wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

STAAR Reteach

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following has the biggest impact on the seasons?
a)
Earth's rotation
b)
Tilted axis
c)
Moon's gravitational pull
d)
Pressure systems
2.
What causes the day and night cycle on Earth?
a)
Rotation of the Sun
b)
Revolution of the Earth
c)
Gravitational pull from the moon
d)
Rotation of the Earth
3.
In Which position would the Southern Hemisphere experience winter?
a)
Position A
b)
Position B
c)
Position C
d)
Position D
4.
In which position would the Northern Hemisphere be experiencing spring?
a)
Position A
b)
Position B
c)
Position C
d)
Position D
5.
Which of the following has the BIGGEST impact on the Earth's tides?
a)
The sun
b)
Earth's rotation
c)
Earth's revolution
d)
The moon
6.
How much time passes between a high tide and a low tide?
a)
6 hours
b)
12 hours
c)
24 hours
d)
2 days
7.

By how many degrees is the Earth tilted on its axis?

a)

90

b)

2.5

c)

23.5

d)

28

8.

It is currently Spring in the northern hemisphere, what season is it currently in the southern hemisphere?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

fall

9.

If a 1st quarter moon were to occur tonight, what moon phase would occur in 2 weeks?

a)

waxing gibbous

b)

full moon

c)

waning crescent

d)

3rd quarter

10.

During which season do we experience the most hours of daylight because of the tilt of the Earth?

a)

Summer

b)

Fall

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

11.
What causes tectonic plates to move along the Earth's surface?
a)
wind
b)
ocean currents
c)
convection in the mantle
d)
expansion of the Earth
12.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move away from each other?
a)
transform
b)
subduction
c)
convergent
d)
divergent
13.
What forms at a divergent boundary between two oceanic plates?
a)
rift valley
b)
mountain
c)
mid-ocean ridge
d)
trench
14.
Which type of crust is more dense?
a)
oceanic
b)
continental
c)
divergent
d)
pizza
15.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move toward each other?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
lateral
16.
What forms at a convergent boundary between a continental plate and an oceanic plate?
a)
volcanoes
b)
rift valleys
c)
faults
d)
mid-ocean ridges
17.
A rift valley occurs at a ____________ boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
horizontal
18.
What is the process in which hot molten rock rises, then cools and sinks back to the core?
a)
plate tectonics
b)
continental drift
c)
convection
d)
divergence
19.
A trench forms at a _________ boundary.
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
vertical
20.
Mountains form at a ___________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
convergent
d)
subduction
21.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates slide past each other?
a)
divergent
b)
transform
c)
lateral
d)
convergent
22.
A fault forms at a _________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
horizontal
d)
convergent
23.
What type of boundary is shown at A?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
24.
What is happening at point B?
a)
subduction
b)
a divergent boundary
c)
convection
d)
an earthquake
25.
What is the process in which two plates move toward each other but one sinks under the other?
a)
subduction
b)
convection
c)
divergence
d)
transformation
26.

All of the living and non-living things in a habitat.

a)

organism

b)

community

c)

population

d)

ecosystem

27.

Any living thing.

a)

ecosystem

b)

population

c)

organism

d)

community

28.

A _________ is a group of the same species living in an area.

a)

ecosystem

b)

organism

c)

population

d)

biosphere

29.

The entire Earth is considered a ___.

a)

ecosystem

b)

organism

c)

population

d)

biosphere

30.

Populations living together in a defined area.

a)

community

b)

biosphere

c)

organism

d)

ecosystem

31.

True or False:

A food web is many interconnected food chains.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The major source of energy in an ecosystem is the ____.

a)

carnivore

b)

herbivore

c)

sun

d)

producer

33.

Which of the following are examples of biotic factors?

a)

sun, water, oxygen

b)

sun, soil, water

c)

grass, trees, grasshopper

d)

grass, sun, soil

34.

Sun, soil, temperature, oxygen, and water are examples of _______ factors.

a)

abiotic

b)

biotic

35.

I eat plants and animals.

a)

carnivore

b)

omnivore

c)

herbivore

36.

I eat only animals.

a)

omnivore

b)

herbivore

c)

carnivore

37.

I eat only plants.

a)

herbivore

b)

omnivore

c)

carnivore

38.

