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Science GAPS

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 2hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Atoms form ions because they want to have a (a)   outer shell.

2.

Ionic bonds are formed between...

a)

Non - metals

b)

A metal and a non-metal

c)

Metals

3.

How is an ionic bond formed?

a)

Sharing of electrons

b)

Delocalised electrons

c)

Transfer of electrons

4.

Select all of the statements below that are correct to describe the structure and properties of ionic compounds...

a)

They have high melting and boiling points

b)

They have a lattice structure

c)

The ions are held together by intermolecular forces

d)

They can conduct electricity when molten

e)

They can conduct electricity when solid

5.

Which of the below is an ionic compounds?

a)

Ni

b)

MgCl2

c)

H2O

d)

CH4

6.

An example of an ionic compound is Sodium Chloride, which is made from Na+ and Cl- ions. Why do these ions form an ionic bond?

a)

They have like charges

b)

They are from the same group

c)

They are from the same period

d)

They have opposite charges

7.

Lithium is in group 1 of the periodic table, which ion would it form?

a)

Li-

b)

Li2-

c)

Li+

d)

Li2+

8.

Oxygen is in group 6 of the periodic table, which ion would it form?

a)

O-

b)

O+

c)

O2-

d)

O2+

9.

Lead Chloride is an ionic compound, made up from Pb2+ ions and Cl- ions. Which is the correct formula for this compound?

a)

PbCl3

b)

PbCl

c)

PbCl4

d)

PbCl2

10.

Magnesium Hydroxide is an ionic compound made up from Mg2+ and OH- ions. Which is its correct formula?

a)

MgOH

b)

MgOH2

c)

Mg(OH)2

d)

MgO

11.
Ionic bonds form between two ions that have...
a)
ionic compounds
b)
negative charges
c)
positive charges
d)
opposite charges
12.
Ions that are made of more than one atom are called...
a)
ionic compounds
b)
crystals
c)

polyatomic ions

d)
ionic bonds
13.
Which is most likely to form a negative ion...
a)

an element from Group 7

b)
a metal
c)
an element from Group 1
d)
an element with atoms that have eight valence electrons
14.
A(n) _____________ is an atom or group of atoms that has an electric charge. 
a)
ion
b)
electron
15.
When an atom loses a valence electron, it becomes a(n) _________ion.
a)
positive 
b)
negative
16.

Calcium Oxide, CaO

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

17.

Calcium Chloride, CaCl2

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

18.

Why do ionic bonds form?

a)

so the number of protons equals the number of electrons

b)

to fill the outermost energy level to make the atom stable

c)

so an atom can become unstable

19.

If an aluminum atom has 13 protons (+) and 10 electrons (-), what is it's charge?

a)

Al+3

b)

Al+13

c)

Al+10

d)

Al-10

20.

if NONMETALS are more likely to GAIN electrons, they will form ...

a)

anions

b)

neutral atoms

c)

cations

21.
Elements in Group 1 lose one electron to form ions with a _________________ charge.
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
0
d)
1-
22.

In the chemical formula for an ionic compound, which item is written first?

a)

positive ion (cation)

b)

negative ion (anion)

c)

subscript

d)

it's alphabetical

23.
What element always has an oxidation number of +1?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Fluorine
c)
Chlorine
d)
Iodine
24.

The transfer of Valence electrons from a metal to a non metal is known as

a)

Covalent Bonding

b)

Metallic bonding

c)

Molecular bonding

d)

Ionic Bonding

25.

A(n) _________ is an ion with a positive (+) charge.

a)

anion

b)

cation

c)

ion

d)

solute

26.

Covalent bonds are formed between...

a)

two or more metal atoms

b)

two or more non-metal atoms

c)

a metal and a non-metal atom

27.

Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are transferred between atoms.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Atoms can only share electrons in the (a)   shell.

29.

Fluorine is a diatomic molecule. Fluorine is in Group 7. How many electrons are shared in this covalent bond?

(a)  

30.

Oxygen is a diatomic molecule. Oxygen is in Group 6. How many electrons are shared in this covalent bond?

(a)  

31.

