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PHYSICS (QUANTUM CLASH - REVIEWER 3)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following particles has mass?

a)

gluon

b)

quark

c)

photon

d)

W boson

2.

Which of the following is part of the reason why stable heavy nuclei typically have more neutrons than protons?

a)

The neutrons negate the charges of some protons and thus reduce the net electric repulsion between protons.

b)

The neutrons increase the radius of the nucleus, which makes the protons further apart and decreases the electric repulsion between protons.

c)

The neutrons allow the strong force between nucleons to be great enough to counteract the electric repulsion between protons.

d)

The neutrons are arranged on the outside surface of the nucleus and shield the protons from external electric forces.

3.

What is the common characteristic of most nuclei with mass number greater than about 20?

a)

binding energy per nucleon

b)

binding energy

c)

decay pattern

d)

half-life

4.

In a nuclear decay chain, a neptunium nucleus eventually becomes a thallium nucleus via a series of alpha and beta minus decays. The net reaction is shown. Which of the following is true of the number of alpha and beta particles produced?

a)

More alpha particles than beta particles are produced.

b)

More beta particles than alpha particles are produced.

c)

An equal number of alpha and beta particles are produced.

d)

There is no way to determine whether more alpha or beta particles are produced without knowing the individual steps in the process.

5.

In a laboratory, two protons are projected toward each other with the same speed, as shown. Which of the following best shows the paths of the protons as they approach and then move away from each other?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.

When a californium (Cf) nucleus undergoes spontaneous fission, the following two reactions occur, where X and Y are unidentified nuclei.

a)

Cf

b)

X

c)

Ru

d)

Y

7.

A molybdenum isotope (Z=42) undergoes beta negative decay (β−). Based upon conservation of charge, what must be the atomic number (Z) of the product? Also, what particles decay and what particles are produced during β− decay?

a)

Z=41; in β− decay, a neutron transforms into a proton, releasing an electron and a chargeless antineutrino.

b)

Z=41; in β− decay, a proton transforms into a neutron, releasing an electron and a chargeless antineutrino.

c)

 Z equals 43 ; in β− decay, a neutron transforms into a proton, releasing an electron and a chargeless antineutrino

d)

Z=43; in β− decay, a proton transforms into a neutron, releasing an electron and a chargeless antineutrino.

8.

An unstable atom of radium (atomic mass = 226u) is initially at rest. It decays into radon (atomic mass = 222u) and an alpha particle (atomic mass = 4u). After the decay, the alpha particle travels with a speed that is 10% the speed of light. What is the speed at which radon travels after the decay process?

a)

0.00177c

b)

0.00180c

c)

 0.09823c

d)

0.10180c

9.

Who is one of the most influential physicists in the 20th century?

a)

Karl Schwarzschild

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Isaac Newton

d)

Max Planck

10.

Light sometimes behave as a particle. It is called__.

a)

proton

b)

photon

c)

neutron

d)

electron

11.

Which explains why the sky is blue?

a)

Blue light is not easily scattered by the atmosphere

b)

Blue light is not easily absorbed by the atmosphere

c)

Air molecules scatter blue light more readily than other colors

d)

Blue light is reflected off the world's oceans into the atmosphere

12.

Which statement best describes the 'Law of reflection'?

a)

The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection

b)

The angle of reflection is perpendicular to the normal.

c)

The angle of reflection is parallel to the angle of incidence

d)

Both the angle of incidence and reflection lie in different planes.

13.

It Is also known as curving of space-time.

a)

Black hole

b)

warping

c)

Bending

d)

orbiting

14.

How does special relativity differs from general relativity?

a)

Special relativity applies only to moving frames while general relativity applies only to stationary frames.

b)

Special relativity applies only to stationary frames while general relativity applies only to accelerating frames.

c)

Special relativity applies only to stationary or moving frames while general relativity applies only to accelerating frames.

d)

Special relativity applies only to accelerating frames while general relativity applies only to stationary or moving frames.

15.

Which is true about time according to general relativity?

a)

Time slows down with gravity.

b)

Time accelerates with gravity.

c)

Time is pulled down by gravity.

d)

Time can't be changed by gravity.

