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Subdivision and Housing Regulations

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the developer intends to donate the roads and open space to the local government, what should be provided to the LGU?

a)

Certificate of completion

b)

Certificate of Occupancy

c)

Consent of the buyers of the lots

d)

Development permit

2.

Subdivision projects must observe and conform to the provisions of the easements as may be required by the following;

a)

Waster code of the Phils.

b)

NPC transmission lines

c)

PHIVOCS on fault traces, per Res. No, 515

d)

All of the above

3.

Sellers of Subdivision Projects and Condominium Units should register the sales or conveyances at the Register of Deeds of the province or City or Municipalities in Metro Manila where the property or the project is situated within

a)

a. a year from the completion of construction

b)

b. within a year from the execution thereof

c)

c. within 180 days from execution thereof

d)

d. 6 months after the issuance of the license to sell

4.

Refers to facilities or structures intended to serve common needs and for the benefit of the community, such as schools, places of worship, hospital, health centers, Barangay centers and other similar facilities or amenities.

a)

Common facilities

b)

Dwelling unit

c)

Condominium areas

d)

Common Areas

5.

For socialized housing project, the minimum level of completion is

a)

complete house

b)

shell house with toilet and bath

c)

shell house without toilet and bath

d)

shell house with doors and windows

6.

A certificate issued by HLURB (now DHSUD) that is proper only upon compliance with sec 4 of PD 957 and other similar provisions of the various rules. It vests legal status in a project such that its name may be changed only upon proper application and publication among other requirements.

a)

Development permit

b)

Certificate of registration

c)

License to sell

d)

Locational clearance

7.

How much in percentage of parks and playgrounds must be allocated for 151-160 dwelling units?

a)

4%

b)

3.5%

c)

5%

d)

7%

8.

Open spaces shall conform to___?

a)
PD 957
b)

PD 953

c)

PD 1216

d)

PD 464

9.

That portion of the subdivision which is generally not built on and intended for passive or active recreation.

a)

community facilities

b)

parks and play grounds

c)

sport area

d)

circular

10.

The minimum door widths for main entrance

a)

0.90m

b)

0.80m

c)

0.70m

d)

0.60m

11.

A wall used only by the party upon whose lot the wall is located, erected at a line separating two parcels of land each of which is a separate real estate entity.

a)

Perimeter Fence

b)

Party wall

c)

Lone Wall

d)

Lot Line wall

12.

This access shall be provided to each dwelling, or group of dwellings in a single plot, without trespassing adjoining properties.

a)

Access to dwelling

b)

Access to property

c)

Access to living units

d)

Access to subdivision

13.

A building designed or used as residence for one or more families.

a)

facilities

b)

dwelling

c)

parks

d)

amenities

14.

The number of row houses shall not exceed (____) units per block/cluster but in no case shall this be more than (_____) meters in length.

a)
50, 250
b)
40, 200
c)

30, 150

d)

20, 100

15.

As per BP220, windows that will be used for baths or toilets will be how many percent at least, of the floor area of the room

a)

10%

b)

5%

c)

15%

d)

4%

16.

In multi family dwellings, buildings with 2 storey how much in meters must be the 2 structure apart in distance

a)

3 meters in between

b)

4 meters in between

c)

5 meters in between

d)

6 meters in between

17.

For electrical requirements, what is the minimum requirement under this rule for housing per activity room?

a)

1 convenience outlet, 2 light outlet

b)

1 convenience outlet, 1 light outlet

c)

2 convenience outlet, 2 light outlet

d)

2 convenience outlet, 4 light outlet

18.

In subdivision development, the minimum floor area of a shelter component in an economic housing is

a)

18sqm

b)

22sqm

c)

38sqm

d)

46sqm

19.

Under PD#957, the minimum right of way for a minor road?

a)

6 meters

b)

10 meters

c)

8 meters

d)

7 meters

20.

For PD 957 development, for the density of 51-65 dwelling unit per hectare, the allocation in percent of gross area for parks / playground is

a)

9%

b)

8%

c)

7%

d)

6%

21.

A tract of land partitioned into plots for sale or lease to establishments engaged primarily in industrial production or services. The degree of development may be limited to the provision of utilities and allocation of areas for industrial buildings, facilities and amenities, or it may also include the provision of the buildings, facilities and amenities.

a)

Industrial Subdivision

b)

Industrial Estate

c)

Factory Plot

d)

Ecozone

22.

