What does the “+” mean in the chemical equation: phosphorus + oxygen → diphosphorus pentoxide

a)

To produce

b)

A coefficient

c)

Reacts with

d)

Is balanced

58.

A balanced chemical equation takes into account the theory that:

a)

Compounds and elements remain unchanged in a chemical reactions

b)

Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions

c)

The total mass always increased during a chemical reaction

d)

The mass of any gases involved can be ignored

59.

In the following reaction, A + B → C, the reactant(s) is/are:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A + B

60.

In the following reaction, A + B → C, the product(s) is/are:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A + B

61.

Which is the correct Lewis Dot structure for Beryllium?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

What is made of chemicals?

a)

Only synthetic materials

b)

Only natural materials

c)

Everything

d)

Foods that are really bad for you

63.

Which of the following elements are never found alone?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Argon

c)

Calcium

d)

Nickle

64.

How many significant figures are in 0.10460?

a)

6

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

65.

How many significant figures are in 3010?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

66.

How many significant figures are in 245.0023?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

5

d)

2

67.

How many significant figures are in 0.002030?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

4

d)

2

68.

Delta (Δ) means

a)

There is only one unit we are dealing with

b)

There will be a triangle drawn in your vector diagram

c)

“No change”

d)

"Change in”

69.

Canada geese migrate from Saskatchewan to Southern USA, a resultant displacement of about 2800 km in a time of 4.0 days. What is the average velocity of the Canada goose in km per hour? Watch your units!

a)

29.17 km/h

b)

700 km/h

c)

268 800 km/h

d)

11 200 km/h

70.

A vector quantity includes

a)

Arrows

b)

Magnitude only

c)

Direction only

d)

Magnitude and direction

71.

A vehicle drives at a constant speed travelling 139km in a time of 0.45 h. What is the speed/velocity of the vehicle?

a)

625.5 km/h

b)

62.55 km/h

c)

308 km/h

d)

0.0032 km/h

72.

A rollercoaster accelerates at 3.3 m/s2 for 2.0s. What was the change in speed/velocity?

a)

6.6 m/s

b)

1.7 m/s

c)

0.61 m/s

d)

66 m/s

73.

A steep slope on a distance-time graph indicates

a)

the object is not moving.

b)

the object’s speed is increasing.

c)

the object has a low speed.

d)

the object has a high speed.

74.

A zero slope on a distance-time graph indicates

a)

the object is not moving.

b)

the object’s speed is increasing.

c)

the object has a constant speed

d)

the object has a high speed.

75.

A rounded line on a distance-time graph that opens upward indicates

a)

the object is not moving.

b)

the object’s speed is increasing.

c)

the object has a constant speed

d)

the object has a high speed.

76.

A derby car rolls down a hill and changes its speed from rest to 3.7 m/s. If the average acceleration down the hill was 0.70 m/s², for how long was the car on the hill?

a)

3.7 s

b)

2.6 s

c)

5.29 s

d)

0.70 s

77.

Nick walks 58 meters North on his way to school. He then remembers that he forgot his homework at home and turns around to walk 58 meters South back home. What is his total displacement?

a)

0 m [N]

b)

58 m [NS]

c)

116 m [N]

d)

116 m [S]

78.

A shallow slope on a distance-time graph indicates

a)

the object is not moving.

b)

the object’s speed is increasing.

c)

the object has a low speed.

d)

the object has a high speed.

79.

Most climate scientists agree that the current warming trend on Earth is due to:

a)

Human activity; mainly the overuse of fertilizers

b)

Human activity; mainly the burning of fossil fuels

c)

Natural carbon cycling

d)

The fact that we are about to go into an ice age

80.

Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?

a)

67 m/s [S]

b)

56 km [NE]

c)

0.5 km/h/s [W]

d)

23 s

81.

Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Helium

c)

Carbon

d)

Iron

82.

Which one of the following vector addition equations is shown in Diagram 1?

a)

A + B = C

b)

B + C = A

c)

A + C = B

d)

A + C = D

83.

What process is responsible for the formation of clouds?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Transpiration

84.

What is the atomic number of Carbon?

a)

8

b)

14

c)

6

d)

12

85.

Is the following an example of a positive or negative feedback loop?

  1. The Earth gets warmer. Permafrost (frozen ground in the Arctic) starts to melt. This releases methane and carbon dioxide trapped in the ice. These greenhouse gases trap more heat in the atmosphere. The Earth gets even warmer, causing more permafrost to melt.

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

86.

Is the following an example of a positive or negative feedback loop?

  1. Carbon dioxide is released in the air. Plants use CO₂ to grow through photosynthesis. More plant growth means more CO₂ is removed from the air. This helps reduce the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere.

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

87.

Is the following an example of a positive or negative feedback loop?

