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UTS Mata Kuliah Pemasaran Bisnis

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

STP in Markering stands for ...

a)

Situation, Targeting, Positioning

b)

Selling, Targeting, Positioning

c)

Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning

d)

Segmenting, Targeting, Positioning

2.

Segmentation is

a)

Grouping consumers based on their preferences

b)

The process of identifying groups of consumers who have the same interest

c)

The process of identifying groups of consumers who have similarities based on certain criteria

d)

Group consumers based on their demographic profile

3.

The targeting criteria......

a)

Market Size, Market Growth, Competitive Advantage, Competition

b)

Market Size, Market Growth, Consumer Type, Competition

c)

Competitive Strategy, Market Growth, Competitive Advantage, Competition

d)

Market Size, Market Share, Competitive Advantage, Competition

4.

The following is a factor that can be used to do the segmentation:

a)

Social

b)

Economic

c)

Behavioural

d)

Politic

5.

The following is a part of the demographic characteristic:

a)

Idealism

b)

Achievement

c)

Household Pattern

d)

All are right

6.

A business will offer the same products to all consumers and promote them in almost the same way. This refers to>>>>.

a)

mass Marketing

b)

niche marketing

c)

concentrated marketing

7.

Geographical segmentation is dividing a market into different units such as ____________.

a)

age, gender and income

b)

race, religion and family status

c)

states, regions and cities

d)

user status, usage rate and loyalty status.

8.

What is the primary goal of targeting in marketing?

a)

To increase the company's market share across all segments

b)

To reduce the cost of production

c)

To focus on the product

d)

To identify and serve the most appropriate segments

9.

According to the text, differentiated targeting strategy is...

a)

A strategy through which a firm targets several market segments with a similar offering for each

b)

A strategy through which a firm targets one market segment with multiple different offerings

c)

A strategy through which a firm targets several market segments with a different offering for each

d)

A strategy through which a firm targets one market segment

10.

What is the third step in the STP process?

a)

Establish strategy or objectives

b)

Evaluate segment attractiveness

c)

Use segmentation methods

d)

Identify positioning strategy

11.

In targeting, what is 'positioning' mainly concerned with?

a)

Deciding which segments to ignore

b)

Determining the location of retail outlets

c)

Creating a specific image of the product in the mind of the consumer

d)

Setting prices lower than competitors

12.

A shoe manufacturing company uses ads featuring the members of a country music band with the hope that the band's fans will see them wearing the company's shoes and hence purchase the same brand of shoes. The shoe company believes that the band portrays the image of a ________ to the band's fans.

a)

membership group

b)

reference group

c)

status symbol

d)

lifestyle

13.

A buyer's decisions are influenced by ________ such as the buyer's age and life-cycle stage, occupation, economic situation, lifestyle, personality, and self-concept.

a)

personal characteristics

b)

perceptions

c)

attitudes

d)

psychographics

14.

The buyer decision process consists of five stages. Which of the following is NOT one of these stages?

a)

need recognition

b)

information search

c)

conspicuous consumption

d)

purchase decision

15.

The buying decision process starts with ________, in which the buyer spots a problem.

a)

need recognition

b)

information search

c)

impulse purchases

d)

alternative evaluation

16.

Donna wants to buy a new coat. During the ________ stage of the buyer decision process she will ask her friends to recommend stores that sell good quality winterwear clothing. She will also go through newspapers and magazines to look out for offers and sales on coats.

a)

product evaluation

b)

alternative evaluation

c)

need recognition

d)

information search

17.

A particular automobile company works to keep its customers happy after each sale, aiming to delight each one of them in order to increase their customer lifetime value. Which of the following steps of the buyer decision process does the company exemplify?

a)

need recognition

b)

information search

c)

purchase decision

d)

postpurchase behavior

18.

There are 5 Consumer Behavior influence factors except ...

a)

Personal Factors

b)

Social Factors

c)

Cultural Factors

d)

Physical Factors

19.

Here is the Consumer Decision Making Process ....

a)

Need Recognition

b)

Information Search

c)

Evaluation of alternatives

d)

All answers are correct

20.

