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OPAMP Quiz

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of amplifier is an OPAMP?

a)

Differential amplifier

b)

Oscillator

c)

Rectifier

d)

None of the above

2.

At what voltage does an OPAMP typically operate?

a)

High voltage (~ 100 KV)

b)

Medium voltage (~ 220 Volt)

c)

Low voltage (~ 12 Volt)

d)

Very high voltage (~ 10 mili Volt)

3.

The voltage gain of an ideal operational amplifier is:

a)

Infinite

b)

Very high

c)

Low

d)

Very low

4.

The bandwidth of an ideal operational amplifier is:

a)

Infinite

b)

Very high

c)

Low

d)

Very low

5.

What is the output impedance of an ideal operational amplifier?

a)

Infinite

b)

Very high

c)

Low

d)

Zero

6.

The CMRR of an ideal operational amplifier is:

a)

Infinite

b)

Very high

c)

Low

d)

Very low

7.

What is the slew rate of an ideal op-amp?

a)

Infinite

b)

Very high

c)

Low

d)

Zero

8.

An operational amplifier (op-amp) is classified as a:

a)

Voltage-controlled voltage source (VCVS)

b)

Voltage-controlled current source (VCCS)

c)

Current-controlled voltage source (CCVS)

d)

Current-controlled current source (CCCS)

9.

Applications of Op-Amps:

a)

  • Only +ve Voltage

b)

  • Only –ve voltage

c)

Dual power supply, i.e., ± Vcc

d)

None of the above

10.

What does the term 'virtual ground' refer to in the context of an op-amp?

a)

The terminal is directly connected to the ground.

b)

The terminal is not physically connected to the ground, but its voltage is zero because the other terminal is grounded due to the properties of the op-amp.

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of the above

11.

Applications of Op-Amps include:

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Positive feedback

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

12.

What does common-mode gain indicate?

a)

The capability to eliminate common mode signals such as noise and interference

b)

Increase the noise

c)

Increase the distortion

d)

All of the above

13.

The slew rate is defined as the:

a)

Maximum rate at which the output voltage changes over time

b)

Minimum rate at which the output voltage changes over time

c)

Moderate rate at which the output voltage changes over time

d)

None of the above

14.

What component is used as the feedback element in an op-amp integrator?

a)

Capacitor as feedback element

b)

Resistor as feedback element

c)

Inductor as feedback element

d)

A simple wire as feedback element

15.

An operational amplifier can amplify

a)

Only AC signals

b)

Only DC signals

c)

Both AC and DC signals

d)

Neither AC nor DC signals

16.

What is the tail current of a differential amplifier?

a)

Half of either collector current

b)

Equal to either collector current

c)

Two times either collector current

d)

Equal to the difference in base currents

17.

What is the approximate node voltage at the top of the tail resistor?

a)

Collector supply voltage

b)

Zero

c)

Emitter supply voltage

d)

Tail current times base resistance

18.

The input offset current is defined as the

a)

Difference between two base currents

b)

Average of two base currents

c)

Collector current divided by current gain

d)

Difference between two base-emitter voltages

19.

The tail current is equal to the

a)

Difference between two emitter currents

b)

Sum of two emitter currents

c)

Collector current divided by current gain

d)

Collector voltage divided by collector resistance

20.

In a differential amplifier with a differential output, the voltage gain is determined by dividing RC by

a)

re'

b)

re'/2

c)

2re'

d)

RE

21.

The input impedance of a differential amplifier is equal to re' multiplied by

a)

0

b)

RC

c)

RE

d)

2 times Beta

22.

What is the frequency of a DC signal?

a)

0

b)

60 Hz

c)

0 to over 1 MHz

d)

1 MHz

23.

What happens when both input terminals of a differential amplifier are connected to ground?

a)

The base currents are equal

b)

The collector currents are equal

c)

An output error voltage typically occurs

d)

The ac output voltage is zero

24.

What is one potential source of output error voltage?

a)

Input bias current

b)

Difference in collector resistors

c)

Tail current

d)

Common-mode voltage gain

25.

Common-mode signals are applied to

a)

The non-inverting input

b)

The inverting input

c)

Both inputs

d)

Top of the tail resistor

26.

The common-mode voltage gain is

a)

Less than the voltage gain

b)

Identical to the voltage gain

c)

More than the voltage gain

d)

None of the above

27.

What type of amplifier is typically used in the input stage of an op amp?

a)

Differential amplifier

b)

Class B push-pull amplifier

c)

CE amplifier

d)

Swamped amplifier

28.

What does the tail of a differential amplifier resemble?

a)

Battery

b)

Current source

c)

Transistor

d)

Diode

29.

The common-mode voltage gain of a differential amplifier is calculated as RC divided by

a)

re'

b)

re'/2

c)

2re'

d)

2RE

30.

What is the voltage across each emitter diode when the two bases are grounded in a differential amplifier?

a)

Zero

b)

0.7 V

c)

Identical

d)

High

31.

