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Chem 141 Exam

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Chemistry is defined as the study of composition and structure of materials and

a)

the categories of matter

b)

the changes in matter

c)

the electrical currents in matter

d)

molecules in living things

2.

Chemistry is the study of all of the following EXCEPT

a)

matter

b)

changes in matter

c)

energy associated with changes in matter

d)

projectile motion

3.

The branch of chemistry concerned with the properties, changes, and relationships between energy and matter is

a)

inorganic chemistry

b)

analytical chemistry

c)

physical chemistry

d)

theoretical chemistry

4.

The melting of candle wax is classified as a physical change because it

a)

produces no new substances

b)

transfers energy

c)

absorbs heat

d)

changes the chemical properties of wax

5.

physical means can be used to separate

a)

elements

b)

pure substances

c)

mixtures

d)

compounds

6.

based on their location in the figure above, oxygen and selenium have

a)

the same number of neutrons

b)

the same conductivity

c)

similar properties

d)

the same number of electron orbitals

7.

The elements that border the zigzag line in the periodic table are

a)

inactive

b)

metals

c)

metalloids

d)

nonmetals

8.

which statement is NOT true about nonmetals?

a)

they have characteristics of both metals and nonmetals

b)

many are gases at room temperature

c)

they have low conductivity

d)

there are fewer nonmetals than metals

9.

A plausible explanation of a body of observed natural phenomena is a scientific

a)

principle

b)

experiment

c)

law

d)

theory

10.

A theory is an accepted explanation of an observed phenomenon until

a)

one study conflicts with the theory

b)

repeated data and observation conflict with the theory

c)

scientists disagree about the methods used to gather the data

d)

en eminent scientist declares that it is inadequate

11.

Two features that distinguish matter are

a)

mass and velocity

b)

weight and velocity

c)

mass and volume

d)

weight and volume

12.

standards are chosen because they

a)

have units that can be converted to other units

b)

are reproducible in another labratory

c)

cannot be destroyed by any common physical or chemical means

d)

are easily changed

13.

the symbol mm represents

a)

micrometer

b)

millimeter

c)

milliliter

d)

meter

14.

a volume of 1 cubic centimeter is equivalent to

a)

1 milliliter

b)

1 gram

c)

1 liter

d)

10^-1 cubic decimeters

15.

the SI base unit for time is

a)

day

b)

hour

c)

minute

d)

second

16.

a measure of earth's gravitational pull on matter is

a)

density

b)

weight

c)

volume

d)

mass

17.

A measure of the quantity of matter is

a)

density

b)

weight

c)

volume

d)

mass

18.

The density of sugar is 1.59 g/cm^3. The mass of a sample is 4.0 g. Find the volume of the sample

a)

2.5 cm^3

b)

6.36 cm^3

c)

0.39 cm^3

d)

2.5 g/cm^3

19.

The mass of a 6.0 mL sample of kerosene is 4.92 g. The density of kerosene is

a)

0.82 g/mL

b)

0.92 g/cm^3

c)

1.2 g/mL

d)

1.5 g/cm^3

20.

100 milliliters is equivalent to

a)

1 hectometer

b)

1 micrometer

c)

1 centiliter

d)

1 deciliter

21.

0.05 cm is the same as

a)

0.00005 m

b)

0.005 mm

c)

0.05 m

d)

0.5 mm

22.

a measurement is said to have good precision if it

a)

agrees closely with an accepted standard

b)

agrees closely with other measurements of the same quantity

c)

has a small number of significant figures

d)

has a large number of significant figures

23.

using the same balance, a chemist obtained the values 5.224 g, 5.235 g, and 5.25 g for the mass of a sample. These measurements have

a)

good precision

b)

good accuracy

c)

poor precision

d)

poor accuracy

24.

the number of significant figures in the measurements 0.000305 kg is

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

25.

the graph of an inverse proportion is a(n)

a)

straight line

b)

ellipse

c)

parabola

d)

hyperbola

26.

Which of the following does NOT describe a direct proportion between x and y

a)

xy=k

b)

x/y=k

c)

y/x=k

d)

x=ky

27.