Which of the following is NOT a stage in the consumer buying process?

a)

Need recognition

b)

Information search

c)

Post-purchase evaluation

d)

Product disposal

21.

Which of the following factors is NOT considered a psychological factor influencing consumer behavior?

a)

Learning

b)

Perception

c)

Motivation

d)

Social status

22.

The Buying Decision Process

a)

Information Search

Problem Recognition

Purchase Decision

Postpurchase Decision

Evaluation of Alternatives

b)

Information Search

Problem Recognition

Purchase Decision

Evaluation of Alternatives

Postpurchase Decision

c)

Postpurchase Decision

Purchase Decision

Evaluation of Alternatives

Information Search

Problem Recognition

d)

Problem Recognition

Information Search

Evaluation of Alternatives

Purchase Decision

Postpurchase Decision

23.

Person buying product or service is:

a)

Customer

b)

Consumer

c)

Client

d)

Producer

24.

Person using or consuming goods and/or services is:

a)

Customer

b)

Consumer

c)

Proffesional

d)

Producer

25.

A company can obtain new products through new product development. Which of the following defines new products?

a)

Original product

b)

product improvement

c)

Product modification

d)

All of the above

26.

New product development starts with _____________.

a)

Idea generation

b)

Idea screening

c)

Concept development

d)

Concept testing

27.

This stage in the PLC is characterized by rapid market acceptance, increasing sales, and increasing profits. What is it?

a)

Introduction

b)

Maturity

c)

Growth

d)

Decline

28.

Sales decline in the stage of the PLc because of technological advances, increased competition, and _____ .

a)

Shifts in the economy

b)

Shifts in unemployment

c)

Shifts in consumer tastes and preferences

d)

Foreign import

29.

In which stage of New product development it is decided whether the product idea compatible with company objectives, strategies, and resources?

a)

Idea screening

b)

Concept development and testing

c)

Idea generation

d)

Product development

30.

A detailed version of the new product idea started in meaningful consumer form is known as

___________________.

a)

Idea Generation

b)

Product Concept

c)

Concept testing

d)

Strategy Development

31.

A combination of factors that businesses use to promote and sell their products

a)

Opportunity

b)

Marketing mix

c)

Brand

d)

Recession

32.

Marketing Mix (the 4 Ps) includes:

a)

Payment, Patents, Partnership, Product

b)

Profit, product, partnership, pricing

c)

Product, place, price, promotion

d)

Promotion, publicity, psychology, profit

33.

Involves cultural trends and observing customer behaviors.

a)

introducing the product

b)

evaluating acceptance

c)

testing the product

d)

generating ideas

34.

Eliminating possibilities until one or two ideas are selected for development.

a)

generating ideas

b)

screening ideas

c)

introducing the product

d)

evaluating customer acceptance

35.

A model of a new product.

a)

protagonist

b)

prototype

c)

proton

d)

production

36.

Which of the following phase involve selecting the best idea and dropping poor ideas?

a)

Idea generation

b)

Business Analysis

c)

Market strategy development

d)

Idea screening

37.

The ideas generation can come from

a)

employees

b)

customers

c)

competitors

d)

ghost

38.

This stage is also called "commercialization". New products are advertised to introduce benefits to consumers.

a)

Developing the product

b)

Testing the product

c)

Developing a proposal

d)

Introducing the product

39.

What is the final stage in the product life cycle?

a)

Growth

b)

Maturity

c)

Decline

d)

Introduction

40.

What is a key characteristic of the introduction stage in the product life cycle?

a)

Rapid market acceptance

b)

Low sales growth

c)

High profits

d)

Many competitors

41.

Which of the following is a reason for the decline in sales during the decline stage?

a)

Technological advances

b)

High promotion expenses

c)

Low customer satisfaction

d)

Increased market acceptance

42.

What does a systematic new product development process ensure?

a)

Faster time to market

b)

Consistency in idea generation

c)

Avoidance of haphazard decision-making

d)

Increased sales during the growth stage

43.

