wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Psych 1st Semester Review Quizizz

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best defines psychology?

a)

The scientific study of behavior and mental processes

b)

The philosophical study of the mind

c)

The analysis of human interactions

d)

The study of biological systems

2.

What does the cognitive approach primarily emphasize?

a)

Genetics and the brain’s physical structure

b)

Thinking, memory, and problem-solving

c)

The influence of culture on behavior

d)

The role of survival instincts

3.

A researcher interprets ambiguous data in a way that supports their hypothesis. Which type of bias is this?

a)

Hindsight Bias

b)

Social Desirability Bias

c)

Confirmation Bias

d)

Sampling Bias

4.

After a surprising result, someone claims they 'knew it all along.' This is an example of which bias?

a)

Social Desirability Bias

b)

Confirmation Bias

c)

Hindsight Bias

d)

Cognitive Bias

5.

In an experiment, the variable that is manipulated is called the:

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Independent variable

c)

Control variable

d)

Confounding variable

6.

A correlation coefficient of +0.85 indicates:

a)

No relationship between variables

b)

A weak negative relationship

c)

A strong positive relationship

d)

Causation

7.

Which of the following accurately describes operational definitions?

a)

Broad definitions used in all experiments

b)

Specific explanations of how variables are measured

c)

Descriptions of the population being studied

d)

Hypothetical constructs without empirical basis

8.
This perspective emphasises the importance of physical processes in the body, e.g. genetic inheritance & neural function.
a)
Biological approach
b)
Cognitvie approach
c)
Behavioural approach
d)
Social approach
9.

The center of visual perception

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

10.

Which Sleep stage features vivid dreaming and muscle paralysis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

REM

11.

A normal sleep cycle through all 4 sleep stages should occur approximately every _________________________

a)

3 seconds

b)

90 minutes

c)

120 minutes

d)

30 minutes

12.

The name for a living things biological processes (such as sleep) that occur roughly every 24 hours is the

a)

Circle of life

b)

Superchiasmatic Nucleus

c)

Circadian Rhythm

d)

Circulo de respirar

13.
Focusing conscious awareness on a particular stimulus. 
a)
selective attention
b)
Weber's Law
c)
parallel processing
14.
Information processing that begins with sensory receptors and works up into the brain.
a)
top down processing
b)
subliminal processing
c)
bottom up processing
15.

The process by which your ears convert sound waves to neural impulses is called...

a)

sensory adaptation

b)

accommodation

c)

parallel processing

d)

sensory introduction

e)

Transduction

16.

Although Bill was seated next to his friend, he was able to smell the burning popcorn a full minute earlier than his friend. Bill must have a lower _________ for smell.

a)

accommodation level

b)

absolute threshold

c)

tolerance level

d)

gustatory saturation level

e)

adaptation level

17.
Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.
a)
encoding; detection
b)
detection; interpretation
c)
interpretation; organization
d)
threshold; transduction
18.

Perceptual set is...

a)

seeing something in a different way

b)

a predisposition to perceive something in accordance with our expectations

c)

perceiving something in a way that is consistent with others

d)

failing to perceive something

19.
A researcher presents two lights of varying brightness to a subject who is asked to respond "same" or "different" by comparing their intensities. The researcher is seeking the
a)
just noticeable difference.
b)
absolute threshold.
c)
subliminal threshold.
d)
minimal threshold.
20.

The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as...

a)

opponent process theory

b)

feature detector

c)

sensory interaction

d)

Weber's law

e)

absolute threshold

21.

While singing to you on your birthday, your friends leave off the very last word of the song, “Happy birthday to you, Happy birthday to you, Happy birthday dear David, Happy birthday to….” Your tendency to mentally fill in the last word best reflects which of the following Gestalt principles of organization?

a)

continuity

b)

proximity

c)

connectedness

d)

closure

e)