16.

He was the one to first use the general relativity in predicting that a sufficiently massive body can deform space-time and that lead to his idea of the existence of black holes.

a)

Karl Schwarzschild

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Thomas Young

d)

Max Planck

17.

What force is explained by general relativity?

a)

Weak nuclear force

b)

Electromagnetic force

c)

Strong nuclear force

d)

Gravitational force

18.

How does the curvature of space-time affect the light from distant stars?

a)

The curvature of space-time reflects light passing through it.

b)

The curvature of space-time bends light passing through it.

c)

The curvature of space-time does not allow light pass through it.

d)

The curvature of space-time absorbs the light passing through it.

19.

Which of the following is NOT considered as the evidence of General Theory of Relativity?

a)

Orbit of Mercury

b)

Orbit of the Earth

c)

Bending of light

d)

Black holes

20.

Light, like any wave is known to pass from one medium to another medium with different optical densities. Which of the following properties of light is being described?

a)

Reflection

b)

Diffraction

c)

Refraction

d)

Interference

21.

Which of the following is most likely scattered by particles present in the atmosphere?

a)

No wavelengths are scattered.

b)

Shorter wavelength of light.

c)

Longer wavelength of light.

d)

Both Shorter and Longer wavelength of light.

22.

The Theory of Photoelectric effect won a Nobel prize in 1921. Who was the proponent of the said theory?

a)

Thomas Young

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Albert Bandura

d)

Max Planck

23.

Which of the following BEST describes time dilation?

a)

The difference in the speed interval between two events as perceived by an observer under a stationary frame.

b)

The difference in the distance interval between two events as perceived by an observer under a stationary frame.

c)

The difference in the time interval between two events as perceived by an observer under a stationary frame.

d)

The difference in the acceleration of two events as perceived by an observer under a stationary frame.

24.

White light goes through a filter that can absorb blue light; what color of light can pass through as perceived by an observer?

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Yellow

25.

Which of the following BEST describes relativity of simultaneity?

a)

Two events occurring simultaneously in one reference frame are simultaneous in another frame.

b)

Two events occurring simultaneously in one reference frame may not necessarily be simultaneous in another frame.

c)

Two events occurring simultaneously in one reference frame is always simultaneous in another frame.

d)

Two events occurring simultaneously in different reference frame are always simultaneous to the observer's reference frame.

26.

Which of the following BEST describes length contraction?

a)

Length is absolute regardless of reference frame.

b)

Length may change under one reference frame.

c)

Length may change depending on the environment.

d)

Length varies from one reference frame to another

27.

What must be the velocity of an object to escape a black hole?

a)

less than c

b)

equal to c

c)

zero

d)

greater than c

28.

How does General Relativity view gravity?

a)

Gravity warps space and time.

b)

Gravity is the curvature of space-time.

c)

Gravity warps mass.

d)

Gravity is a force.

29.
True or False: Electrons are considered stable at their ground state.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
30.
For an electron to change from ground state to an excited state it must...
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Release energy
31.
If an electron moves from n=2 to n=4 ...
a)
it absorbs energy
b)
it releases energy
32.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
33.
An orbital can at most hold how many electrons?
a)
1 electron
b)
2 electrons
c)
3 electrons
d)
4 electrons
34.
The weak nuclear force is responsible for - 
a)
pulling two masses together
b)
the repulsion of like charges
c)
the radioactive decay of certain atomic nuclei
d)
holding the nucleus of an atom together
35.
The force that holds the nucleus of an atom together is - 
a)
weak and short ranged
b)
strong and short-ranged
c)
weak and long-ranged
d)
strong and long-ranged
36.
He unknowingly discovered the electron as a result of cathode ray tube experiments.    
a)
Thomson
b)
Chadwick
c)
Democritus
d)
Aristotle
37.
What shape are "p" orbitals? 
a)
Cloverleaf shaped
b)
Spherical shaped
c)
Hybrid structure
d)
Dumbell shaped
38.
A three-dimensional region around a nucleus where an electron may be found is called a(n
a)
orbit
b)
circle
c)
orbital
d)
circuit
39.