Which of the following is the first step in the New Product Development process?

a)

Screening

b)

Research

c)

Idea Generation

d)

Testing

44.
What is happening at point F on the Product Life Cycle?
a)
Introduction
b)
Decline
c)
Maturity
d)
Growth
45.
An established product which is bringing in revenue is a comment about which stage of the Product Life Cycle?
a)
Decline
b)
Maturity
c)
Introduction
d)
Growth
46.
Firms with a technically superior good may well engage in price skimming. This comment could apply to which stage of the Product Life Cycle?
a)
Introduction
b)
Growth
c)
Decline
d)
Maturity
47.

What is the 4th/final stage of the product life cycle?

a)

Growth - product sales increase

b)

Introduction - new product release

c)

Decline - product sales decrease

d)

Maturity - product sales start to slow down

48.

Which stage has lots of competitors?

a)

growth

b)

maturity

c)

introduction

d)

decline

49.

Which statement best describes "Price"?

a)

The cost of producing items

b)

The amount customers are charged for items

c)

The profit earned from selling items

50.

A movie theater sells its tickets at lower prices to students and seniors. This is an example of:

a)

Prompt payment

b)

Price discrimination

c)

Price skimming

d)

Stability pricing

51.

Fast food restaurants such as McDonalds use this pricing strategy for selling combos of burgers, fries and a beverage at a lower price than the total price of the items sold individually. This is an example of:

a)

Discounts

b)

Stability pricing

c)

Price discrimination

d)

Product-bundle pricing

52.

Which pricing strategy uses the

buyers’ perceptions of value rather than seller’s cost?

a)

Customer Value-Based Pricing

b)

Competition-Based Pricing

c)

Cost-Based Pricing

d)

Dynamic Pricing

53.

“The costs of production (raw and processed materials, and labor) that are tied to and vary, depending on the number of units produced” is an explanation of …

a)

Fixed Cost

b)

Total Cost

c)

Average Fixed Cost

d)

Variable Cost

54.

The following are NOT included in pricing tactics are ...

a)

discounting for channel members

b)

distribution-based pricing

c)

price leadership

d)

price bundling

55.

A pricing strategy used by luxury goods, marketers in which they keep the price artificially high to maintain a favorable image of the product, is an explanation of..

a)

Prestige Pricing

b)

Freemium Pricing

c)

Loss-Leader Pricing

d)

Predatory Pricing

56.

What is the primary motive of all firms when it comes to pricing?

a)

To reduce production costs

b)

To increase market share

c)

To attract more customers

d)

To maximize profit

57.

What is the importance of price in building the image of a product?

a)

Consumers believe high priced products are of high value

b)

Price has no impact on product image

c)

Consumers do not consider price when evaluating product value

d)

Consumers believe low priced products are of high value

58.

What is the role of price in targeting a particular segment of customers ?

a)

Price is used to target a particular segment of customers

b)

Price is not used to target specific customer segments

c)

Price is used to discourage customer segmentation

d)

Price is used to target all customer segments equally

59.

What is the importance of understanding customer needs in relation to pricing?

a)

Understanding customer needs has no impact on pricing

b)

Understanding customer needs can help identify opportunities to raise prices

c)

Understanding customer needs is only important for product development

d)

Understanding customer needs is irrelevant in pricing decisions

60.

What is the role of price in influencing consumer perception?

a)

Consumers do not consider price when evaluating product value

b)

Consumers believe low priced products are of high value

c)

Price has no impact on product image

d)

Consumers believe high priced products are of high value

61.

The market’s responsiveness to a price change is often referred to as the ______ of the market.

a)

price sensitivity

b)

price elasticity

c)

price change

62.
  1. Geographical pricing can involve charging different prices in different regions for the same product.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.
  1. Discount pricing involves offering a reduced price for a product for a limited time to stimulate sales.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.
  1. Seasonal discounts are price reductions given to customers buying out-of-season merchandise.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

Segmented pricing strategy involves setting a single price for all customers regardless of their characteristics or buying behavior

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

What statement best describes the term 'upstream partners'?

a)

Upstream partners are organizations that collaborate on marketing and promotional strategies for the company's products.

b)

Upstream partners refer to competitors in the market who influence the supply chain indirectly through competition.

c)

Upstream partners are the customers and retailers who distribute the company's products to the end users.

d)

Upstream partners involve suppliers to the company (manufacturers).