The structure of ammonia is shown in the diagram. What is the formula for ammonia?

a)

NH3

b)

HN3

c)

N3H

d)

HN3

32.

What are the disadvantages of using displayed formulae, like the one shown?

a)

The 3D structure of the molecule is not shown.

b)

They can show how atoms are bonded in large molecules.

c)

They do not show which atom each electron comes from.

d)

They can be used to find the structural formula of the molecule.

33.

Select the properties of simple covalent substances.

a)

Low melting and boiling points.

b)

High melting and boiling points.

c)

Do not conduct electricity.

d)

Good conductors of electricity.

34.

Why do simple covalent substances not conduct electricity?

a)

They have low melting points.

b)

They have low boiling points.

c)

There are no delocalised electrons or free ions to carry the charge.

d)

The molecules are too large.

35.

Covalent structures have low melting and boiling points because it does not take much energy to break the _____ intermolecular forces.

a)

weak

b)

strong

36.

In a transverse wave, the vibrations are (a)   to the direction of the wave.

37.

Waves can transfer...

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

information

38.

The vibrations in a longitudinal wave are (a)   to the direction of energy transfer.

39.

Select the transverse waves.

a)

water waves

b)

light

c)

ultrasound

d)

radio waves

e)

P waves

40.

Sound waves are (a)   waves.

41.

Seismic waves can be...

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

42.

Sound waves can travel through a vacuum because they don't require particles.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Compare and contrast transverse and longitudinal waves, giving examples of each.

4 lines
44.

Which pathogen is non-living?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasite/Protist

e)

They are all alive

45.

Which type of pathogen is responsible for causing the flu, chicken pox, and yellow fever?

a)

viruses

b)

parasites

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

46.
How could you describe the size of a virus?
a)
Smaller than bacteria
b)
Larger than a parasite
c)
About the size of a dime
d)
Smaller than a proton
47.

Which pathogen is treated with antibiotics?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

fungi

48.

Athlete's Foot is caused by:

a)

fungus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

virus

49.
An infectious disease:
a)
can be spread from person to person.
b)
can not be spread from person to person.
50.
One way to prevent the spreading of disease is:
a)
to cough without covering your mouth.
b)
to wash your hands often.
c)
to rub your eyes and nose when sick.
51.

A microbe that can cause harm is known as a

a)

Pathogen

b)

Pathogon

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

52.
Which is not an infectious disease?
a)
Malaria
b)
diabetes
c)
food poisoning
d)
measles
53.
Cause of common cold and flu.
a)
Viruses
b)
Bacteria
c)
Reaction by the body to substances
54.
What is  a communicable disease?
a)
A disease that cannot be spread person to person.
b)
A disease that can be spread from person to person.
55.
What is  a communicable disease?
a)
A disease that cannot be spread person to person.
b)
A disease that can be spread from person to person.
56.

Mosquitoes and houseflies are examples of organisms that can spread disease. These types of organisms are refereed to as?

a)

Vectors

b)

Fungi

c)

Pathogens

57.
Washing your hands is the _________ effective strategy for preventing the spread of disease?
a)
least
b)
most
58.
Athlete's foot is an example of this pathogen
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
59.

What are two viral diseases that do have a vaccine?

a)

Measles and typhoid

b)

Measles and malaria

c)

Measles and chicken pox

60.

This is the transmission of infectious disease through air.

a)

Airborne transmission

b)

Droplet spread

c)

Contaminated Objects

d)

Insect bites

61.

The carrier of malaria causing protozoan is:

a)

Female anopheles mosquito

b)

cockroach

c)

housefly

d)

female Aedes mosquito

62.

Which of the following is not caused by bacteria.

a)

Cholera

b)

Typhoid

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

63.

Which of the following is not a communicable disease

a)

Cholera

b)

cancer

c)

Chicken pox

d)

malaria

64.

What is the pressure equation?

a)

Pressure = Force x Area

b)

Pressure = Force ÷ Area

c)

Pressure = Area ÷ Force

d)

Pressure = Area2 ÷ Force

65.

