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Basic Network Communication Quiz

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)

Servers

b)

Intermediary devices

c)

Hosts

d)

Media

2.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

Wireless

b)

Fiber-optic cable

c)

Copper cable

3.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Hosts

b)

Routers

c)

Servers

d)

Switches

4.

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

a)

Port

b)

NIC (Network Interface Card)

c)

Interface

5.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

a)

Port

b)

NIC

c)

Interface

6.

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?

a)

Physical topology

b)

Logical topology

7.

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Physical topology

b)

Logical topology

8.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

9.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization's data?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

10.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

11.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

QoS

c)

Security

d)

Scalability

12.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

13.

With which type of policy can a router manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

14.

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?

a)

Fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

15.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

16.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

17.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom, and Hybrid?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

18.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

a)

Smart home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

19.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?

a)

Smart home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

20.

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

21.

Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

22.

Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

23.

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

24.

Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?

a)

Firewall

b)

Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)

Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)

Denial of Service (DoS)

25.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites visited by its users. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

DoS attack

b)

Identity theft

c)

Spyware

d)

Zero-day attack

26.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers, and collaborators?

a)

Internet

b)

Intranet

c)

Extranet

d)

Extendednet

27.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smartphones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

Cloud computing

b)

Online collaboration

c)

Bring your own device (BYOD)

d)

Video conferencing

28.

What is an ISP?

a)

It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)

It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

c)

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

d)

It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

29.

In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

a)

An Internet cafe in a city

b)

A farm in a rural area without wired broadband access

c)

Any home with multiple wireless devices

d)

An apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet

30.

What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

a)

Reliability

b)

Scalability

c)

Quality of service

d)

Accessibility

31.

A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers accidentally damage a fiber optic cable connecting two existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is demonstrated here?

a)

Quality of service (QoS)

b)

Scalability

c)

Security

d)

Fault tolerance

e)

Integrity

32.

What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two)

a)

Easily overloaded with increased traffic.

b)

Grows in size without impacting existing users.

c)

Is not as reliable as a small network.

d)

Suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion.

e)

Offers a limited number of applications.

33.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

A router

b)

A firewall

c)

A web server

d)

A DSL modem

34.

Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two)

a)

DSL

b)

Cellular

c)

Satellite

d)

Dialup

e)

Dedicated leased line

35.

What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

a)

An intranet

b)

The Internet

c)

An extranet

d)

A local area network

36.

How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?

a)

BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.

b)

BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for organizational security policies.

c)

BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.

d)

BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.

37.

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

ACL

b)

IPS

c)

VPN

d)

BYOD

38.

What is the Internet?

a)

It is a network based on Ethernet technology.

b)

It provides network access for mobile devices.

c)

It provides connections through interconnected global networks.

d)

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

39.

Which two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two)

a)

They originate the data that flows through the network.

b)

They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.

c)

They filter the flow of data to enhance security.

d)

They are the interface between humans and the communication network.

e)

They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

40.

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

41.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

42.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Interface subconfiguration mode

c)

Line console subconfiguration mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

e)

User EXEC mode

43.

Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two)

a)

CTRL+Z

b)

disable

c)

enable

d)

end

e)

exit

44.

What is the command to assign the name "Sw-Floor-2" to a switch?

a)

hostname Sw-Floor-2

b)

host name Sw-Floor-2

c)

name Sw-Floor-2

45.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)

enable class

b)

secret class

c)

enable secret class

d)

service password-encryption

46.

Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

login

c)

secret

d)

service password-encryption

47.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

login

c)

secret

d)

service password-encryption

48.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display $ Keep out $

d)

login banner $ Keep out $

49.

What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

a)

Dotted-binary format

b)

Dotted-decimal format

c)

Dotted-hexadecimal format

50.

How is an IPv4 address represented?

a)

Four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons.

b)

Four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods.

c)

Thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.

d)

Thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by periods.

51.

What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?

a)

Console

b)

Ethernet

c)

Serial

d)

Switch virtual interface (SVI)

52.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

b)

It is stored in NVRAM.

c)

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

d)

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

53.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two)

a)

All router commands are available.

b)

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

c)

The device prompt for this mode ends with the '>' symbol.

d)

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

e)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

54.

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Virtual terminal

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

AUX port

d)

Console line

55.

What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

a)

VLAN1

b)

VLAN99

c)

VLAN100

d)

VLAN999

56.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three)

a)

The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

b)

The hostname should be written in all lower case characters

c)

The hostname should contain no spaces

d)

The hostname should end with a special character

e)

The hostname should begin with a letter

57.

What is the function of the shell in an OS?

a)

It interacts with the device hardware.

b)

It interfaces between the users and the kernel.

c)

It provides dedicated firewall services.

d)

It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

58.

A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

Global configuration mode

b)

Setup mode

c)

Privileged EXEC mode

d)

User EXEC mode

59.

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

a)

Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

b)

Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.

c)

Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.

d)

Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.

60.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

a)

ROM

b)

Flash

c)

NVRAM

d)

RAM

61.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

To remove all configurations from the switch

b)

To save an active configuration to NVRAM

c)

To copy an existing configuration into RAM

d)

To make a changed configuration the new startup configuration

62.

Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

a)

Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

b)

Remote switch management

c)

Translation of IP addresses to domain names

d)

End-to-end connectivity test

63.

Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two)

a)

Providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

b)

Displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

c)

Allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

d)

Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command *

e)

Selecting the best command to accomplish a task

64.

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

a)

RAM

b)

ROM

c)

NVRAM

d)

Flash

65.