figure and ground

22.
What is it called when we construct perceptions based on experience and expectations?
a)
Sensation
b)
Selective attention
c)
Bottom-Up processing
d)
Top-Down processing
23.
What does this picture show?
a)
similarity
b)
closure
c)
figure ground
d)
Connectedness
24.
What is it called when an object is higher in our field of vision so it seems farther away?
a)
Relative size
b)
Relative height
c)
Interposition
d)
Linear perspective
25.
The eye’s “blind spot” is related to:
a)
light rays focusing too far in front of the retina.
b)
light rays focusing too far behind the retina.
c)
a cluster of cells around the fovea which contains cones, but no rods.
d)
an area without receptor cells where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
26.
Sherry easily remembers the telephone reservation number for Holiday Inns by using the mnemonic 1-800-HOLIDAY. She is using a memory aid known as
a)
chunking
b)
imagination inflation
c)
the serial position effect<br />
d)
the peg-word system<br />
e)
implicit memory
27.
Although Mr. Kameda has recently learned to play poker quite well, he cannot consciously remember ever having played poker. It is likely that he has suffered damage to his
a)
brainstem
b)
cerebellum
c)
hypothalamus
d)
hippocampus
e)
motor cortex
28.
The fact that older people are often less able than younger adults to recall recently learned information can be best explained in terms of the greater difficulty older people have with
a)
automatic processing.
b)
iconic memory.
c)
state-dependent memory.
d)
retrieval.
e)
implicit memory.
29.
After learning the combination for his new locker at school, Milton is unable to remember the combination for his year-old bicycle lock. Milton is experiencing the effects of
a)
encoding failure.
b)
source amnesia.
c)
retroactive interference.
d)
proactive interference.
e)
automatic processing.
30.
Memory of your familiar old e-mail password may block the recall of your new password. This illustrates
a)
source amnesia.
b)
retroactive interference.
c)
the serial position effect.
d)
proactive interference.
e)
chunking.
31.
Your friend told you that eating chocolate was shown to improve memory recall. You may later recall this “fact” but forget where you heard it. You assume that you heard it on the news, a credible source, so you begin eating chocolate. Your behavior best illustrates
a)
implicit memory.
b)
mood-congruent memory.
c)
source amnesia.
d)
retroactive interference.
e)
motivated forgetting.
32.
Studying psychological concepts while riding the bus, walking to lunch, and waiting for class to begin will improve your memory of the concepts by taking advantage of
a)
chunking.
b)
the self-reference effect.
c)
priming.
d)
the serial position effect.
e)
the spacing effect.
33.
Which term refers to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating?
a)
schema
b)
heuristic
c)
cognition
d)
syntax
e)
language
34.
On a fishing trip, Ed realizes that he has mistakenly packed the sewing box instead of the tackle box. He wants to fish but returns home because he does not have any lines or hooks. Ed’s failure to realize that sewing thread can be used as fishing line and that a bent needle can be used as a hook is an example of
a)
Cognitive accommodation
b)
Backward masking
c)
Functional fixedness
d)
Proactive interference
35.
According to the serial position effect, you will remember more: 
a)
items at the beginning and end of a list, than in the middle.
b)
nitems in the middle of a list, than at the beginning and end.
c)
vocabulary words if you process them visually.
d)
nvocabulary words if you process them acoustically.
36.
We have all had the experience of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.  We are asked to remember someone’s name.  We are certain that we know the name and feel as if we are just about to remember it, yet it remains elusive.  What type of forgetting might be at work here?
a)
encoding failure
b)
retroactive interference
c)
retrieval failure
d)
motivated forgetting
37.
“The magical number seven, plus or minus two” refers to the storage capacity of ________ memory.
a)
short-term
b)
explicit
c)
implicit
d)
sensory
38.
The various vowel sounds that can be placed between a t and an n produce words such as tan, ten, tin, and ton. These various vowel sounds represent different
a)
prototypes.
b)
semantics.
c)
morphemes.
d)
phonemes.
39.
In the words “helped” and “called,” the “ed” ending is a(n)
a)
prototype.
b)
morpheme.
c)
syntax.
d)
algorithm.
40.
Airline reservations typically decline after a highly publicized airplane crash because people overestimate the incidence of such disasters. In such instances, people’s decisions are being influenced by:
a)
Belief bias
b)
The availability heuristic
c)
The representativeness heuristic
d)
Functional fixedness
41.
Which of the following has a tendency to be the hardest way to learn something?
a)
When positive transfer occurs.
b)
Using shallow processing.
c)
Using elaborative rehearsal
d)
Using deep processing.
42.
The formula for IQ is 
a)
actual age x grade / 100
b)
mental age x actual age
c)
mental age / actual age  x 100
d)
actual age / mental age  x 100
43.
A test that measures a person's mastery and knowledge of a subject or various subjects is a(n)
a)
Achievement test
b)
Aptitude test
c)
Intelligence test
d)
Personality test
44.
Which brain part is responsible for facilitating explicit memories?
a)
brain stem
b)
cerebellum
c)
amygdala
d)
hippocampus
45.

A test designed to predict a person's future performance.

a)

aptitude test

b)

intelligence test

c)

achievement test

46.