Which property do gasses have that liquid do not?

a)

Gasses can be compressed

b)

Gasses can flow

c)

Gasses can gain energy

d)

Gasses can change shape

66.

If a piston has a face of 2cm2 and a force of 5N is applied what is the total pressure?

a)

2.5N/cm2

b)

0.4N/cm2

c)

10N/cm2

d)

10N/m2

67.

If a pressure of 100N/m2 is applied to a piston with an area of 1.5m2 what is the total force?

a)

150N

b)

75m2

c)

0.015N

d)

50N

68.

What happens to the pressure as you go deeper underwater?

a)

It increases

b)

It descreases

c)

It stays the same

69.

In the image which hole will allow the water to travel furthest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

70.

When going higher in the atmosphere the pressure will

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the Same

71.
What pressure does a 4000N horse exert on the ground if each foot is 10cm2?
a)
40 N/cm2
b)
100 N/cm2
c)
400 N/cm2
d)
10 N/cm2
72.
Army tank tracks are useful for travelling through the mud because..
a)
they decrease the force the vehicle exerts on the ground
b)
they increase the force the vehicle exerts on the ground
c)
they decrease the pressure the vehicle exerts on the ground
d)
they increase the pressure the vehicle exerts on the ground
73.

Why is it dangerous to hold your breathe when SCUBA diving?

a)

Air in your lungs can expand as you descend, damaging them

b)

Air in your lungs can expand as you ascend, damaging them

c)

Water pressure can force water into your lungs

d)

Your lungs stretch as you go deeper due to increasing pressure

74.

Why does tea taste bad on Mt. Everest

a)

Water boils at a lower temperature

b)

Atmospheric pressure breaks the tea bag

c)

Water cannot boil on Everest

d)

It's not bad but its a lot of effort and you always forget to bring milk

75.

Why do hydraulic mechanisms work with liquids?

a)

Liquids apply pressure in all directions equally

b)

Liquids can be compressed

c)

Liquids increase pressure with depth

d)

Liquids have a fixed shape

76.
The amount of force pushing on an area is the definition of....
a)
Fluid
b)
Viscosity
c)
Barometer
d)
Pressure
77.
Pressure is measured in what units
a)
Newtons
b)
m/s
c)
Pascals
d)
Moles
78.
A person wearing steel toe capped boots and a person wearing stilleto heels stand on a wooden floor. They both have the same weight. Which person exerts a greater pressure on the floor?
a)
The person wearing the boots because the boots have a larger surface area in contact with the floor
b)
The person with the stiletto heels because they have a larger surface area in contact with the floor
c)
The person wearing the boots because the boots have a smaller surface area in contact with the floor 
d)
The person with the stiletto heels because they have a smaller surface area in contact with the floor
79.

Which of the following would increase the pressure on a system?

a)

Increase the Temperature

b)

Pump in more gas

c)

Decrease the volume of the container

d)

All of these

80.

Newtons are the correct unit for which of the following?

a)

Force

b)

Work

c)

Power

d)

Acceleration

81.
In order to do work on an object, the force you exert must be...
a)
The maximum amount of force you are able to exert.
b)
In the same direction as the object's motion.
c)
In a direction opposite to Earth's gravitational force.
d)
quick and deliberate.
82.

Which is the correct unit for work?

a)

Joules

b)

Newton

c)

meter

d)

Watts

83.

It took 500 Newtons of force to push a car four meters. How much work was done?

a)

2000 J

b)

125 J

c)

0.008 J

d)

500 J

84.
1. A book weighing 1.0 newton is lifted 2 meters.  How much work was done?
a)
2 J
b)
0.5 J
85.
A force of 15 newtons is used to push a box along the floor a distance of 3 meters.  How much work was done?
a)
3 J
b)
45 J
86.