Industrial Subdivisions shall have a Major Road Right-of-Way minimum of (_____) meters.

a)
10
b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

23.

For Industrial Subdivision Projects with a minimum of 20 plots, it shall allocate an area equivalent to (_____) of gross area for administration.

a)
1%
b)

3%

c)

5%

d)

7%

24.

Blocks in an Industrial Subdivision shall not exceed (____) meters.

a)
400
b)

500

c)

600

d)

1,000

25.

In the absence of any provision on location of columbarium projects, it can be located in any of the following, except:

a)

Residential Zone

b)

Institutional Zone

c)

Commercial Zone

d)

Premises of Religious Structures

26.

For Columbarium projects, parking shall be provided at a ratio of (______) whichever is lower.

a)
1:20 vaults or 50 parking slots
b)

1:40 vaults or 80 parking slots

c)

1:50 vaults or 100 parking slots

d)

1:70 vaults or 150 parking slots

27.

In Columbarium Development, a (______) non-buildable buffer shall be observed for projects to be located in commercial zone/area adjoining a residential area.

a)
3-meter
b)

5-meter

c)

10-meter

d)

20-meter

28.

Memorial Park projects must be located on ground where the water table is not higher than below the ground surface.

a)

1.50 meters

b)

2.5 meters

c)

3.5 meters

d)

4.5 meters

29.

These are lands exclusively used as burial ground and developed for profit.

a)

Memorial Park

b)

Columbarium

c)

Cemetery

d)

Burial Ground

30.

A serene garden covered with lush carpet of well-maintained grass. It provides an ideal site for underground interment distinctly identified with flat marble marker.

a)

Lawn Area

b)

Garden Area

c)

Family Estate Area

d)

Burial Ground

31.

What is the minimum frontage required for a farmlot in the farmlot subdivision?

a)

12 meters

b)

15 meters

c)

18 meters

d)

10 meters

32.

Accumulated water or ground surface when soil is unable to absorb the water due to pavement.

a)

Moisture

b)

Precipitation

c)

Dew

d)

Surface Run-Off

33.

What is the minimum area requirement for development of a farmlot subdivisions?

a)

5 hectares

b)

1 hectare

c)

0.5 hectare

d)

2 hectares

34.

The following statements are true for farmlot subdivision, EXCEPT?

a)

The site must be accessible to transportation lines

b)

Basic utilities like roads and water sources must be found and readily available

c)

Farmlot subdivisions must be near or within the center of Metro Manila/urban core

d)

Accessible from employment centers and population centers where the products of the farmlots can be readily marketed

35.

In Condominium Development, what is the validity of a Development Permit if no physical development is introduced?

a)

4 years

b)

3 years

c)

2 years

d)

1 year

36.

When is a park/playground required for a condominium project?

a)

When the gross saleable area is 900 sqm

b)

When a park or playground is located not more than or 300 meters away and the pedestrian will be duly exposed to hazard going to it

c)

When the project has ten (10) or more condominium units

d)

When the condominium is part of a subdivision project

37.

What is the minimum area required for the parks/playground of a condominium project with 60 family dwelling units?

a)

200 sqm

b)

300 sqm

c)

50 sqm

d)

1,000 sqm

38.

What is the difference between a vertical condominium and a horizontal condominium?

a)

Vertical condominium refers to a building while horizontal condominium refers to a townhouse project

b)

Vertical condominium refers to a high-rise building while horizontal condominium refers to a low-rise building

c)

Vertical condominium refers to a townhouse project while horizontal condominium refers to a building

d)

Vertical condominium refers to a low-rise building while horizontal condominium refers to a high-rise building

39.

Which of the following is not included under the effects of voluntary dissolution of a condominium corporation?

a)

The corporation shall be deemed to hold a power of attorney from all members to sell their separate interest in the project

b)

Liquidation of the corporation shall be effected by the sale of the entire project subject to the rights of individual condominium creditors

c)

Liquidation of the corporation shall be by the sale of the entire project with priority on rights of individual condominium creditors

d)

The liquidation shall be partial subject to interest of creditors

40.

The following are the rights of unit owner, except

a)

To pay for share in insurance of the condo project

b)

To lease the unit

c)

To mortgage his own unit

d)

To sell the condominium unit

41.

