wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Business Management Semester 2 Revision Quiz

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a computer based system that collects, stores, and process data to produce information is known as a what?

a)

Information system

b)

Data system

c)

Spreadsheet

d)

Database

2.

An accounting information system is a system of collecting and processing transaction data and communicating (a)   information to decision-makers.


3.

What type of manual documents do accountants fill out/possess if they do not have automated computing systems? (2 correct answers)

a)

Spreadsheets

b)

Ledgers

c)

Data logs

d)

Journals

4.

A Business Information System (BIS) combines what kind of data in order for it to be communicated to various departments or for various functions across the organisation?

a)

People, hardware and software

b)

Names, addresses and bank account details of employees

c)

Programs/applications/databases to do a particular job only

5.

True or false: A Management Information System (MIS) is available to everyone, except senior executives?

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following organisations is not likely to use a Transaction Processing System (TPS)?

a)

Penney's

b)

Lifestyle Sports

c)

IKEA

d)

Pieta House

7.

Select the 4 main uses of a Transaction Processing System (TPS)

a)

monitoring

b)

collection

c)

storage

d)

forecasting

e)

processing

8.

An Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system differs from a Business Information System (BIS) how?​ ​

a)

it is a suite of integrated applications that are combined into one system e.g. Sage

b)

it uses separate applications that have to be edited in more than one place

c)

it is used only by management

d)

it assesses customer habits

9.

What are the likely pieces of data you will find in a Customer Relationship Management System (CRM)?

a)

Name

b)

Address

c)

Location

d)

PPSN

e)

Gender

10.

Cyber security is defined as the measures taken to protect a computer or computer system against (a)   access or attack


11.

What are 3 examples of intentional cyber attacks?

a)

Hacker

b)

Virus

c)

Accidental fires

d)

Spyware

e)

Theft

12.

True or false: You do not need to have access to the internet to access cloud based applications?

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Cloud computing is the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store, manage & process data, rather than a local server or a personal computer. All computer programs and data is stored on a central server owned by a company (e.g. Google/Amazon) and accessed (a)   .

14.

What is AI and Robotic Process Automation?

a)

Using software or technology to process information or complete tasks on its own without human intervention. Examples include smart devices, help-desk or switch board operations and assistants.

b)

Where robots serve humans

c)

AI = Advanced Intelligence

RPA = Really Plausible Advice

15.

What is Blockchain?

a)

A digital chain that locks your phone

b)

A kind of snack made of blocks

c)

A type of social media for builders

d)

A shared digital record, alike to a digital notebook, where transactions are stored securely in blocks

16.

A virus typically has a (a)   effect, such as corrupting the system or destroying data


17.

A risk assessment and contingency plan is a type of what? (2 correct)

a)

Cyber attack

b)

Security control

c)

Mitigating factor

d)

Security breach

18.

Locked doors, CCTV, blinds or a security guard are all types of what two types of control?

(a)  

19.

One of the best ways to mitigate security breaches is to (a)   controls (including access, physical, procedural and software)

20.

Providing databases and computer applications over the network is a cloud based service known as

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

c)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

21.

Providing storage capacity is a type of cloud based service known as

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Software as a Service (Saas)

c)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

22.

What is the main goal of corporate governance?

a)

To increase employee salaries

b)

To allow CEOs to make decisions without oversight

c)

To entertain shareholders

d)

To ensure organisations are run fairly, transparently, with control and in the interests of all stakeholders

23.

Which of the following is a key principle of corporate governance?

a)

Salary increases for directors

b)

Secret decision-making

c)

Nepotism

d)

Transparency

24.

The primary responsibility for ensuring good corporate governance in a company lies with the

(a)  

25.

What can poor corporate governance lead to?

a)

Higher productivity

b)

Financial scandals and loss of trust

c)

Stronger brand and customer loyalty

d)

investor confidence

26.

What is the key difference between the shareholder and stakeholder models of corporate governance?

a)

Shareholder model ignores profits

b)

Stakeholder model focuses only on investors

c)

Shareholder model prioritizes owners; stakeholder model considers a wider group

d)

There is no difference

27.

In the shareholder model, the primary objective of the company is to maximise (a)   wealth

28.

Which of the following is most aligned with the stakeholder model of corporate governance?

a)

Cutting employee benefits to raise share prices

b)

Prioritizing quarterly earnings over employee safety

c)

Ignoring environmental impact to increase profits

d)

Engaging with local communities in decision-making

29.

Which of the following is NOT one of the main G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance?

a)

Focusing exclusively on short-term profits for shareholders

b)

Providing equitable treatment for all stakeholders

c)

Ensuring the rights of shareholders and key ownership functions

d)

Enhancing the role of boards in company decision-making

30.

All companies have to follow the G20 Principles of Good Governance?

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The 4 benchmark principles of the G20 Principles are

a)

The rights and equitable treatment of shareholders and key ownership functions

b)

The role of stakeholders

c)

Disclosure and transparency

d)

The responsibilities of the board

e)

Saving money

32.

What is the purpose of the Irish Corporate Governance Annex?

a)

To determine the tax rates for companies operating in Ireland

b)

To control employee salaries in Irish organisations

c)

To regulate the amount of profit companies can make

d)

To provide a framework for companies to manage their governance practices effectively

33.

According to the Irish Corporate Governance Code, what must listed companies in Ireland do regarding governance practices?

a)

Ignore the code unless there is a government mandate

b)

Fully comply with the code or explain deviations from it

c)

Follow the code for one year and then it is no longer mandatory

34.

Which of the following is included in the Annexes to the Irish Corporate Governance Code?

a)

Guidelines for corporate social responsibility (CSR) practices

b)

Detailed provisions on the composition and role of the board of directors

35.