A certain compound is composed of elements G and H. It always has the same mass ratio of G to H because

a)

all atoms have the same mass

b)

any excess of G or H will be destroyed

c)

G and H have characteristic masses

d)

G and H have identical masses

28.

According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is _______ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.

a)

equal to

b)

greater then

c)

less than

d)

either greater than or less than

29.

who first recognized that the ratio of the number of atoms that combine is the same as the ratio of the masses that combine?

a)

Jons Berzelius

b)

Edward Morley

c)

John Dalton

d)

Jon Newlands

30.

The principles of atomic theory recognized today were conceived by

a)

Avogadro

b)

Bohr

c)

Dalton

d)

Rutherford

31.

Which of the following is NOT part of Dalton's atomic theory

a)

Atoms cannot be divided, created, or destroyed

b)

the number of protons in an atom is its atomic number

c)

in chemical reactions, atoms are combined, separated, or rearranged

d)

all matter is composed of extremely small particles called atoms

32.

Dalton's atomic theory did NOT explain the law of

a)

whole-number ratios

b)

definite proportions

c)

conservation of mass

d)

conservation of energy

33.

The law of definite proportions

a)

contradicted Dalton's atomic theory

b)

was explained by Dalton's atomic theory

c)

replaced the law of conservation of mass

d)

assumes that atoms of all elements are identical

34.

Who proposed the law of multiple proportions

a)

Avogadro

b)

Rutherford

c)

Dalton

d)

Thomson

35.

The atomic theory proposed by Dalton

a)

has been totally discarded

b)

has been expanded and modified

c)

has been accepted unchanged to the present day

d)

has been found to be false

36.

In the glass tube, electrical current passes from the negative electrode, called the ________, to the other electrode.

a)

cathode

b)

anode

c)

electron

d)

Millikan

37.

After measuring the ratio of the charge of a cathode-ray particle to its mass, Thomson concluded that the particles

a)

had no mass

b)

had a very small mass

c)

had a very large mass

d)

carried a positive charge

38.

In Rutherford's experiments, very few positively charged particles

a)

were slightly deflected as they passed through the metal

b)

were greatly deflected back from the metal

c)

passed straight through the metal

d)

combined with the metal

39.

In Rutherford's experiments, positively charged particles

a)

passed through a tube containing gas

b)

were used to bombard a cathode plate

c)

collided with electrons

d)

were used to bombard thin metal foil

40.

because most particles fired at metal foil passed straight through. Rutherford concluded that

a)

atoms were mostly empty space

b)

atoms contained no charged particles

c)

electrons formed the nucleus

d)

atoms were indivisible

41.

Which part of an atom has a mass approximately equal to 1/2000 of the mass of a common hydrogen atom?

a)

nucleus

b)

electron

c)

proton

d)

electron cloud

42.

An atom is electrically neutral because

a)

neutrons balance the protons and electrons

b)

nuclear forces stabilize the charges

c)

the numbers of protons and electrons are equal

d)

the numbers of protons and neutrons are equal

43.

most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the

a)

nucleus

b)

nuclides

c)

electron cloud

d)

protons

44.

what is the mass number of deuterium

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

Protium contains one proton and

a)

one neutron

b)

two neutrons

c)

no neutrons

d)

three electrons

46.

Atoms of the same element can differ in

a)

chemical properties

b)

mass number

c)

atomic number

d)

number of protons and electrons

47.

The atomic mass of an isotope is its

a)

average atomic mass

b)

isotopic mass number

c)

atomic number

d)

relative atomic mass

48.

The atomic mass listed in the periodic table is the

a)

average atomic mass

b)

relative atomic mass of the most abundant isotope

c)

relative atomic mass of the most stable radioactive isotope

d)

mass number of the most abundant isotope

49.

An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is

a)

13

b)

14

c)

27

d)

40

50.

An atom of potassium has 19 protons and 20 neutron. What is its mass number?

a)

19

b)

20

c)

39

d)

10

51.

