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Science STAAR Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)
4N 
b)
6N 
c)
10 N 
d)
14 N 
2.
a)
40,000 N
b)
100 N
c)
100 m/s^2
d)
10,000 kg
3.
a)
The cart was stationary with a velocity of 0 m/s for the entire 7 seconds. 
b)
The cart was stationary except for a short burst of acceleration of 0.5 m/s^2 . 
c)
The cart moved at a constant velocity of 0.5 m/s for the entire 7 seconds.
d)
The cart accelerated at a constant rate of approximately 0.8 m/s^2 . 
4.
a)
The book, the ball, and the car 
b)
The ball, the car, and the bird 
c)
The can, the swing, and the bird 
d)
The book, the ball, the can, and the swing 
5.
a)
Procedures 1, 2, and 3 
b)
Procedures 4 and 5 
c)
Procedures 3 and 4 
d)
Procedures 1, 3, and 5 
6.
a)
As the fuel burns, gases push against the rocket, moving it upward. 
b)
As the fuel burns, gases move out of the rocket and reduce air resistance. 
c)
As the fuel burns, the mass of the rocket decreases. 
d)
As the fuel burns, the rocket moves faster. 
7.
a)
Activity 3 required more work than Activity 1, but Activity 3 did not require more work than Activity 2. 
b)
Activity 1 required the same amount of work as Activity 3. 
c)
Activity 2 required the most work. 
d)
Activity 1 was the only activity that required work. 
8.
a)
Airplane W has a greater kinetic energy than Airplane X. 
b)
The two airplanes have the same gravitational potential energy but different kinetic energies. 
c)
Airplane X has more gravitational potential energy than Airplane W. 
d)
The two airplanes have the same kinetic energy but different gravitational potential energies.
9.
a)
0.2 m/s 
b)
0.5 m/s
c)
5.0 m/s 
d)
10.0 m/s 
10.
a)
The toy train speeds up while going forward and then slows down. 
b)
The toy train slows down while going forward and then moves backward. 
c)
The toy train moves forward at a constant speed, slows down, and then stops. 
d)
The toy train moves forward at an increasing speed, stops, and then moves forward. 
11.
A teacher rubbed a match against a piece of sandpaper. The match started to burn. Which statement best describes the energy changes that occurred? 
a)
The chemical energy stored in the match changed to thermal energy and light energy. 
b)
The thermal energy stored in the match changed to light energy and chemical energy. 
c)
The light energy and thermal energy stored in the match changed to mechanical energy. 
d)
The light energy and thermal energy stored in the match changed to chemical energy. 
12.
a)
The Pacific and Nazca plates are both moving to the east. 
b)
The Pacific and Nazca plates are both moving to the west. 
c)
The Pacific plate is moving to the west, and the Nazca plate is moving to the east. 
d)
The Pacific plate is moving to the east, and the Nazca plate is moving to the west. 
13.
a)
Less sediment flowed into the river because the fire heated up the soil and made it drier. 
b)
The amount of vegetation increased and less sediment flowed into the river because the fire produced ash that mixed with the soil. 
c)
More sediment flowed into the river because the fire destroyed most of the vegetation holding the sediment in place. 
d)
More sediment flowed into the river because the fire disrupted animal habitats and caused animals to leave the area. 
14.
a)
2,050 m 
b)
450 m 
c)
910 m 
d)
3,650 m 
15.
a)
The activities prevent most of the water from evaporating into the atmosphere. 
b)
Pollutants from the activities percolate through the soil and enter the water table. 
c)
The activities replace the groundwater used. 
d)
All of the above 
16.
a)
The mallard, because it hunts for fish while wading near the edge of the pond 
b)
The pied-billed grebe, because it dives in open water to get crayfish on the bottom of the pond 
c)
The great egret, because it hunts in water near the edge of the pond for fish and other prey
d)
None of these 
17.
a)
Increased gill surface area has allowed the cichlids to change their diet and avoid competing with the Nile perch. 
b)
Increased gill surface area has allowed the cichlids to be camouflaged and avoid being eaten by the Nile perch. 
c)
Increased gill surface area has allowed the cichlids to leave Lake Victoria and establish populations in nearby bodies of water. 
d)
Increased gill surface area has allowed the cichlids to better absorb the limited oxygen in the water. 
18.
a)
The functions of living things occur in cells. 
b)
Cells exist only in multicellular organisms. 
c)
Living things are composed of cells. 
d)
Cells contain hereditary information. 
19.