What is the common-mode rejection ratio?

a)

Very low

b)

Typically expressed in decibels

c)

Equivalent to the voltage gain

d)

Equivalent to the common-mode voltage gain

32.

What is the typical input stage configuration of an operational amplifier?

a)

Single-ended input with single-ended output

b)

Single-ended input with differential output

c)

Differential input with single-ended output

d)

Differential input with differential output

33.

The input offset current is typically

a)

Lower than the input bias current

b)

Zero

c)

Less than the input offset voltage

d)

Not significant when a base resistor is present

34.

When both bases are grounded, the only offset that results in an error is the

a)

Input offset current

b)

Input bias current

c)

Input offset voltage

d)

Beta

35.

What typically determines the open-loop cutoff frequency of an operational amplifier?

a)

Stray-wiring capacitance

b)

Base-emitter capacitance

c)

Collector-base capacitance

d)

Compensating capacitance

36.

A compensating capacitor helps to avoid

a)

Voltage gain

b)

Oscillations

c)

Input offset current

d)

Power bandwidth

37.

What is the open-loop voltage gain at the unity-gain frequency?

a)

1

b)

Amid

c)

Zero

d)

Very large

38.

The cutoff frequency of an operational amplifier is equal to the unity-gain frequency divided by

a)

the cutoff frequency

b)

Closed-loop voltage gain

c)

Unity

d)

Common-mode voltage gain

39.

Given a cutoff frequency of 15 Hz and a midband open-loop voltage gain of 1,000,000, what is the unity-gain frequency?

a)

25 Hz

b)

1 MHz

c)

1.5 MHz

d)

15 MHz

40.

What is the input impedance of an ideal operational amplifier?

a)

Finite

b)

0

c)

Infinite

d)

Unity

41.

Given a unity-gain frequency of 5 MHz and a midband open loop voltage gain of 200,000, what is the cutoff frequency?

a)

25 Hz

b)

1 MHz

c)

1.5 MHz

d)

15 MHz

42.

How many input terminals does an op-AMP have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

43.

The initial slope of a sine wave is directly related to

a)

Slew rate

b)

Frequency

c)

Voltage gain

d)

Capacitance

44.

What is the formula for the gain of an inverting amplifier?

a)

R2/R1

b)

R1/R2

c)

-R1/R2

d)

R1/(R1+R2)

45.

If the initial slope of a sine wave exceeds the slew rate,

a)

Distortion occurs

b)

Linear operation occurs

c)

Voltage gain is maximum

d)

The op amp works best

46.

What type of waveform can be generated using an OP-AMP?

a)

Square

b)

Pulse

c)

Triangular

d)

All of these

47.

The power bandwidth expands when

a)

Frequency increases

b)

Frequency decreases

c)

Initial slope decreases

d)

Voltage gain increases

48.

What is the gain of an op-amp voltage follower?

a)

0

b)

Unity

c)

Infinite

d)

Very high

49.

What components does a 741C utilize?

a)

Discrete resistors

b)

Inductors

c)

Active-load resistors

d)

A large coupling capacitor

50.

A 741C cannot function without

a)

Discrete resistors

b)

Passive loading

c)

DC return paths on the two bases

d)

A small coupling capacitor

51.

The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is

a)

Low

b)

Medium

c)

High

d)

Extremely high

52.

An LF157A is a

a)

Diff amp

b)

Source follower

c)

Bipolar op amp

d)

BIFET op amp

53.

If the two supply voltages are plus and minus 15 V, the MPP value of an op amp is closest to

a)

0

b)

+15V

c)

-15 V

d)

30 V

54.

The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C is controlled by

a)

A coupling capacitor

b)

The output short circuit current

c)

The power bandwidth

d)

A compensating capacitor

55.

The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of

a)

10 Hz

b)

20 kHz

c)

1 MHz

d)

15 MHz

56.

The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed-loop voltage gain and the

a)

Compensating capacitance

b)

Tail current

c)

Closed-loop cutoff frequency

d)

Load resistance

57.

If the unity frequency is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, then the openloop cutoff frequency of the op amp is

a)

10 Hz

b)

20 Hz

c)

50 Hz

d)

100 Hz

58.

The initial slope of a sine wave increases when

a)

Frequency decreases

b)

Peak value increases

c)

Cc increases

d)

Cc increases

59.

If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth,

a)

Slew-rate distortion occurs

b)

A normal output signal occurs

c)

Output offset voltage increases

d)

Distortion may occur

60.

An op amp has an open base resistor. The output voltage will be

a)

Zero

b)

Slightly different from zero

c)

Maximum positive or negative

d)

An amplified sine wave

61.

An op amp has a voltage gain of 500,000. If the output voltage is 1 V, the input voltage is

a)

2 microvolts

b)

5 mV

c)

10 mV

d)

1 V

62.

A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. If the load resistance is large, the MPP value is

a)

0

b)

+15 V

c)

27 V

d)

37 V

63.

Above the cutoff frequency, the voltage gain of a 741C decreases approximately

a)

10 dB per decade

b)

15 dB per octave

c)

10 dB per octave

d)

20 dB per decade

64.