Underprivileged and Homeless Citizens are people residing in urban and urbanizable areas

a)
  1. whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by DHSUD

b)
  1. whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by NEDA

c)
  1. whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by NHA

d)
  1. whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty threshold as defined by the LGU

42.

Unregistered or Abandoned Lands are lands in urban and urbanizable areas which are:

a)

not registered with the Register of Deeds, or the city/municipal assessor and uninhabited by the owner for a period of 5 consecutive years immediately prior to the issuance and receipt of publication of notice of acquisition

b)

not registered with the Register of Deeds, or the city/municipal assessor and uninhabited by the owner for a period of 3 consecutive years immediately prior to the issuance and receipt of publication of notice of acquisition

c)

not registered with the Register of Deeds, or the city/municipal assessor and uninhabited by the owner for a period of 5 consecutive years immediately after the issuance and receipt of publication of notice of acquisition

d)

not registered with the Register of Deeds, or the city/municipal assessor

43.

According to RA 7279, Urban Areas are all cities regardless of their population density and to municipalities with a population density of at least:

a)

1000 persons per square kilometers

b)

1000 persons per square meters

c)

500 persons per square meters

d)

500 persons per square kilometers

44.

Not an exception to the coverage of RA 7279:

a)

Those covered by RA 6657

b)

Cemeteries

c)

Private residences currently being leased

d)

Government Offices

45.

Within how many years from the effectivity of RA7279 shall the LGUs do the inventory of lands in their respective cities/municipalities?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

46.

After the inventory, the local government units in coordination with other government agencies, shall identify lands for socialized housing and resettlement areas -

a)

for the immediate needs of the underprivileged and homeless

b)

for the future needs of the underprivileged and homeless

c)

based on the current needs of the underprivileged and homeless

d)

for the immediate and future needs of the underprivileged and homeless

47.

Considerations in the identification of lands for socialized housing except

a)

Degree of availability of basic services and facilities

b)

Accessibility and proximity of jobs sites

c)

Proximity to cities and municipalities

d)

Actual number of registered beneficiaries.

48.

I.    Privately-owned lands

II.   Owned by the government

III. Alienable lands of public domain

IV.   Bagong Lipunan Improvement of Sites and Services (BLISS) sites which have not yet been acquired

V.    Those within the declared APD, ZIP sites, and SIRP sites which have not yet been acquired

VI.   Unregistered or abandoned and idle lands

Correct priority in the acquisition of land for socialized housing

a)

I-II-III-IV-V-VI

b)

II-III-VI-V-IV-I

c)

III-III-VI-IV-I

d)

II-VI-III-V-IV-I

49.

Rule 91 of the rules of court

a)

Expropriation

b)

Negotiated Purchase

c)

Donation

d)

Escheat

50.

Mode of acquisition that is resorted only when other modes have been exhausted

a)

Expropriation

b)

Negotiated Purchase

c)

Donation

d)

Escheat

51.

The guidelines for the valuation of land for socialized housing is done by

a)

City/Municipal Assessor

b)

Department of Finance

c)

DHSUD

d)

NHA

52.

How many days worth of prevailing minimum daily wage shall be provided to the affected families if relocation should not be possible within the said period?

a)

45 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

53.

Within how many years from the effectivity of this Act (RA 7279), the LGU in coordination with the NHA, shall implement the relocation and resettlement of persons living in danger areas?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

54.

The following is considered a material contract except for:

a)

Contract between the REIT and the property appraisal company

b)

Contract between the REIT and fund manager

c)

Agreement between the REIT and property manager

d)

Contract with amount involved is at least five percent (5%) of the deposited property of the REIT.

55.

Principal Stockholder means a stockholder who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than how many percent of any class of security of the REIT?

a)

three percent

b)

five percent

c)

ten percent

d)

twenty percent

56.

Income generating real estate should be at least how many percent of the REIT deposited property?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

75%

d)

90%

57.

Single entity limit for the investible funds shall not be more than how many percent of the investible fund?

a)

15%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

5%

58.

Property development shall not exceed how many percent of the deposited property of the REIT?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

59.

REALTY INSTALLMENT BUYER ACT

a)

RA 6652, 1971

b)

RA 6652, 1972

c)

RA 6552, 1971

d)

RA 6552, 1972

60.

How many years of installment payment shall the buyer have already paid in order to have 90% refund?

a)

10 years

b)

11 years

c)

12 years

d)

13 years

61.