units for work are

a)

newtons

b)

joules

c)

meters

d)

seconds

87.
work transfers
a)
sweat
b)
energy
c)
velocity
d)
effort
88.
What is the formula for work?
a)
Force = work x distance
b)
Distance = force x work
c)
Work = force x distance
d)
Work = force x mass
89.
If a lion drags his prey 10 meters to his den doing 500 joules of work, how much force did he use?
a)
50 Newtons
b)
500 Joules
c)
50,000 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
90.
If a boulder is lifted by a forklift a distance of 10 meters with a force of 30 Newtons. How much work is being done?
a)
.333 Joules
b)
3 Joules
c)
300 Joules
d)
60 Joules
91.
Which of the following IS NOT an example of work being done?
a)
Pushing a cart in a store
b)
Shooting a basketball
c)
A stand off in tug of war
d)
Running a mile
92.
Which of the following is an example of work being done?
a)
Teacher sitting in a chair
b)
Book resting on desk
c)
Keys hanging from a key chain
d)
A ball being rolled on the floor
93.

The two main causes of variation within a species are:

a)

Genetics

b)

Diet

c)

Environment

d)

Personality

94.

Some characteristics are caused by both genetics and environmental influences, select all those that only genetic.

a)

Weight

b)

Scar

c)

Sporting ability

d)

Eye colour

e)

Blood group

95.

Which type of graph would be used to show continuous data?

a)

Bar Chart

b)

Pie Chart

c)

Histogram

d)

Line Graph

96.

Name the main 2 scientists who discovered the structure of DNA

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Franklin and Crick

c)

Watson and Mendel

d)

Creese and Bareham

97.

Select all the statements about the structure of DNA that are TRUE.

a)

The structure is described as a double helix

b)

A pairs with C

c)

C pairs with G

d)

The bases are held together with hydrogen bonds

e)

The bases are: Argon, Thymine, Cyan, Ghana

98.

Based on the complementary base pairing rules what would be the correct base pairing of the following strand: AGC TGA

a)

TGT ACA

b)

AAT CGT

c)

TCG ACT

d)

ACT CAT

99.

Where is DNA found?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Anywhere in the cell.

100.

How many chromosomes are in a diploid cell?

a)

50

b)

46

c)

20

d)

16

101.

(a)   is a short length of DNA found on a chromosome that codes for a particular characteristic.

102.

An alternative form of a gene is called an (a)   .

103.

The genetic make up of an organism is known as their (a)  

104.

The physical characteristics of an organism are known as their (a)  

105.

Which of these would be correct for an organism that was described as being homozygous recessive.

a)

bb

b)

BB

c)

Bb

d)

Bbb

106.

If brown eyes are dominant (E) and green eyes recessive (e), what colour eyes would a cat have if they had the genotype, Ee?

a)

Brown

b)

Green

c)

Blue

107.

What process takes place to ensure only half the number of chromosomes (23) are found in gametes?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Fertilisation

d)

Phagocytosis

108.

True or False: Males are XY

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Cells (Eg: gametes) with only half the number of chromosomes are known as (a)  

110.

The reason Meiosis takes place is to.......

a)

Maintain the chromosome number within cells.

b)

Make the maths easier for those people studying DNA

c)

Allow males and females to reproduce

d)

For fun!

111.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
112.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
113.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
114.
Darwin referred to this as survival of the fittest. Over time, it results in changes in the inherited characteristics of a population because organisms with adaptations that make them fit for their environment will survive and reproduce better than those without favorable traits.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Genetic Variation
c)
Survival of the Fittest
115.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
116.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
117.
The struggle for existence against other members of an organisms species is
a)
Competition
b)
Natural Selection
c)
gene flow
d)
genetic drift
118.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the process of natural selection?
a)
Overpopulation
b)
Fossils
c)
Competition
d)
Variations
119.
The 4 mechanisms of evolution are:
a)
mutation, extinction, adaptation, and natural selection
b)
variation, environmental changes, extinction, and genetic engineering
c)
extinction, variation, adaptation, and global warming
d)
inherited traits, adaptation, genetic engineering, and extinction
120.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
121.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
122.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
123.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
124.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
125.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
126.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
127.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
128.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
129.
In his observations of the finches in the Galapagos Islands, Darwin stated that we could never “watch” natural selection in action.  Why did Darwin believe this?
a)
Natural selection happens so quickly, it is difficult to see.
b)
Natural selection is an internal process that can not be outwardly observed. 
c)
Natural selection occurs over so many generations, it is impossible to see changes occur.
d)
Natural selection is a process that occurs randomly, and it is unlikely that a human would be present when it occurs.
130.
The fact that all organisms have DNA as their genetic material is evidence that 
a)
all organisms undergo natural selection. 
b)
all organisms may have descended from a common ancestor.
c)
selective breeding takes place every day.
d)
genetic resistance rarely occurs.
131.