  1. Ice and snow have a high albedo, so they reflect sunlight into space. As the Earth warms, polar ice melts and reflects less sunlight. The Earth absorbs more sunlight, so it warms even more. More ice melts.

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

88.

Is the following an example of a positive or negative feedback loop?

  1. As the Earth warms, more water evaporates into the atmosphere and more clouds form. Clouds have a high albedo (reflect more sunlight back into space) which will cause the Earth to cool down. As Earth cools, there will be less evaporation, and therefore less cloud formation. Less sunlight being reflected will cause the Earth to warm again.

a)

Positive Feedback Loop

b)

Negative Feedback Loop

89.

What is the primary characteristic of a vector quantity?

a)

It has magnitude only

b)

It has direction only

c)

It has both magnitude and direction

d)

It has neither magnitude nor direction

90.

If you start on your way to school walking 38m [N] and then realize you forgot your lunch, so you walk back to your house 38m [S]. What is your resultant vector?

a)

76m [N]

b)

76m [S]

c)

76m [NS]

d)

0m [N]

91.

How many significant figures are in the number 0.00340?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

92.

How many significant figures are in the number 0.10005?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

93.

Which of the following best describes acceleration?

a)

The total distance traveled by an object

b)

The rate of change of displacement

c)

The rate of change of velocity

d)

The time taken to complete a journey

94.

Which is a valid unit for acceleration?

a)

m/s

b)

m/s²

c)

km/h

d)

m²/s

95.

Which is a valid unit for speed/velocity?

a)

m/s

b)

m/s²

c)

s/m

d)

m²/s

96.

The answer to this subtraction statement with the correct number of significant figures is: 13.89 - 2.33

a)

11.56

b)

11.6

c)

11

d)

10

97.

The result of this subtraction with the correct number of significant figures is: 15.678 - 3.45

a)

12.228

b)

12.23

c)

12.2

d)

12

98.

Newton's Third Law states that for every action:

a)

There is an equal reaction

b)

There is an opposite reaction

c)

There is an equal and opposite reaction

d)

There is no reaction

99.

How many significant figures are in the measurement 300 km?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

100.

According to Newton's Second Law, force is equal to:

a)

Mass divided by acceleration

b)

Mass multiplied by velocity

c)

Mass multiplied by acceleration

d)

Mass divided by velocity

101.

If the velocity and acceleration are in the OPPOSITE direction, the object will be:

a)

Slowing down

b)

Speeding up

c)

At rest

d)

Showing uniform motion

102.

If the velocity and acceleration are in the SAME direction, the object will be:

a)

Slowing down

b)

Speeding up

c)

At rest

d)

Showing uniform motion

103.

What does Newton's Frist Law of motion state?

a)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

F = ma

c)

If acceleration and velocity are in the same direction, then the object will speed up

d)

Objects in motion will stay in motion and objects at rest will stay at rest unless acted upon by an external force

104.

Which of the following describes uniform motion?

a)

A constant acceleration of 9.0m/s² making lots of turns

b)

A constant acceleration of 9.0m/s² in a straight line

c)

A constant speed of 10.0m/s making lots of turns

d)

A constant speed of 10.0m/s in a straight line

105.

The answer to this multiplication statement with the correct number of significant figures is: 0.064 × 972.0

a)

62.208

b)

62.20

c)

62.2

d)

62

106.

The answer to this multiplication statement with the correct number of significant figures is: 0.0075 × 843

a)

6.3225

b)

6.32

c)

6.3

d)

6

107.

Which of the following is NOT a valid unit for velocity?

a)

m/s

b)

s/m

c)

km/h

d)

ft/h

108.

Steph walks 3 meters [W] then 6 meters [E]. What is her displacement and distance?

a)

Displacement = 3m [W]; distance = 9m

b)

Displacement = 9m; distance = 3m [W]

c)

Displacement = 3m [E]; distance = 9m

d)

Displacement = 9m; distance = 3m [E]

109.

How are the products and reactants placed in a chemical reaction?

a)

products → reactants

b)

reactants → products

c)

reactants / products

d)

products / reactants

110.

Which subatomic particles are equal in a neutral atom?

a)

Protons and Neutrons

b)

Protons and Electrons

c)

Neutrons and Electrons

d)

All three

111.

Ions are formed when an atom gains or loses:

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Nuclei

112.

Ionic bonds are formed between:

a)

Metals and Metals

b)

Metals and Non-metals

c)

Non-metals and Non-metals

d)

Non-Metals and Metalloids

113.

In ionic compounds, electrons are:

a)

Shared

b)

Transferred

c)

Lost

d)

Gained

114.

Electrons are ________ between atoms in covalent compounds.

a)

Transferred

b)

Shared

c)

Lost

d)

Gained

115.

Covalent bonds are formed between:

a)

Metals and Non-metals

b)

Non-metals and Non-metals (or metalloids)

c)

Metals and Metals

d)

Ions

116.