How many nucleons are in a nucleus of ?

a)

19

b)

20

c)

39

d)

58

40.
What is the definition of an isotope?
a)
An atom with different electron number to proton number
b)
An atom with different proton number from neutron number
c)
An atom with different number of protons from the periodic table
d)
An atom with a different number of neutrons from the periodic table
41.

Which type of radiation has the greatest ionising effect?

a)

α-particles

b)

β-particles

c)

γ-rays

d)

all have the same ionising effect

42.

A radioactive source emits radiation that can pass through a sheet of paper but not through thick aluminium. What does this show about the radiation?

a)

It is alpha-particles.

b)

It is beta-particles.

c)

It is gamma-rays.

d)

It is a mixture of alpha-particles and gamma-rays

43.

When Uranium decays it emits an alpha particle, forming an isotope of Thorium. Which of the above decay equations is correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

The half-life of a radioisotope is 2400 years. The activity of a sample is 720 counts /s.

How long will it take for the activity to fall to 90 counts /s?

a)

300 years

b)

2400 years

c)

7200 years

d)

19 200 years

45.

In nuclear fission, some mass is converted to energy. This causes -

a)

final mass to be less than initial mass

b)

final mas to be more than initial mass

c)

final mass to be equal to initial mass

46.

What does the mass equivalence equation tell us? E=mc2

a)

A large amount of energy can be converted from a small amount of mass

b)

Gravity bends both time and space

c)

Gravitational waves are emitted from black holes

d)

Atomic nuclei emit gamma rays, beta particles, and alpha particles

47.

Which of these processes describes a nuclear fusion reaction?

a)

A nucleus absorbs energy to produce lighter nuclei.

b)

A nucleus splits to produce energy and lighter nuclei

c)

Two nuclei bind together to produce energy and heavier nuclei.

d)

Two nuclei bind together to produce energy and a lighter nuclei.

48.
The splitting of a nucleus into smaller nuclei is
a)
fusion
b)
fission
c)
half-life
d)
gamma radiation
49.

The Carbon-12 atom is used by physicists to establish

a)

the charge on an electron.

b)

the low point on a mass defect graph.

c)

the gram and kilogram units.

d)

the atomic mass unit.

50.

What is the correct expression for finding mass defect for the fusion reaction shown?

a)

(Mass of helium + neutron)- (mass of hydrogens)

b)

(Mass of hydrogens)-(Mass of helium+neutron)

c)

Mass of all the nuclei

d)

None of the above

51.

What is nuclear fusion?

a)

The splitting of atomic nuclei

b)

The combination of two atomic nuclei

c)

The decay of unstable isotopes

d)

The emission of gamma rays

52.

Stars primarily begin with which element?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

53.

The mass number of an atom represents:

a)

The number of electrons only

b)

The number of protons only

c)

The sum of protons and neutrons

d)

The number of neutrons only

54.

What are isotopes?

a)

Atoms with different numbers of protons

b)

Atoms with same atomic number but different mass numbers

c)

Atoms with no neutrons

d)

Atoms with no electrons

55.

An alpha particle is equivalent to:

a)

A proton

b)

An electron

c)

A helium nucleus

d)

A neutron

56.

During beta decay, what happens to the atomic number?

a)

Decreases by 2

b)

Increases by 1

c)

Stays the same

d)

Decreases by 1

57.

How many protons and neutrons are in an alpha particle?

a)

2 protons, 1 neutron

b)

1 proton, 2 neutrons

c)

2 protons, 2 neutrons

d)

1 proton, 1 neutron

58.

Gamma rays are:

a)

Charged particles

b)

Low frequency radiation

c)

High frequency electromagnetic radiation

d)

Slow-moving electrons

59.

What is released during nuclear fusion?

a)

Only heat

b)

Only light

c)

Only radiation

d)

Energy in multiple forms

60.

Synthetic elements are:

a)

Naturally occurring elements

b)

Elements made by humans

c)

Stable isotopes only

d)

Elements found in stars

61.