A condition in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill.

a)

Mental Retardation

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Savant Syndrome

47.
The Flynn effect is the finding that
a)
intelligence seems to increase with every generation.
b)
television has decreased intellectual performance.
c)
linguistic skills decline with age.
d)
the more times people take a test, the better they tend to score.
48.

Fluid intelligence refers most directly to a person's

a)

ability to assume the perspective of others.

b)

ability to utilize diffuse brain regions for storing memories.

c)

accumulated knowledge.

d)

ability to reason speedily and abstractly.

49.

On a normal distribution, if the mean is 80, and the standard deviation is 20, what is the range of scores that will fall within one standard deviation of the mean?

a)

60 - 80

b)

40 - 120

c)

60 - 100

d)

85 - 115

50.

On an IQ test, how many test takers will fall within one standard deviation of the mean?

a)

68%

b)

84.1%

c)

95%

d)

99.7%

51.
The Fundamental Attribution Error refers to our tendency to overestimate______ and underestimate _________.
a)
normative influences; informational influences
b)
personal dispositions; situational influences
c)
situational influences; personal dispositions
d)
informational influences; normative influences
52.
We are more likely to comply with a larger request because we've already agreed to a smaller one?
a)
Bystander Effect
b)
Attribution Theory
c)
Foot-in-the-Door Phenonomon
d)
Groupthink
53.
At a large rock concert, Carmen lost her inhibitions and acted in a way not consistent with her personality.  What best explains this?
a)
Deindividuation
b)
Bystander Effect
c)
Social Facilitation
d)
Mere Exposure Effect
54.
The tendency of people to exert less individual effort when they are pooling their efforts towards a common goal.
a)
deindividuation
b)
bystander effect
c)
social loafing
d)
foot-in-the-door phenomenon
55.
The belief that those who suffer deserve their fate is expressed in the...
a)
just-world phenomenon
b)
phenomenon of in-group bias
c)
out-group bias phenomenon
d)
mirror-image perception principle
56.
In 1986 the NASA management team made the decision to proceed with the planned launch of the Space Shuttle Challenger despite the belief of several engineers who failed to express their concern that extreme temperatures could destroy vulnerable seals.
a)
group think
b)
bystander effect
c)
social inhibition
d)
group polarization
57.
Which of the following is an example of social facilitation?
a)
A student scores higher on tests taken with classmates than with strangers.
b)
An editor’s productivity increases when she is given a private office.
c)
An elementary school student reads more books when promised free pizza for reading a greater number.
d)
An athlete performs better in games before a large crowd than she does in practice.
58.
The tendency to develop a positive attitude toward a product that has been advertised repeatedly in the media is referred to as
a)
reaction formation
b)
subliminal suggestion
c)
the mere-exposure effect
d)
the Hawthorne effect
59.
People who find themselves engaging in behavior that is against their principles will most likely experience
a)
homeostasis
b)
an approach-avoidance conflict
c)
cognitive dissonance
d)
social facilitation
60.

Four-year-old Craig understands that birds build nests in trees. In his front yard, Craig notices an unusually large nest. He is scared to go near it, fearing that some large bird may attack him. Craig’s father explains to him that squirrels also build nests and that the nest in the front yard is that of a squirrel. Craig changes his thinking to now include the fact that squirrels build nests. Jean Piaget would say that Craig’s new way of thinking about nests is an example of

a)

insight

b)

accommodation

c)

an algorithm

d)

a heuristic

e)

conservation

61.

When ten-month-old Frances throws her toy out of sight, she looks to see where it falls. Developmental psychologists would say that Frances’ behavior indicates that she has developed

a)

centration

b)

conservation

c)

egocentrism

d)

object permanence

e)

accommodation

62.

According to Diana Baumrind, which of the following is a parenting style that, among children raised in the United States, is most closely associated with the development of self-reliance and confidence?

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Authoritative

c)

Permissive

d)

Neglectful

e)

Secure

63.

Zeke is attempting to learn more about his world. When he encounters a new object, he picks it up and puts it in his mouth. Zeke is most likely in which of Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete operational

d)

Formal operational

e)

Postconventional

64.

A young child shown a nine-inch round bowl and a six-inch round bowl containing equal amounts of popcorn says he is certain the smaller bowl has more popcorn than the larger bowl. This child has yet to acquire what Jean Piaget called

a)

object permanence

b)

equilibrium

c)

functional fixedness

d)

conservation

e)

circular reactions

65.

Which of the following research findings supports a strong biological basis for behavior?

a)

Presenting a loud sound just before presenting a neutral stimulus eventually produces fear of the neutral stimulus.

b)

Including misinformation in a question about an event decreases the accuracy of memory for the event.

c)

Observing an aggressive model leads to aggressive behavior by the observer.

d)

Identical twins who are reared apart have similar levels of intelligence.

e)

Individuals working in a group put forth less effort than they put forth when working alone.