67.

What statement best describes the term 'downstream partners'?

a)

Downstream partners are the marketing channels or distribution channels that look toward the customer, including retailers and wholesalers.

b)

Downstream partners include logistics firms responsible for transporting raw materials to manufacturing facilities.

c)

Downstream partners are suppliers that provide raw materials and components to the company for production.

d)

Downstream partners are organizations involved in post-purchase services, such as customer support and product maintenance.

68.

Which of the following is not an advantage of having a distributor?

a)

A manufacturer has to interact with millions of customers if there were no intermediaries and/or distributors.

b)

Retailers get the product to the customer and the manufacturer advertises for it.

c)

Distributors limit the control manufacturers have over pricing and promotional strategies, making it harder for manufacturers to maintain brand consistency.

d)

It is simpler for customers to go to one retailer for all of their products rather than going to each and every manufacturer.

69.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding direct marketing channels?

a)

A direct marketing channel is most effective for mass-market products that require broad reach and high-volume distribution.

b)

A direct marketing channel is a marketing channel that has no intermediary levels.

c)

A direct marketing channel involves the company selling directly to the customer.

d)

A benefit to direct marketing channels include customizing the product to customer needs.

70.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding indirect marketing channels?

a)

An indirect marketing channel is a marketing channel containing one or more intermediary levels.

b)

An indirect marketing channel involves the company selling to intermediaries (wholesalers/retailers), who then sell the product to the customer.

c)

An indirect marketing channel is most effective for niche products that require highly specialized customization for individual customers.

d)

A drawback to indirect marketing channels include retailers may push competitors’ products over the firm’s products.

71.

Which statement best explains the term 'channel conflict'?

a)

Channel conflict refers to issues arising from miscommunication between suppliers and end customers.

b)

Channel conflict refers to disagreement among channel members over goals, roles, and rewards.

c)

Channel conflict occurs when competitors in the same market disagree on pricing strategies.

d)

Channel conflict refers to disputes between marketing and sales teams over revenue allocation.

72.

Which statement best explains to when a vertical channel conflict may occur?

a)

A vertical channel conflict occurs when there is a disagreement between the company and the intermediaries, such as price issues.

b)

A vertical channel conflict occurs when two competitors collaborate on a marketing campaign but fail to align strategies.

c)

A vertical channel conflict happens only when a retailer promotes products that are not aligned with the manufacturer’s interests.

d)

A vertical channel conflict occurs due to the inability of different manufacturers to cooperate on shared supply chains.

73.

Which statement best explains to when a horizontal channel conflict may occur?

a)

A horizontal channel conflict occurs when a retailer disputes with a manufacturer about promotional activities.

b)

A horizontal channel conflict happens when companies in different markets fail to align their distribution strategies.

c)

A horizontal channel conflict occurs due to inefficiencies in the vertical supply chain structure.

d)

A horizontal channel conflict occurs when there is a disagreement between two companies at the same level, such as competitors that are working side by side.

74.

Which statement best describes the term 'disintermediation'?

a)

Disintermediation involves technology reducing the need for traditional supply chains as it is now easier for companies to access consumers through online and social media.

b)

Disintermediation refers to the process of streamlining supply chains by automating intermediary operations without removing them entirely.

c)

Disintermediation occurs when manufacturers bypass their distributors to sell directly to wholesalers or retailers.

d)

Disintermediation is the practice of outsourcing logistics and distribution to third-party service providers to reduce internal costs.

75.

A firm is choosing between which channel distributions to pick, what are the 3 marketing distribution strategies that it can use?

a)

Intensive distribution, which is used for widely available products in massive amounts, such as groceries.

b)

Exclusive distribution, which is used for speciality and luxury products that are narrowly available.

c)

Selective distribution, which is in between intensive and exclusive, such as shoes and clothes.

d)

All of the above are strategies that it can use, but it mainly depends on the product that they are selling.

76.

When determining the number of channel members to use at each level, three strategies are available: intensive, exclusive, and _____.

a)

multichannel

b)

direct

c)

extensive

d)

selective

77.