The atomic number of neon is 10. The atomic number of calcium is 20. Compared with a mole of neon, a mole of calcium contains

a)

twice as many atoms

b)

half as many atoms

c)

an equal number of atoms

d)

20 times as many atoms

52.

Avogadro's constant is

a)

The maximum number of electrons that all the energy levels can accomodate

b)

the number of protons and neutrons that can fit in the shells of the nucleus

c)

the number of particles in 1 mole of a pure substance

d)

the number of particles in exactly 1 gram of a pure substance

53.

A mass of 6.005 g of carbon (atomic mass 12.010 amu) contains

a)

1 mol C

b)

2 atoms C

c)

0.5000 mol C

d)

1 atom O

54.

The mass of 2.50 mol of calcium atoms ( atomic mass 40.08 amu) is approximately

a)

10.0 g

b)

42.5 g

c)

100 g

d)

250 g

55.

Visible light, X rays, infrared radiation, and radio waves all have the same

a)

energy

b)

wavelength

c)

speed

d)

frequency

56.

A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n)

a)

photon

b)

electron

c)

excited atom

d)

orbital

57.

The spectral lines of hydrogen in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum are called

a)

principle series

b)

Balmer series

c)

Lyman series

d)

Paschen series

58.

A bright-line spectrum of an atom is caused by energy released when electrons

a)

jump to a higher energy level

b)

fall to a lower energy level

c)

absorb energy and jump to a higher energy level

d)

absorb energy and fall to a lower energy level

59.

According to Bohr's theory, an excited atom would

a)

collapse

b)

absorb photons

c)

remain stable

d)

radiate energy

60.

The drop of an electron from a high energy level to the ground state in a hydrogen atom would be most closely associated with

a)

long-wavelength radiation

b)

lo-frequency radiation

c)

infrared radiation

d)

high-frequency radiation

61.

Which model of an atom explains the orbitals of electrons as waves

a)

the Bohr model

b)

the quantum model

c)

Rutherford's model

d)

Planck's theory

62.

All of the following describe the Schrodinger wave equation EXCEPT

a)

it is an equation that treats electrons in atoms as waves

b)

only waves of specific energies and frequencies provide solutions to the equation

c)

it helped lay the foundation for the modern quantum theory

d)

it is similar to Bohr's theory

63.

A three-dimensional region around the nucleus where an electron may be found is called a(n)

a)

spectral line

b)

electron path

c)

orbital

d)

orbit

64.

Quantum numbers are sets of numbers that describe the properties of

a)

the atomic nucleus

b)

atomic orbitals

c)

atoms

d)

molecules

65.

The spin quantum number indicates that the number of possible states for an electron in an orbital is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

66.

The spin quantum number of an electron can be thought of as describing

a)

the direction of electron spin

b)

whether the electrons charge is positive or negative

c)

The electrons exact location in orbit

d)

the number of revolutions the electron makes about the nucleus per second

67.

Because of the property described by the spin quantum number, an electron behaves as though it

a)

were positively charged

b)

were a magnet

c)

oscillated in one position

d)

were spiraling towards the nucleus

68.

The number of possible orbital shapes for the third energy level is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

69.

The total number of orbitals that can exist at the second main energy level is

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

70.

How many electrons are needed to fill the third main energy level if it already contains 8 electrons?

a)

0

b)

8

c)

10

d)

22

71.

The atomic sublevel with the next highest energy after 4p is

a)

4d

b)

4f

c)

5p

d)

5s

72.

Both copper (atomic number 29) and chromium (atomic number 24) appear to break the pattern in the order of filling the 3d and 4s orbitals. This change in pattern is expressed by

a)

an increase in the number of electrons in both the 3d and 4s orbitals

b)

a reduction in the number of electrons in both the 3d and 4s orbitals

c)

a reduction in the number of electrons in the 3d orbital and an increase in the 4s orbital

d)

a reduction in the number of electrons in the 4s orbital and an increase in the 3d orbital

73.