Refers to a process where the Original Certificate of Title is canceled and subsequently registered under a Transfer Certificate of Title in favor of the new owner in cases of land conveyance such as sale, donation or assignment.

a)

Original Registration

b)

Primary Registration

c)

Subsequent Registration

d)

Judicial Registration

62.

Latin phrase that means “suit pending:

a)

Notice of Lis Pendens

b)

Lis Pendens

c)

Lis Pendings

d)

Notice of Lis Pendings

63.

Issued during the progress of a legal action to secure a creditor’s claim. It may be cancelled any time.

a)

Primary Attachment

b)

Preliminary Attachment

c)

Original Attachment

d)

Garnishment

64.

How many copies of Form 1706 should be filed for CGT payment?

a)

1 copy

b)

2 copies

c)

3 copies

d)

4 copies

65.

Attachment is governed by

a)

Rule 57 of the Rules of Court

b)

Rule 58 of the Rules of Court

c)

Rule 47 of the Rules of Court

d)

Rule 48 of the Rules of Court

66.

It is estimated that there are about 24.2 million parcels of alienable and disposable lands. What percentage of the total land area of the country does this represent?

a)

55%

b)

47%

c)

50%

d)

45%

67.

The following are advantages of Torrens System except:

a)

Abolishes endless fees

b)

Makes fraud available

c)

Reduces records enormously

d)

Protects against encumbrances not noted on the Torrens Certificate

68.

PD 1529 or the Property Registration Decree took effect last:

a)

June 11, 1987

b)

June 11, 1978

c)

June 10, 1978

d)

June 10, 1978

69.

Rose was living in USA and her sister was her attorney in fact and she sent a special power of attorney to sell notarized by US lawyer and undergo apostille. The sale entered into by her sister in the Philippines will be:

a)

Valid

b)

Void

c)

Voidable

d)

Unenforceable

70.

A notice of Adverse claim annotated on the title can be cancelled after the expiration of ___ days after its annotation by the verified petition with the RD.

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

60 days

d)

90 days

71.

It refers to an act whereby a person appears before a notary public and represents to the notary public that he signed the document

a)

Acknowledgment

b)

Jurat

c)

Certification

d)

Authentication

72.

Referred to as a contract where a person binds himself to render some service or to do something in representation or on behalf of another, with the consent or authority of the latter.

a)

Contract of agency

b)

Contract of authority

c)

Contract of power

d)

Contract of representation

73.

RA 6732 allows administrative reconstitution of original copies of certificates of titles lost or destroyed due to fire, flood and other force majeure, provided further, that in no case shall the number of certificates of titles lost or damaged be:

a)

Less than 300

b)

More than 300

c)

Less than 500

d)

More than 500

74.

Although Land Registration Act only protects holders in good faith and cannot be used as a shield to protect fraud, it generally become indefeasible.

a)

After the lapse of 3 months

b)

After the lapse of 6 months

c)

After the lapse of 12 months

d)

After the lapse of 2 years

75.

The Statute of Limitations for voidable contracts:

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

4 years

d)

5 years

76.

Is a condensed history of title, showing the various links in the chain of title, including liens, encumbrances and other conditions affecting the title:

a)

Chain of Title

b)

History of Title

c)

Abstract of Title

d)

Process of titling

77.

When the owner’s duplicate certificate of title is lost, the registered owner shall file a petition in court for (_______) to have a new duplicate:

a)
Issuance of New Duplicate COT
b)

Amendment of New Duplicate COT

c)

Cancellation of New Duplicate COT

d)

Affidavit of New Duplicate COT

78.

A parcel of land covered only by a tax declaration in order to be issued a title requires the filing of a land registration proceeding in the

a)

Regional Trial Court where the property is located

b)

Land Registration Authority

c)

Registry of Deeds where the property is located

d)

Department of Justice

79.

A mortgage on registered land may be discharged or cancelled by means of an instrument executed by the mortgagee which shall be filed with the Register of Deeds referred to as

a)

Affidavit of Cancellation

b)

Cancellation of Mortgage

c)

Proof of payment of Loan

d)

Loan Cancellation

80.

No erasure, alteration, or amendment shall be made upon the registration book after the entry of a certificate of title except by

a)

Order by the Registry of Deeds

b)

Order of the court

c)

Order by the LRA

d)

Request for correction by registered owner

81.