In which position does North America experience winter?

a)

Position 1, because North America receives the most direct sun

b)

Position 2, because North America is tilted toward the sun

c)

Position 3, because North America is parallel to the sun

d)

Position 4, because North America is tilted away from the sun

20.
a)
February 5, March 7, April 5, May 4 
b)
February 15, March 17, April 15, May 14 
c)
February 25, March 27, April 25, May 24 
d)
February 29, March 31, April 29, May 28 
21.
a)
a main-sequence star in spectral class B 
b)
a supergiant in spectral class K
c)
a main-sequence star in spectral class K or M 
d)
a white dwarf in spectral class B 
22.
The universe has many different components. Which list places four components of the universe in the most likely order from smallest to largest? 
a)
Planets, stars, galaxies, nebulae 
b)
Nebulae, stars, planets, galaxies 
c)
Galaxies, stars, planets, nebulae
d)
Planets, stars, nebulae, galaxies
23.
With the use of the Hubble Space Telescope, scientists recently discovered a giant runaway star. It is 90 times larger than the sun and is very hot and blue-white in color. Why does the sun appear to be brighter than this runaway star when viewed from Earth? 
a)
The sun is a different color than the runaway star.
b)
The sun is older than the runaway star. 
c)
The sun is closer to Earth than the runaway star. 
d)
The sun is made of different elements than the runaway star. 
24.
a)
About 46 light-years
b)
390 light-years
c)
Approximately 2800 light-years
d)
7.18 light-years
25.
In July 1994 the comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 collided with the planet Jupiter, as scientists had predicted. To be able to accurately predict when a comet will collide with a planet, it is essential to understand — 
a)
the composition of a planet’s atmosphere 
b)
the gravitational attraction that exists between all bodies 
c)
the attraction of opposite poles of a magnet to each other
d)
the formation of comets 
26.
Atoms with similar properties are most likely located...
a)
in the same period.
b)
in the same group.
c)
in different periods.
d)
to the right and left of each other.
27.
The atomic number of this pictured element is
a)
28
b)
58.6934
c)
Ni
d)
Nickel
28.

An element has 7 protons and an atomic mass of 14.00. How many neutrons does this element have?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

14

d)

13

29.

The table below lists the characteristics of an element.

What is the identity of this element?

a)

Ytterbium (Yb)

b)

Yttrium (Y)

c)

Galium (Ga)

d)

Samarium (Sm)

30.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies the element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive.

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

31.

Which two elements have the same number of energy levels?

a)

Ca and Mg

b)

Sr and Db

c)

Si and Mg

d)

Cl and I

32.

Which of these formulas contain equal numbers of nitrogen atoms?

a)

I and III

b)

I and IV

c)

II and III

d)

I, II and V

33.

How is possible for new crust to be formed without increasing the surface area of the Earth?

a)

Crust is destroyed at the same time it is created

b)

New crust is underwater where it sinks

c)

New crust breaks more easily than the old crust

34.
Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?
a)
Energy from the Sun
b)
Magnetic Pole Reversal
c)
Convection currents in the mantle
d)
Faults in Mountain Ranges
35.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Ocean Ridge were all created by this boundary
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Reform
d)
Transform
36.
What kind of plate boundary occurs where two plates grind past each other without destroying or producing
lithosphere?
a)
convergent 
b)
transform
c)
divergent
37.

What phase comes after

a)
b)
c)
38.
If there is a full moon on March 2, when would you expect the Third Quarter?
a)
March 5
b)
March 9
c)
March 16
d)
March 23
39.
If today was a full moon, what would be the moon phase in one week?
a)
New Moon
b)
First Quarter
c)
Third Quarter
d)
Full Moon
40.
If the current moon phase is at position 2, where would it be in two weeks?
a)
full moon
b)
waning gibbous
c)
third quarter
d)
back to position 2
41.

When the moon is located in the positions shown, what special tides can occur?