Companies listed on the Irish Stock Exchange must review their compliance with the Irish Corporate Governance Code every

(a)  

36.

The Board of Directors can be made of what type of directors?

a)

Executive and Non-Executive (NEDs)

b)

Executive and appointed only

c)

Shadow directors only

d)

Employee representatives and CEO

37.

Directors are considered (a)   of the company and its owners, hence they must act within the best interests of the beneficiaries

38.

Who is at the top of the governance chain in a company?

a)

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO)

b)

Board of Directors

c)

Shareholders/investors/beneficiaries

d)

Employees

39.

What is the primary responsibility of the Board of Directors in the governance chain?

a)

To set the salaries of employees

b)

To manage the day-to-day operations of the company

c)

To ensure the company complies with all laws

d)

To oversee the management and ensure the company is run in the best interests of shareholders and stakeholders

40.

What role do shareholders play in the governance chain?

a)

They directly manage the daily operations of the company

b)

They elect the Board of Directors and have voting rights on key company decisions

c)

They set executive salaries and approve all business strategies

41.

What is the role of audit committees in the governance chain?

a)

Review financial reporting and ensure the integrity of financial statements

b)

Implement business strategy

c)

Evaluate the performance of the CEO

42.

BOD (Board of Directors) can be split into 2 main formats, depending on company structure, location and company discretion. These include:

a)

Unitary (one board)

b)

Three tier (three boards)

c)

Two tier (two boards)

43.

Good governance practices include

a)

NEDs (Non-executive directors) sit on the board

b)

Regular board meetings, AGM and EGM structure in place

c)
  • Audit committee established, internal and external

d)

A database of policies and procedures is readily available

e)

Directors are paid a high remuneration that increases in line with their duties and how many hours they work

44.

What is the main purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

a)

To maximize profits at all costs

b)

To contribute to the welfare of society while balancing the interests of stakeholders

c)

To focus solely on shareholders’ returns

45.

Which of the following is an example of ethical behavior in business?

a)

Engaging in fraudulent financial reporting

b)

Ignoring safety standards to reduce production costs

c)

Paying employees below the minimum wage to increase profits

d)

Implementing environmentally sustainable practices in production

46.

How can companies ensure they are practicing ethical business practices?

a)

By creating a code of ethics establishing a clear code of ethics, training employees, and promoting integrity and transparency throughout the organisation

b)

By following laws and regulations alone

47.

Philanthropy is?

(a)  

48.

What is the main purpose of the Non-Financial Reporting Directive (NFRD)?

a)

To require companies to disclose only financial performance

b)

To increase transparency on environmental, social, and governance issues

c)

To track daily operational activities of companies

49.

Which companies are required to comply with the Non-Financial Reporting Directive (NFRD) (as of 2024 syllabus)

a)

All companies in the EU, regardless of size

b)

Only government-owned companies

c)

Only large listed companies, banks, and insurance firms

50.

According to the NFRD, which areas must be covered in the non-financial report?

a)

Environmental and social factors only

b)

Financial performance and market share

c)

Governance factors only

d)

Environmental, social, and governance factors, along with human rights, anti-corruption and diversity

51.

How should companies present their non-financial information under the NFRD?

a)

Only upon request by shareholders

b)

In a separate report from their annual financial statements

c)

Within the company’s social media accounts

52.

What is a key benefit of the Non-Financial Reporting Directive (NFRD) for stakeholders?

a)

It eliminates the need for annual financial reports

b)

It only helps in evaluating a company’s profits

c)

It allows stakeholders to assess a company’s impact on society and the environment

53.

True or false: The NFRD was set up to make sure companies in non-EU countries comply with environment procedures?

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What is the EU Corporate Sustainability Reporting Directive (CSRD) in relation to the NFRD?

a)

It applies only to non-EU companies

b)

It is a new directive that expands and strengthens the NFRD’s requirements

c)

It only affects financial reporting, not non-financial reporting

55.

According to Kohlberg’s theory, which of the following is the first level of moral development?

a)

Post-conventional level

b)

Conventional level

c)

Pre-conventional level

56.

At the pre-conventional level, moral decisions are primarily based on:

a)

Adhering to universal ethical principles

b)

Understanding the social contract and mutual benefits

c)

Following laws and maintaining social order

d)

Avoiding punishment and seeking rewards

57.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the conventional level of moral development?

a)

Morality is based on self-interest and avoiding punishment

b)

People begin to focus on social roles, expectations, and the importance of societal rules

c)

Moral decisions are based on personal autonomy and the pursuit of individual happiness

58.

In Kohlberg’s theory, what is the post-conventional level primarily focused on?

a)

Avoiding punishment and gaining rewards

b)

Adhering to universal ethical principles and rights

c)

Following rules without question

59.

Which of the following is an example of an unethical practice in accounting?

a)

Falsifying financial statements to make a company appear more profitable

b)

Ensuring that all transactions are recorded accurately

c)

Conducting audits to confirm the integrity of financial reporting

60.

What should an accountant do if they are asked by their employer to overlook a significant financial discrepancy?

a)

Ignore the discrepancy and follow the employer's instructions

b)

Cover up the issue to avoid consequences

c)

Report the issue to a higher authority or regulatory body, following ethical guidelines

d)

Only report the discrepancy if it is requested by the client

61.

If an accountant is aware that a company has failed to disclose a material liability in its financial statements, which ethical obligation is the accountant facing?

a)

The obligation to ignore the issue, as it is not their responsibility

b)

The obligation to report the issue and ensure the company’s financial statements are accurate and complete

c)

The obligation to protect the company’s image and avoid reporting the issue

d)

The obligation to report only if the company is public