To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

a)

10.1.0.0

b)

10.0.0.0

c)

10.1.100.32

d)

10.1.100.0

66.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

67.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

68.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

a)

Flow control

b)

Sequence numbers

c)

Access method

d)

Retransmit time

e)

Response timeout

69.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

70.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)

Network communication

b)

Network security

c)

Routing

d)

Service discovery

71.

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

DNS

b)

TCP

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

72.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

a)

To uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver

b)

To determine if data is corrupted during transmission

c)

To ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and receiver

d)

To guarantee delivery of data

73.

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.

a)

TCP

b)

IP

c)

HTTP

d)

Ethernet

74.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network access

75.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer? (Choose two.)

a)

EIGRP

b)

DNS

c)

OSPF

d)

ICMP

e)

DHCP

76.

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

HTTP

b)

IP

c)

DNS

d)

Ethernet

77.

Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two.)

a)

TCP

b)

ICMPv4

c)

IPv6

d)

IPv4

e)

UDP

78.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

a)

HTTP at the application layer

b)

HTML at the application layer

c)

IP at the internet layer

d)

UDP at the internet layer

e)

TCP at the transport layer

79.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)

Messaging

b)

File Transfer

c)

Internet Protocol

d)

Routing Protocols

e)

Address Resolution

80.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)

83.

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.

a)

Internet Society (ISOC)

b)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)

Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

84.

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

a)

Electric wiring and connectors

b)

Radio equipment and cell towers

c)

Video compression and broadband communications

d)

Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications

85.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

a)

Sequencing

b)

Duplexing

c)

Multiplexing

d)

Segmentation

86.

What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?

a)

Segment

b)

Packet

c)

Bits

d)

Frame

87.

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

a)

Data link

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Application

88.

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?

a)

De-encapsulation

b)

Sequencing

c)

Segmentation

d)

Encapsulation

89.

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

MAC address

c)

Right-most part of the IP address

d)

Left-most part of the MAC address

92.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three.)

a)

Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical.

b)

Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal.

c)

Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

d)

Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical.

e)

Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

93.

What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?

a)

Source MAC, destination MAC

b)

Destination MAC, source IP

c)

Destination IP, source IP

d)

Destination MAC, source MAC

e)

Source IP, destination IP

94.

True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

a)

OSI

b)

TCP/IP

c)

IANA

d)

IEEE

e)

IETF

96.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Unicast

d)

Allcast

97.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

a)

To convert information to the appropriate form for transmission

b)

To interpret information

c)

To break large messages into smaller frames

d)

To negotiate correct timing for successful communication

98.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

a)

Duplex

b)

Unicast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

99.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

a)

It assists in protocol design

b)

It speeds up packet delivery

c)

It prevents designers from creating their own model

d)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers *

e)

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer

100.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)

Specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

b)

Specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

c)

Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

d)

Dictating the content of the message sent during communication

101.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

Destination MAC address

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Destination port number

d)

Source MAC address

e)

Source IP address

102.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

a)

Frame

b)

Packet

c)

Protocol data unit

d)

Segment

103.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

a)

POP

b)

BOOTP

c)

ICMP

d)

IP

e)

PPP

104.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Session

d)

Transport

e)

Network

105.

Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Multicast

c)

Unicast

d)

Anycast

106.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

a)

Access control

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Flow control

107.

What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

a)

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

b)

It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

c)

It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

d)

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.

108.

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

Access control

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Flow control

109.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

110.

What protocol stack is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

111.

True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with wired network connections.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

True or false? When a frame is encoded by the physical layer, all bits are sent over the media at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up to which higher level layer?

a)

Application

b)

Presentation

c)

Network

d)

Data link

114.

What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding and transmission?

a)

Frame

b)

Segment

c)

Packet

115.

Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?

a)

Copper

b)

Wireless

c)

Fiber-optic

116.

Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?

a)

Copper

b)

Wireless

c)

Fiber-optic

117.

Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?

a)

Copper

b)

Wireless

c)

Fiber-optic

118.

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Throughput

c)

Goodput

119.

Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?

a)

Bandwidth

b)

Throughput

c)

Goodput

120.

Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission.

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Coaxial

121.

Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and special connectors?

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Coaxial

122.

Which of the following is the most common network media?

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Coaxial

123.

Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Coaxial

124.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help data travel approximately 500 meters?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

125.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use light emitting diodes (LEDs) as a data light source transmitter?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

126.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in a single stream as a data light source transmitter?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

127.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used to connect long-distance telephony and cable TV applications?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

128.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

129.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used within a campus network?

a)

Multimode

b)

Single-mode

130.

True or false. Wireless is not well suited for enterprise networks.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

True or false. Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex allowing all devices to send or receive data at the same time so the number of users does not impact performance.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and IoT environments?

a)

Zigbee

b)

WiMAX

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

Bluetooth

133.

Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks (PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?

a)

Zigbee

b)

WiMAX

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

Bluetooth

134.

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

a)

Presentation layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Physical layer

d)

Data link layer

135.

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?

a)

Crossover

b)

Rollover

c)

Straight-through

d)

Coaxial

136.

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

a)

The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.

b)

They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.

c)

They increase the speed at which the data can travel.

d)

They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

137.

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

a)

Requiring proper grounding connections

b)

Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

c)

Wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

d)

Designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

e)

Avoiding sharp bends during installation

138.

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

a)

It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.

b)

It is able to be installed around sharp bends.

c)

It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.

d)

It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

139.

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

a)

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

b)

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

c)

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

d)

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

140.

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

a)

Console

b)

Rollover

c)

Crossover

d)

Straight-through

141.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

a)

The speed of bits across the media over a given period of time

b)

The speed at which bits travel on the network

c)

The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

d)

The measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

142.

Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

a)

It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.

b)

It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time durations.