66.

Understanding that things continue to exist even when they are not within view is called

a)

mental representation

b)

deep structure

c)

a schema

d)

object permanence

e)

assimilation

67.

In their discussions of the process of development, the advocates of nature in the nature-nurture controversy emphasize which of the following?

a)

Information processing

b)

Maturation

c)

Socialization

d)

Cognition

e)

Experience

68.

The debate over whether development occurs gradually, without discernible shifts, or through a series of distinct stages is termed

a)

maturation vs. learning

b)

continuity vs. discontinuity

c)

nature vs. nurture

d)

developmental vs. cognitive

e)

cross-sectional vs. longitudinal

69.

The debate on the relative contributions of biology and experience to human development is most often referred to as

a)

evolutionary analysis.

b)

behaviorism.

c)

the nature-nurture issue

d)

natural selection.

70.

In a double blind experimental design, which of the following would be true?

a)

The subjects know whether they are in the experimental or control group, but the researcher does not

b)

The researcher knows if subjects have been assigned to the experimental or control group but the subjects do not

c)

Both the researcher and the subjects know whether they have been assigned to the experimental group or the control group

d)

Neither the researcher nor the subjects know whether they have been assigned to the experimental group or the control group

e)

The obervers are unable to see the responses or behaviors of the experimental group during the course of the experimental manipulation

71.

In the Harlow study of emotional attachment, infant monkey's were placed in a cage and given both a "wire" mother and a "cloth" mother. Researchers then moved a bottle of milk from 1 mother to the other while introducing various stimuli to see whether the monkeys would form an attachment to either of the "mothers" in the experiment. In this experiment the independent variable is?

a)

with which "mother" the bottle of milk is placed with

b)

the "wire" moter versus "the" cloth mother

c)

The preference of the infants for the source of milk

d)

the preference of the infants for the "wire" mother

e)

The preference of the infants for the "cloth" mother

72.

This is made up of the brain and spinal cord

a)

Central Nervous System (CNS)

b)

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

c)

Autonomic nervous system

d)

Somatic nervous system

73.

Which part of the peripheral nervous system deals with involuntary activities?

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

74.

The electrical signal that travels down an axon is called?

a)

Axon potential

b)

Action potential

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Action terminal

75.

The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.

a)

synapse

b)

axon terminal

c)

impulse

d)

myelin

76.
In order for a neuron to have an action potential, the neuron must receive more
a)
excitatory neurotransmitters
b)
inhibitory neurotransmitters
c)
agnostic neurotransmitters
d)
antagonistic neurotransmitters
77.

Type of neurons that carry information from the CNS through nerves to effectors such as muscles or glands.

a)

Sensory Neurons

b)

Interneurons

c)

Motor Neurons

78.
With regards to ground beef, consumers respond more positively to an ad describing it as “75 percent lean” than to one referring to its “25 percent fat” content. This is an example of:
a)
The framing effect
b)
Confirmation bias
c)
Mental set
d)
Overconfidence
79.

In 50 First Dates, Drew Barrymore's character is unable to form new memories after sustaining a brain injury during a traumatic accident. Her inability to form these new memories is describing:

a)

Retrograde Amnesia

b)

Anterograde Amnesia

c)

Proactive Interference

d)

Retroactive Interference

80.
Group polarization is the tendency for 
a)
 a group to become divided on an issue.
b)
a group's opinion to strengthen after discussion with like-minded people.
c)
a group to become extreme in their viewpoints when challenged.
d)
a group to bond during a difficult circumstance.
81.
This style of parenting calls for imposing rules and demanding obedience without debate or discussion between parent and child.
a)
Permissive
b)
Neglectful
c)
Authoritative
d)
Authoritarian
82.
In-depth studies of Phineas Gage, savants, and each of the Genaine sisters are examples of___ because the provide much information about one particular person or event. 
a)
correlational studies.
b)
field experiments.
c)
case studies.
d)
surveys.
83.
A correlation coefficient of -0.9 indicates a(n)
a)
strong positive correlation.
b)
strong negative correlation.
c)
cause/effect relationship.
d)
a very weak relationship
84.
The complete set of rules for a language that determines how to make sounds into words and words into sentences is called
a)
syntax.
b)
grammar.
c)
the semantic differential.
d)
phonemes
85.

During what stage of development do children gain language acquisition?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete Operational

d)

Formal Operational