Which of the following elements need a subscript of 2 if they are alone in a chemical reaction?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Oxygen

c)

Aluminum

d)

Copper

117.

Which of the following elements need a subscript of 2 if they are alone in a chemical reaction?

a)

Sodium

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Potassium

d)

Nickel

118.

What is the pH of a neutral solution?

a)

0

b)

7

c)

14

d)

10

119.

What is the products of a neutralization reaction?

a)

Salt and Water

b)

Acid and Base

c)

Carbon dioxide and Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide and Water

120.

What are the ions released by an acid?

a)

H+

b)

OH-

c)

H-

d)

OH+

121.

What are the ions released by a base?

a)

H+

b)

OH-

c)

H-

d)

OH+

122.

What is always a reactant in a combustion reaction?

a)

Water

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

123.

Water (H₂O) is:

a)

A base

b)

An acid

c)

Neutral

d)

Explosive

124.

When we are balancing equations, the only numbers we can change are:

a)

Subscripts

b)

Subscripts if they are in the middle of the formula

c)

Subscripts if they are at the end of the formula

d)

Coefficients

125.

Molecules are __________ in motion

a)

Always

b)

Never

c)

Sometimes

d)

Always, but only if they are a liquid or gas

126.

Increasing the concentration of hydrochloric acid in a reaction with magnesium will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

127.

Mixing iodine and a starch solution in the fridge will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

128.

Using a whole piece of chalk in a reaction with hydrochloric acid instead of finely powdered chalk will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

129.

Using a catalyst in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

130.

Stirring a mixture of sodium bicarbonate and acetic acid on a hot plate (increasing the temperature) will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

131.

Mixing two solutions in a beaker over a hot plate (increasing the temperature) will _________ the rate of reaction

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No change

132.

Methane (CH4) burns in oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. What is the word equation for this reaction?

a)

Methane + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water

b)

Methane + Water → Carbon dioxide + Oxygen

c)

Methane + Carbon dioxide → Oxygen + Water

d)

CH4 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O

133.

Identify the type of reaction: C5H10 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O 

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

134.

Identify the type of reaction: H2O2 --> H2O + O2

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single replacement

d)

Double replacement

e)

Combustion

135.

Identify the type of reaction: Ag + S8 --> Ag2S  

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

136.

Identify the type of reaction: Al + Fe2O3 --> Fe + Al2O3

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

137.

Identify the type of reaction: H2O2 --> H2O + O2 

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

138.

Identify the type of reaction: CH4 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O 

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

139.

Identify the type of reaction: H2 ​+ O2​ → H2​O

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

140.

Identify the type of reaction: NaCl + AgNO3 ​→ NaNO3​ + AgCl

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

e)

Combustion

141.

Which of the following best describes the role of greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

They trap heat and help maintain Earth's temperature

b)

They cause the oceans to freeze

c)

They reflect all solar energy back into space

d)

They block all sunlight from reaching the surface

142.

What is the process called when water vapor cools and changes back into liquid water in the atmosphere?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Condensation

d)

Precipitation

143.

Which of the following is an example of a density independent factor affecting population size?

a)

Predation

b)

Flood

c)

Disease

d)

Food availability

144.

Which of the following is an example of a greenhouse gas produced by human activities?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Argon

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

145.

What is the main function of legumes in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

They decompose organic matter

b)

They absorb carbon dioxide from the air

c)

They fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form

d)

They release oxygen during photosynthesis

146.

The result of this subtraction with the correct number of significant figures is: 15.678 - 3.45

a)

12.228

b)

12.23

c)

12.2

d)

12

147.

The rule for adding additional vectors by drawing is:

a)

Tip to tail

b)

Tail to tip

c)

Direction doesn’t matter

d)

From the tail of the first vector to the tip of the final vector

148.

The rule for drawing resultant vectors is:

a)

Tip to tail

b)

Tip to tip

c)

Direction doesn’t matter

d)

From the tail of the first vector to the tip of the final vector

149.

The answer to this addition statement with the correct number of significant figures is: 342.88 + 79.0

a)

421.88

b)

421.9

c)

421

d)

420

150.

Calculate the sum of these numbers with the correct number of significant figures: 123.45 + 67.8

a)

191.25

b)

191.3

c)

191

d)

190

151.

An object at rest tends to stay at rest, and an object in motion tends to stay in motion, unless acted upon by:

a)

A net force

b)

Gravity

c)

Friction

d)

Acceleration

152.

Calculate the product of these numbers with the correct number of significant figures: 7.50 × 32

a)

240.0

b)

200

c)

240

d)

2.40 x 102

153.

What property of an object determines its inertia?

a)

Its temperature

b)

Its weight

c)

Its mass

d)

Its speed

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