In the ground state, the 3d and 4s sublevels of the chromium atom (atomic number 24) may be represented as

a)

3d64s13d^64s^1

b)

3d44s23d^44s^2

c)

3d54s13d^54s^1

d)

4s23d44s^23d^4

74.

the element with the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p21s^22s^22p^63s^23p^2  is

a)

Mg (Z=12)

b)

C (Z=6)

c)

S (Z=16)

d)

Si (Z=14)

75.

What is the electron configuration for nitrogen, atomic number 7

a)

1s22s22p31s^22s^22p^3

b)

1s22s32p21s^22s^32p^2

c)

1s22s32p11s^22s^32p^1

d)

1s22s22p23s11s^22s^22p^23s^1

76.

If an element has an octet of electrons in its highest main energy level, there are ____ electrons in this level

a)

2

b)

8

c)

10

d)

32

77.

Mendeleev is credited with developing the first successful

a)

periodic table

b)

method for determining atomic number

c)

test for radioactivity

d)

use of X rays

78.

Mendeleev did not always list elements in the periodic table in order of increasing mass because he grouped together elements with similar

a)

properties

b)

atomic numbers

c)

densities

d)

colors

79.

Mendeleev's table was called periodic because the properties of elements

a)

showed no pattern

b)

occurred at repeated intervals called periods

c)

occurred at regular time intervals called periods

d)

were identical

80.

Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar

a)

atomic masses

b)

atomic numbers

c)

numbers of neutrons

d)

properties

81.

For elements in Groups 1,2, and 18, the increase in atomic number for successive elements follows the pattern 8,8,18,__, 32

a)

18

b)

20

c)

24

d)

26

82.

The electron configuration of cesium, atomic number 55, is [Xe] 6s16s^1 . In what period is cesium?

a)

period 1

b)

period 6

c)

period 8

d)

period 55

83.

In period 3 there are 8 elements. What sublevel(s) is (are) being filled?

a)

s

b)

s and d

c)

s and p

d)

d and f

84.

The electron configurations of the noble gases from neon to radon in the periodic table end with filled

a)

f orbitals

b)

d orbitals

c)

s orbitals

d)

p orbitals

85.

Magnesium, atomic number 12, has the electron configuration [Ne] 3s^2. To what group does magnesium belong?

a)

Group 2

b)

Group 3

c)

Group 5

d)

Group 12

86.

The elements in Group 1 are also known as the

a)

alkali metals

b)

rare-earth series

c)

Period 1 elements

d)

actinide series

87.

A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons is called 

a)

electron affinity

b)

electron configuration 

c)

electronegativity

d)

ionization potential

88.

a positive ion is known as a(n)

a)

ionic radius

b)

valence electron

c)

cation

d)

anion

89.

A negative ion is known as a(n)

a)

ionic radius

b)

valence electron

c)

cation

d)

anion

90.

in Group 2 elements, the valence electrons are in sublevel

a)

d

b)

p

c)

s

d)

f

91.

for groups 13 through 18, the number of valence electrons is equal to the group number

a)

plus 1

b)

plus the period number

c)

minus the period number

d)

minus 10

92.

In groups 13 through 18,valence electrons may be in sublevels

a)

s and d

b)

s and p

c)

d and f

d)

p and d

93.

Which groups in the main group have lower electronegativity than d-block elements

a)

Groups 1 and 2

b)

Groups 13 through 18

c)

Groups 17 and 18

d)

Groups 13 through 17

94.

A chemical bond results from the mutual attraction of the nuclei of atoms and

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

dipoles

95.

The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called

a)

dipoles

b)

s electrons

c)

Lewis electrons

d)

valence electrons

96.

In a chemical bond, the link between atoms results from the attraction between electrons and

a)

Lewis structures

b)

nuclei

c)

van der Waals forces

d)

isotopes

97.

atoms are ___ when they are combined

a)

more stable

b)

less stable

c)

not bound together

d)

at a high potential energy

98.

The chemical bond formed when two atoms share electrons is called a(n)

a)

ionic bond

b)

orbital bond

c)

Lewis structure

d)

covalent bond

99.

A covalent bond results when ______ are shared

a)

ions

b)

Lewis structure

c)

electrons

d)

dipoles

100.