The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the

a)

Cutoff frequency

b)

Unity-gain frequency

c)

Generator frequency

d)

Power bandwidth

65.

When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave occurs, the output

a)

Is larger

b)

Appears triangular

c)

Is normal

d)

Has no offset

66.

A 741C has

a)

A voltage gain of 100,000

b)

An input impedance of 2 Mohm

c)

An output impedance of 75 ohm

d)

All of the above

67.

The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals

a)

The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance

b)

The open-loop voltage gain

c)

The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance

d)

The input resistance

68.

The non-inverting amplifier has a

a)

Large closed-loop voltage gain

b)

Small open-loop voltage gain

c)

Large closed-loop input impedance

d)

Large closed-loop output impedance

69.

The voltage follower has a

a)

Closed-loop voltage gain of unity

b)

Small open-loop voltage gain

c)

Closed-loop bandwidth of zero

d)

Large closed-loop output impedance

70.

A summing amplifier can have

a)

No more than two input signals

b)

Two or more input signals

c)

A closed-loop input impedance of infinity

d)

A small open-loop voltage gain

71.

In a linear op-amp circuit, the

a)

Signals are always sine waves

b)

Op amp does not go into saturation

c)

Input impedance is ideally infinite

d)

Gain-bandwidth product is constant

72.

In an ac amplifier using an op amp with coupling and bypass capacitors, the output offset voltage is

a)

Zero

b)

Minimum

c)

Maximum

d)

Unchanged

73.

To use an op amp, you need at least

a)

One supply voltage

b)

Two supply voltages

c)

One coupling capacitor

d)

One bypass capacitor

74.

In a controlled current source with op amps, the circuit acts like a

a)

Voltage amplifier

b)

Current-to-voltage converter

c)

Voltage-to-current converter

d)

Current amplifier

75.

An instrumentation amplifier has a high

a)

Output impedance

b)

Power gain

c)

CMRR

d)

Supply voltage

76.

A current booster on the output of an op amp will increase the short-circuit current by

a)

ACL

b)

Beta dc

c)

funity

d)

Av

77.

Given a voltage reference of +2.5 V, we can get a voltage reference of +15 V by using a

a)

Inverting amplifier

b)

Noninverting amplifier

c)

Differential amplifier

d)

Instrumentation amplifier

78.

In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly by

a)

CMRR of the op amp

b)

Gain-bandwidth product

c)

Supply voltages

d)

Tolerance of resistors

79.

The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually comes from

a)

An inverting amplifier

b)

A transducer

c)

A differential amplifier

d)

A Wheatstone bridge

80.

In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier, the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the

a)

First stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Mismatched resistors

d)

Output op amp

81.

Guard driving reduces the

a)

CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier

b)

Leakage current in the shielded cable

c)

Voltage gain of the first stage

d)

Common-mode input voltage

82.

In an averaging circuit, the input resistances are

a)

Equal to the feedback resistance

b)

Equal to the feedback resistance

c)

Greater than the feedback resistance

d)

Unequal to each other

83.

A D/A converter is an application of the

a)

Adjustable bandwidth circuit

b)

Noninverting amplifier

c)

Voltage-to-current converter

d)

Summing amplifier

84.

In a voltage-controlled current source,

a)

A current booster is never used

b)

The load is always floated

c)

A stiff current source drives the load

d)

The load current equals ISC

85.

The Howland current source produces a

a)

Unidirectional floating load current

b)

Bidirectional single-ended load current

c)

Unidirectional single-ended load current

d)

Bidirectional floating load current

86.

The purpose of AGC is to

a)

Increase the voltage gain when the input signal increases

b)

Convert voltage to current

c)

Keep the output voltage almost constant

d)

Reduce the CMRR of the circuit

87.

1 ppm is equivalent to

a)

0.1%

b)

0.01%

c)

0.001%

d)

0.0001%

88.

An input transducer converts

a)

Voltage to current

b)

Current to voltage

c)

An electrical quantity to a nonelectrical quantity

d)

A nonelectrical quantity to an electrical quantity

89.

A thermistor converts

a)

Light to resistance

b)

Temperature to resistance

c)

Voltage to sound

d)

Current to voltage

90.

When we trim a resistor, we are

a)

Making a fine adjustment

b)

Reducing its value

c)

Increasing its value

d)

Making a coarse adjustment

91.

A D/A converter with four inputs has

a)

Two outputs

b)

Four outputs

c)

Eight outputs

d)

Sixteen outputs

92.

An op amp with a rail-to-rail output

a)

Has a current-boosted output

b)

Can swing all the way to either supply voltage

c)

Has a high output impedance

d)

Cannot be less than 0 V.

93.

When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit, it acts like a

a)

Switch

b)

Voltage-controlled current source

c)

Voltage-controlled resistance

d)

Capacitance

94.

If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage, its output cannot

a)

Be negative

b)

Be zero

c)

Equal the supply voltage

d)

Be ac coupled

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