1.  Sometimes a producer chooses only a few dealers in a market area to distribute its products or services. Generally these dealers are given a right to _____.

a)

exclusive distribution

b)

selective distribution

c)

intensive distribution

d)

corporate distribution

78.

_____ represent buyers or sellers on a more permanent basis. Another name for them is manufacturers’ representatives.

a)

brokers

b)

agents

c)

Retailers

d)

Customers

79.

What does supply chain refer to?

a)

The stages goods and services go through from their source to the end consumer

b)

The process of transporting a product from one location to another

c)

The process of getting a good or service from a warehouse to the end customer

80.

From the economic system’s point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform the assortments of products made by __________ into the assortment wanted by consumers.

a)

producers

b)

suppliers

c)

marketers

d)

distributors

81.

Producers benefit from using intermediaries because they ________.

a)

offer greater efficiency in making goods available to target markets

b)

bring a fresh point of view to strategy development

c)

eliminate risk

d)

are generally backlogged with orders

e)

refuse to store products for longer than a few days

82.

Which of the following is NOT a key function that intermediaries play in completing transactions?

a)

promotion

b)

information

c)

negotiation

d)

financing

e)

matching

83.

An advantage of a vertical marketing system (VMS) over a conventional distribution channel is that it acts as a ________ system.

a)

unified

b)

democratic

c)

socially responsible

d)

customer-driven

e)

task-driven

84.

Sometimes a producer chooses only a few dealers in a territory to distribute its products or services. Generally these dealers are given a right to ________ distribution.

a)

exclusive

b)

selected

c)

intensive

d)

administered

e)

corporate

85.

A firm that uses direct marketing would most likely sell its products through ________.

a)

one marketing intermediary

b)

big box retailers

c)

large wholesalers

d)

multiple intermediaries

e)

the company Web site

86.

A paid non-personal message communicated to a select audience through a mass medium is refers to?

a)

Advertising

b)

Personal selling

c)

Sales promotion

d)

Public relations

87.

Which of the following is the advertising media used in advertising?

a)

Newspaper

b)

Yellow page

c)

Social media

d)

All of the above

88.

The process of communicating with a potential buyer face-to-face with the purpose of selling a product or service is refers to?

a)

Advertising

b)

Personal selling

c)

Sales promotion

d)

Public relations

89.

The image above refers to?

a)

Rebate

b)

Coupon

c)

Frequent user incentives

d)

Point of purchase display

90.

A free product given to customers to encourage trial and purchase refers to?

a)

Rebate

b)

Sample

c)

Frequent user incentives

d)

Point of purchase display

91.

The temporary price reduction to resellers for purchasing specified quantity of product refers to?

a)

Trade shows

b)

Buying allowance

c)

Frequent user incentives

d)

Cooperative advertising

92.

Communication activities in creating and maintaining favorable relationship between organization and various public groups are refers to?

a)

Advertising

b)

Personal selling

c)

Sales promotion

d)

Public relations

93.

Brochures, company annual reports and magazines are the example of which public relations tool?

a)

Written communication

b)

Event sponsorship

c)

Publicity

d)

Spoken communication

94.

News release, featured article, captioned photograph ad press conference are the example of which public relations tool?

a)

Written and spoken communication

b)

Event sponsorship

c)

Publicity

d)

Corporate identity materials

95.

___ is a printed report containing news or activity of business that is sent by mail

a)

Propoganda

b)

Newsletter

c)

Budget

d)

Blog

96.

__ is one of the activities associated with PR

a)

Publicity

b)

Trade

c)

Social Media

d)

Advising

97.

The use of short-term incentives to encourage the purchase or sale of a product is called

a)

Advertising

b)

Personal selling

c)

Public relations

d)

Sales promotion

98.

Which tool is also known as "event" marketing (when a company provides money or resources for an event or team in exchange for benefits like advertising its logo at an event)?

a)

sponsorship

b)

direct marketing

c)

advertising

d)

sales promotion

99.

An

appropriate _____ mix must be created in order to meet the marketing

objectives.

a)

promotional

b)

social

c)

resource

d)

organisation

100.

What is relationship marketing?

a)

Marketing that builds an emotional connection with the customer

b)

Marketing to families

c)

Marketing that focuses on using minimal money