Most chemical bonds are

a)

purely ionic

b)

purely covalent

c)

partly ionic and partly covalent

d)

metallic

101.

The percentage ionic character and the type of bond in LiCI (electronegativity for Li is 1.0; electronegativity for Cl is 3.0) is

a)

50%; ionic

b)

50%; polar covalent

c)

67%; polar covalent

d)

67%; ionic

102.

A ___ shows the types and numbers of atoms joined in a single molecule of a molecular compund

a)

molecular formula

b)

chemical formula

c)

covalent bond

d)

ionic bond

103.

Which of the following is NOT an example of molecular formula?

a)

H2OH_2O

b)

B

c)

NH3NH_3

d)

O2O_2

104.

A covalent bond forms when the attraction between two atoms is balanced by repulsion and the potential energy is

a)

at a maximum

b)

zero

c)

at a minimum

d)

equal to the kinetic energy

105.

In drawing a Lewis structure, the central atom is the

a)

atom with the greatest mass

b)

atom with the highest atomic number

c)

atom with the fewest electrons

d)

least electronegative atom

106.

A shorthand representation of the composition of a substance using atomic symbols and numerical subscripts is called a(n)

a)

Lewis structures

b)

chemical formula

c)

poly-atomic ion

d)

multiple bond

107.

an ionic compound is not represented by a molecular formula because an ionic compound

a)

does not contain bonds

b)

does not have charged particles

c)

lacks molecules

d)

always has a positive charge

108.

In a crystal, the valence electrons of adjacent ions

a)

repel each other

b)

Attract each other

c)

neutralize each other

d)

have no effect to each other

109.

The simplest repeating unit of a crystal is known as a(n)

a)

unit cell

b)

crystal lattice

c)

ionic compound

d)

salt

110.

The lattice energy is a measure of

a)

strength of an ionic bond

b)

strength of a metallic bond

c)

strength of a covalent bond

d)

number of ions in a crystal

111.

Lattice energy is the energy released in the formation of a(n)

a)

Lewis structure

b)

polar covalent compound

c)

non-polar covalent compound

d)

ionic compound

112.

If the lattice energy of compound A is greater then that of compound B

a)

compound A is not an ionic compound

b)

the bonds in compound A are stronger than the bonds in compound B

c)

compound B is probably a gas

d)

compound A has larger crystals than compound B

113.

Ionic compounds are brittle because the strong attractive forces

a)

Allow the layers to shift easily

b)

cause the compound to vaporize easily

c)

keep the surface dull

d)

hold the layers in relatively fixed positions

114.

The properties of both ionic and molecular compounds are related to the

a)

lattice energies of the compounds

b)

strengths of attraction between the particles in the compounds

c)

number of covalent bonds each contains

d)

mobile electrons that they contain

115.

A chemical bond formed by the attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons is a(n)

a)

non-polar covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

polar covalent bond

d)

metallic bond

116.

In metals, the valence electrons

a)

are attached to particular positive ions

b)

are shared by all of the atoms

c)

are immobile

d)

form covalent bonds

117.

In the electron-sea model of a metallic bond

a)

electrons are stationary

b)

electrons are bonded to particular positive ions

c)

some electrons are valence electrons and some are not

d)

mobile electrons are shared by all the atoms

118.

The shiny appearance of a metal is most closely related to the matal's

a)

electron-sea

b)

covalent bonds

c)

brittle crystalline structure

d)

positive ions

119.

As light strikes the surface of a metal, the electrons in the electron sea

a)

allow the light to pass through

b)

become attached to particular positive ions

c)

fall to lower energy levels

d)

absorb and re-emit the light

120.

Shifting the layers of an an ionic crystal causes the crystal to

a)

be drawn into the wire

b)

shatter

c)

become metallic

d)

freeze

121.

Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the chlorate ion, CIO3−CIO_3-  

a)

trigonal planar

b)

octahedral

c)

trigonal pyramidal

d)

bent

122.

Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of carbon dioxide,  CO2CO_2  

a)

tetrahedral

b)

linear

c)

bent 

d)

octahedral

123.