"let the buyers beware"

a)

Caveat Venditor

b)

Caveat Emptor

c)

Caveat Seller

d)

Caveat Jurspundes

82.

visible defects, one that should be able to be identified by a reasonable person on inspection of the property

a)

Patent Defect

b)

Latent Defects

c)

Not visible defects

d)

Hidden defects

83.

This is an additional requirement in the sale of real estate if the seller is a juridical person

a)

Clearance from DAR

b)

Mayors Certificate

c)

Copy of the articles of incorporation

d)

Juridical certificate

84.

if sale was made for a lump sum and not a definite price per square meter, the price originally agreed to may not be increased or decreased so long as the seller delivered all that was included within the boundaries even if it exceeds the area or number specified in the contract

a)

Lump sum Payment

b)

Earnest Money

c)

Full payment

d)

Mortgage

85.

If the sale is per square meter, and the area is bigger, the vendee may:

a)

Accept the area and reject the excess

b)

Reduce the price

c)

File for a petition in court

d)

Report to the Registry of Deeds

86.

When the property between the spouses is one of conjugal partnership and the property involved was acquired by onerous title during the marriage at the expense of the common fund.

a)

Marital consent is required

b)

No need for marital consent

c)

Need to execute an affidavit

d)

No documentation needed

87.

Redemption period for pacto de retro sale

a)

depends on the stipulation of the parties but cannot exceed 4 yrs. if there is no stipulation, the period of redemption is 10 yrs.

b)

depends on the stipulation of the parties but cannot exceed 10 yrs. if there is no stipulation, the period of redemption is 4 yrs.

c)

depends on the stipulation of the parties but cannot exceed 10 yrs. if there is no stipulation, the period of redemption is 5 yrs.

d)

depends on the stipulation of the parties but cannot exceed 5 yrs. if there is no stipulation, the period of redemption is 4 yrs.

88.

The property owner or any person authorized by the owner who binds himself to grant temporarily the enjoyment or use of a thing or to render some work or service to another.

a)

Lessor

b)

Lessee

c)

Barangay captain

d)

Mayor

89.

The lessee _____ assign the lease without the consent of the lessor, unless there is a stipulation to the contrary.

a)

can

b)

cannot

c)

always

d)

never

90.

90. Lease to a single entity with the intention of subleasing it to several sublessees.

a)

Head Lease

b)

Ground Lease

c)

Single Lease

d)

Free Patent

91.

Rental amount indicated in the lease contract.

a)

Market Rent

b)

Percentage Rent

c)

Contract Rent

d)

Turnkey Rent

92.

Interest of the lessee.

a)

Sandwich Lease Estate

b)

Sandwich Lease

c)

Leasehold

d)

Sub-Leasehold

93.

At the option of the lessor, he or she may engage the lessee in a written agreement that will result in the transfer or ownership of the particular dwelling in favor of the latter.

a)

Rent-to-own scheme

b)

In-house financing scheme

c)

Sale scheme

d)

Squatting syndicate scheme

94.

One who goes into possession lawfully, but whose right to remain in possession has expired.

a)

Tenancy at Sufferance

b)

Tenancy at Will

c)

Tenancy at Years

d)

Periodic Tenancy

95.

Relationship between the landlord and tenant when strict terms—such as those contained within a lease agreement—are not present, are defective in nature, or have expired.

a)

Tenancy at Sufferance

b)

Tenancy at Will

c)

Tenancy at Years

d)

Periodic Tenancy

96.

Written instrument promising to repay a loan in accordance with stipulated terms; generally a negotiable instrument.

a)

Lien

b)

Promissory Note

c)

Encumbrance

d)

Right of way

97.

Lumpsum payment usually at the end of the term

a)

Check payment

b)

Full payment

c)

Ball payment

d)

Balloon Payment

98.

Lender such as banks, financial institutions, and other persons whether natural or juridical, holding registered mortgage rights over said lands

a)

Mortgagee

b)

Mortgagor

c)

Owner

d)

Seller

99.
  1. borrower, is the one who, having all or some title to property, by written instrument, pledges that property for some particular purpose such as security for a debt

a)

Mortgagee

b)

Mortgagor

c)

Owner

d)

Seller

100.
  1. creditor acquires the right to receive the fruits of the immovable of his debtor, with the obligation to apply them to the payments of interest.

a)
  1. Antichresis

b)

Right to use

c)

Right to fruits

d)

Rights to dispose