In uranium-235, what is the number of neutrons?

a)

235

b)

92

c)

143

d)

146

62.

Beta particles are:

a)

Helium nuclei

b)

Fast-moving electrons

c)

Gamma rays

d)

Protons

63.

During beta decay, a neutron changes into:

a)

Two protons

b)

An electron only

c)

A proton and an electron

d)

An alpha particle

64.

The atomic number of an element represents:

a)

The number of neutrons

b)

The total mass

c)

The number of protons

d)

The number of electrons and protons combined

65.

What type of elements are created in stars through fusion?

a)

Only light elements

b)

Only synthetic elements

c)

Heavier elements

d)

Only radioactive elements

66.

How are synthetic elements typically created?

a)

Through natural decay

b)

In particle accelerators

c)

In nuclear fission

d)

Through beta emission

67.

During alpha decay, the atomic number:

a)

Increases by 2

b)

Decreases by 2

c)

Stays the same

d)

Increases by 4

68.

What happens to the mass number during beta decay?

a)

Increases by 1

b)

Decreases by 1

c)

Stays the same

d)

Decreases by 2

69.

Unstable isotopes become stable through:

a)

Nuclear fusion

b)

Radioactive decay

c)

Nuclear fission

d)

Electron capture

70.

Which of the following has no charge?

a)

Alpha particle

b)

Beta particle

c)

Gamma ray

d)

Proton

71.

Which nuclide is the most stable?

a)

calcium-40

b)

hydrogen-1

c)

iron-56

d)

carbon-12

72.

Which shows correctly the calculation of mass defect of a nucleus?

a)

(mass of nucleus) − (total mass of separate neutrons)

b)

(total mass of separate neutrons) − (mass of nucleus)

c)

(mass of nucleus) − (total mass of separate nucleons)

d)

(total mass of separate nucleons) − (mass of nucleus)

73.

What is meant by binding energy?

a)

minimum energy required to separate nucleons in a nucleus to infinity

b)

maximum energy required to separate nucleons in a nucleus to infinity

c)

minimum energy required to remove one nucleon from a nucleus

d)

maximum energy required to remove one nucleon from a nucleus

74.

Uranium-235 has 92 protons and a binding energy of 1786 MeV. Calculate its binding energy per nucleon.

a)

19.4 MeV

b)

7.6 MeV

c)

12.5 MeV

d)

0.13 MeV

75.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

a)

Activity is the number of decay per unit time.

b)

Activity depends on half-life.

c)

Activity depends on decay constant.

d)

Activity can measured directly using a GM tube.

76.

A house is found to have high level of radon gas. The acitivity is 2000 Bq per unit cubic metre of air. The action level recommended by UK is 200 Bq/m3. How long does it take for activity to fall below the action level if there is no influx of more radon gas? (half life of radon = 3.8 days.)

a)

13 days

b)

19 days

c)

23 days

d)

10 days

77.

Which of the following equations about activity (A), count rate (R), and number of undecayed nuclei (N) are correct?

a)

A=A0eλtA=A_0e^{\lambda t}  

b)

R=R0eλtR=R_0e^{-\lambda t}

c)

N=N0eλtN=N_0e^{\lambda t}

d)

N=N0eλtN=N_0e^{-\lambda t}

78.

A sample of cobalt-60 has a mass of 8.84×10−10 g and activity of 3.7×104 Bq. What is the half-life of cobalt-60? (NA=6.02×1023; u=1.66×10−27 kg.)

a)

5.27 days

b)

5.27 years

c)

52.7 years

d)

527 years

79.

Which of the following cause measured count rate to be different than activity? (Select all.)

a)

Detector has dead time.

b)

Radiation is absorbed by the sample.

c)

Detector has 100% efficiency.

d)

Detector covers sample fully.

e)

There is background radiation.

80.

Which of the following steps is NOT required when measuring half-life of radioisotope that is extremely long-lived?

a)

Measure number of parent nuclei

b)

Plot activity against time

c)

Use undefined

d)

Measure activity