Hybridization helps explain molecular bonding when the valence electrons on the uncombined atoms

a)

total more than 8

b)

are in orbitals with different shapes

c)

total less than 3

d)

are not available for bonding

124.

A polar molecule contains

a)

ions

b)

a region of positive charge and a region of negative charge

c)

only London forces

d)

no bonds

125.

How many atoms of flouring are present in a molecule of carbon tetraflouride, CF4CF_4  

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

126.

Which formula does NOT represent a molecule?

a)

H2OH_2O

b)

NH3NH_3

c)

CO2CO_2

d)

NaClNaCl

127.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2ClCa_2Cl

c)

CaCl3CaCl_3

d)

CaCl2CaCl_2

128.

What is the formula for tin(IV) chromate

a)

Sn(CrO4)4Sn\left(CrO_4\right)_4

b)

Sn2(CrO4)2Sn_2\left(CrO_4\right)_2

c)

Sn2(CrO4)4Sn_2\left(CrO_4\right)_4

d)

Sn(CrO4)2Sn\left(CrO_4\right)_2

129.

Name the compound CuCO3CuCO_3  

a)

copper (I) carbonate

b)

cupric trioxycarbide

c)

Cuprous carbide 

d)

Copper (II) carbonate

130.

Name the compound SiO2SiO_2  

a)

silver oxide 

b)

silicon oxide 

c)

silicon dioxide 

d)

monosilicon dioxide 

131.

What is the formula for nitrogen triflouride

a)

NiF3NiF_3

b)

NF3NF_3

c)

N3FN_3F

d)

Ni3FNi_3F

132.

What is the oxidation number of carbon in Cl4Cl_4  

a)

-4

b)

+1

c)

+4

d)

+5

133.

Name the compound N2O2N_2O_2  using the Stock system

a)

dinitrogen monoxide

b)

nitrous oxide

c)

nitrogen(II) oxide

d)

nitrogen oxide(II)

134.

Name the compound SO2SO_2  using the Stock system

a)

sulfur(II) oxide

b)

sulfur(IV) oxide

c)

sulfur dioxide

d)

sulfuric oxide

135.

Name the compound SiO2SiO_2  using the Stock system

a)

silica

b)

silicon oxide

c)

silicon dioxide

d)

silicon(IV) oxide

136.

The molar mass of H2OH_2O  is 18.015 g/mol. How many grams of  H2OH_2O  are present in 0.20 mol?

a)

0.2 g

b)

3.6 g

c)

35.9 g

d)

89.9 g

137.

What is the percentage composition of CO?

a)

50% C, 50% O

b)

12% C, 88% O

c)

25% C, 75% O

d)

43% C, 57% O

138.

 What is the percentage composition of CuCl2CuCl_2

a)

33% Cu, 66% Cl

b)

50% Cu, 50% Cl

c)

65.50% Cu, 34.50% Cl

d)

47.263 Cu, 52.737% Cl

139.

What is the percentage composition of OH- in Ca(OH)2

a)

45.9%

b)

66.6%

c)

75%

d)

90.1%

140.

The empirical formula may not represent the actual composition of a unit of a(n)

a)

ionic compound

b)

molecular compound

c)

atom

d)

crystal

141.

what is the empirical formula for a a compound that is 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl2

d)

Ca2Cl2

142.

A compound that contains 27.3 g of C and 27.7 g of O. What is the empirical formula for this compound

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

C2O

d)

C2O4

143.

The empirical formula and the formula mass of a compound are needed to determine the compound's

a)

molecular formula

b)

bond energy

c)

lattice structure

d)

toxicity

144.

A compound'd empirical formula is C2H5. If the formula mass is 58 amu, what is the molecular formula

a)

C3H6

b)

C4H10

c)

C5H8

d)

C5H15

145.

A compound'd empirical formula is NO2. If the formula mass is 92 amu, what is the molecular formula

a)

NO

b)

N2O2

c)

NO4

d)

N2O4

146.

A compound'd empirical formula is CH3. If the formula mass is 30 amu, what is the molecular formula

a)

CH3

b)

CH4

c)

C2H6

d)

C3H9

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