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

c)

High Tide

d)

Low Tide

42.
Which answer correctly labels each letter as day and night? 
a)
X = night
Y = day
b)
X = day
Y = night
43.

Which of these locations on Earth experiences the least change in the number of daylight hours throughout the year?

a)

Equator

b)

North Pole

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Tropic of Capricorn

44.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 3?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
45.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
46.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
47.

A topographic map is provided. The highest peak represented by the topographic map can be found in which quadrant?

a)

A3

b)

B1

c)

B2

d)

C2

48.

Provided are satellite photos from two different years of the same beach. The point of sand, indicated with an arrow, has shifted due to wave action. If similar rates of erosion and deposition occur, where would be the logical place to expect the point of sand to be located by 2015?

a)

Between W and X

b)

Centered on Y

c)

Between Y and Z

d)

Centered on Z

49.

In which direction is Mill River flowing?

a)

Southeast

b)

Southwest

c)

Northeast

d)

Northwest

50.
Lines on a topographic map that connect lines of equal elevation:
a)
contour lines
b)
contour interval
c)
index contour
d)
contour loops 
51.
A satellite image of a river is provided.
The river shown in the satellite image is carrying sediments in which direction?
a)
From south to north
b)
From southwest to northeast
c)
From northwest to southeast
d)
From east to west
52.

An archer pulls the bowstring back, then releases the string and the arrow flies forward. Pulling the string back is the...

a)

action force

b)

reaction force

c)

net force

d)

inertia

53.
An automobile you are riding in suddenly stops, but you continue to go forward.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
54.

What is the acceleration of a 50 kg object pushed with a force of 500 newtons?

a)

100 m/s2

b)

25,000 m/s2

c)

10 m/s2

d)

25 m/s2

55.
Which of the following explains the difference between speed and velocity?
a)
One has motion, and the other does not.
b)
One has direction, and the other does not.
c)
One involves time, and the other does not.
d)
One involves acceleration, and the other does not.
56.

The picture is an example of Newton's...

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

57.
When all the forces on an object are equal and opposite, & the net force is zero, that's...
a)
balanced forces
b)
unbalanced forces
c)
terminal velocity
d)
reaction forces
58.

If the net force (Fnet) is 0, _____

a)

the forces are balanced.

b)

the object just keeps doing what it was doing.

c)

the object maintains its same speed and direction.

d)

the object maintains its velocity.

e)

the object does not speed up, slow down, or turn.

59.

The net force acting on the object is acting _____.

a)

to the right

b)

to the left

c)

up

d)

down

60.

Which of the following are ways to accelerate?

a)

speed up

b)

slow down

c)

turn

61.
 Copper interferes with photosynthesis algae and other aquatic plants.
What would be the most likely result of an accidental spill of these compounds in an aquatic environment?
a)
The fish would grow larger than usual.
b)
The zooplankton population would increase
c)
The plants would increase in size but decrease in number
d)
The plant populations would be reduced.
62.
A certain plant needs moisture, carbon dioxide, oxygen, light, and minerals to survive. This scenario shows that this particular living organism depends on .
a)
Biotic and Abiotc Factors
b)
Biotic Factors 
c)
Abiotic Factors 
d)
None of the Above
63.
**
a)
soil
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
oxygen
64.

Due to limited resources, what may happen to the buffalo in this picture?

a)

one would become a predator and eat the other buffalo

b)

there would be mutualism and they would work together to find more water

c)

they would find something else to prey upon and get water from the prey

d)

competition would result in some getting enough water and others not getting enough water

65.
a)
Cattle that eat grass and feed
b)
Goats that eat weeds and shrubs
c)
Turkeys that eat seeds and fruit
d)
Hogs that eat fruit, seed and feed
66.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
67.
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
68.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
69.
a)
Mayflies that were previously abundant are no longer present in the stream
b)
Stone flies and midges thrive and compete for the same food source
c)
Large numbers of crayfish are suddenly dead
d)
Riffle beetles have become more abundant in the stream
70.
Insecticides are sprayed over a large area in an effort to reduce the number of grasshoppers that are eating the corn plants. How will this change affect this food chain? 
a)
The number of grasshoppers will increase
b)
The number of lizards will increase
c)
The number of lizards and hawks will decrease
d)
The number of grasshoppers, lizards, and hawks will decrease

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