Traits that help an organism survive in a specific environment.

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Behavior

d)

Environment

132.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
133.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To be cool and look different from other species.

b)

To be able to eat the specific

food that is available in the environment.

c)

To protect itself against predators.

d)

To protect itself against prey.

134.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
135.
All mutations and adaptations usually lead to what process?
a)
selective breeding
b)
behavioral
c)
natural selection
d)
genetic engineering
136.

A theory that explains how life has changed over time.

a)

natural selection

b)

evolution

137.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
138.

The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot(pollution) from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?

a)

Dark moth

b)

Light moth

c)

Both will be equally successful

d)

Neither will be successful

139.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

140.
A German Shepard would probably not survive in the wild because...
a)
the dog is mixed.
b)
the dog is a product of artificial selection and not adapted for the wild.
c)
the dog is dumb.
d)
the dog is a product of natural selection and can survive in the wild.
141.

Scientist have created larger and sweeter strawberries for humans to consume (eat). What process was used?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

142.
If a mouse population changes color from white to black over many generations due to their environment, what selection is taking place?
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection 
d)
Hydrogen and Helium 
143.
Natural Selection = Nature made
Artificial Selection = Man made 
a)
True
b)
False
144.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

145.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

146.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

147.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

148.

Which of these materials is magnetic?

a)

Iron

b)

Cobalt

c)

Brass

d)

Steel

e)

Nickel

149.

Which will turn a piece of steel into a permanent magnet?

a)

Line it up with the Earth's magnetic field and tape along its length with a hammer

b)

Stroke it with a magnet , same pole and same direction each time

c)

Put it inside a magnetic field

d)

Wash it

e)

Heat it

150.

Which of these will demagnetise a permanent magnet

a)

Hit it

b)

Heat it

c)

Use it too much

d)

Stroke it randomly with another magnet in different directions with different poles

e)

Wash it

151.

Here are the domains in a bar of steel. Which is true?

a)

The steel is magnetic

b)

The steel is a magnet

152.

Here are the domains in a bar of steel. Which is true?

a)

The steel is magnetic

b)

The steel is a magnet

153.

In magnetically hard materials...

a)

Aligned domains stay aligned

b)

Domains can be aligned, but become misaligned when the material is outside a magnetic field

154.

In magnetically soft materials...

a)

Aligned domains stay aligned

b)

Domains can be aligned, but become misaligned when the material is outside a magnetic field

155.

Which material is magnetically hard?

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

c)

Brass

d)

Copper

156.

Which material is magnetically soft?

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

c)

Brass

d)

Copper

157.

These two magnets are under a sheet of paper in a tray of iron filings. The magnets are...

a)

Attracting

b)

Repelling

158.

These two magnets are under a sheet of paper in a tray of iron filings. The magnets are...

a)

Attracting

b)

Repelling

159.

Which is true?

a)

A is a north pole, B is south pole

b)

B is a north pole, A is a south pole

c)

Both A & B are north poles

d)

Both A & B are south poles

160.

If the magnet is removed, which way will the compasses point (if they are spread out)

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

d)

West

e)

Could be any direction

161.

What type of bond is formed when electrons are shared between atoms?

a)

Metallic Bond

b)

Hydrogen Bond

c)

Covalent Bond

d)

Ionic Bond

162.

Which of the following is a property of ionic compounds?

a)

They are soluble in non-polar solvents.

b)

They have high melting and boiling points.

c)

They conduct electricity in solid state.

d)

They are malleable and ductile.

163.

Which element is most likely to form a cation?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Fluorine

c)

Sodium

d)

Chlorine

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