I break down dead plant and animal matter and recycle them back into the soil.

a)

producers

b)

decomposers

c)

the sun

d)

herbivores

39.

Grasses, shrubs and trees are called producers because they make ______.

a)

water

b)

minerals

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

food

40.

In this food chain, what do the arrows represent?

a)

the flow of energy

b)

one community replacing another

c)

renewable resource depletion

d)

life cycle stages

41.

The plover and crocodile have a relationship where both benefit. Which symbiotic relationship is this?

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

42.

Remoras hitch a ride and feed on scraps of food left by the sharks. Which symbiotic relationship is this? (Hint: one benefits and the other is unharmed)

a)

mutualism

b)

commensialism

c)

parasitism

43.

The female mosquito bites a host. Which symbiotic relationship is shown? (Hint: one benefits, the other is harmed)

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

44.

Which factor would most likely limit the number of rabbits living in an area?

a)

plentiful resources

b)

a stable climate

c)

more predators

d)

less competition

45.

Which process caused the gradual changes shown in this community?

a)

ecological succession

b)

urban growth

c)

global warming

d)

environmental pollution

46.

All living things are composed of one or more cells.

a)

True

b)

Falso

47.

The ________ controls the movement of materials into and out of the cell.

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondrion

48.

What structure in a plant cell enables the cell to capture energy from the Sun?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondrion

d)

central vacuole

49.

Which type of cell can make its own food?

a)

animal

b)

plant

50.

In which organelle are molecules packaged in preparation for distribution throughout the cell?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

vacuole

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

Golgi apparatus

51.

____________ is the gel-like substance found in a cell?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

chlorophyll

c)

water

52.

The _______________ surrounds the cell material.

a)

chromosome

b)

cell membrane

c)

cytoplasm

53.

Lysosomes in the cell work to

a)

get rid of wast

b)

provide protein

c)

store all information

54.

What is the basic unit of structure and function in all living things?

a)

cell

b)

organism

c)

atom

d)

plasma

55.

The __________ is the control center of a cell.

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

vacuole

56.

Which cell part protects and provides shape for a plant cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondrion

c)

vacuole

d)

cell wall

57.

The splitting of a cell into two separate cells is

a)

division

b)

mitosis

c)

diffusion

58.

The __________ produces energy in the cell.

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

vacuole

59.

What is the smallest unit of any organism that is capable of independent function?

a)

tissue

b)

cell

c)

organ

d)

muscle

60.

The DNA is found in the ________ of a prokaryote.

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

61.

An individual's "fingerprint" is carried by the

a)

cell membrane

b)

DNA

c)

mitochondria

d)

RNA

62.

Both plant and animal cells have a cell membrane.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which statement about plant and animal cells is correct?

a)

Animal cells are irregular in shape; plant cells are regular in shape.

b)

Animal cells are regular in shape; plant cells are irregular in shape.

c)

Both animal and plant cells are irregular in shape

d)

Both animal and plant cells are regular in shape.

64.

Suppose you were to examine plant and animal cells under a microscope. Which structures would you find in both cell types?

a)

cell wall, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi body

b)

cell wall, cytoplasm, and Golgi body

c)

nucleolus, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum

d)

all of the above

65.

A cell membrane works to

a)

store all information

b)

give the cell support

c)

keep thing in and out of the cell

d)

get rid of waste

66.

What are tissues made up of?

a)

Cells

b)

Organs

c)

Organ Systems

d)

Organelles

67.

What is the smallest living unit in a living thing?

a)

Atoms

b)

Cells

c)

Tissues

d)

Organelles

68.

The tiny parts in a cell that perform a job are called:

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleus

c)

Organelles

d)

Tissues

69.

What is the outside layer of a plant cell called?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Nucleus

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

70.

What controls all of the activities in a cell?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

71.

What controls the things that enter and leave a cell?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

72.

What is the gel-like fluid inside of all cells?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Plasma

d)

Membranes

73.

What serves as the storage center in a cell?

a)

Vacuole

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosome

d)

Cytosol

74.

What organelle packs and distributes proteins?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosome

75.

Which organelle carries the DNA of a cell?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cytoplasm

76.

A cell that doesn't need much energy would have very few...

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Lysosome

c)

Vacuole

d)

Ribosomes

77.

The guard at the entrance of a building is like what part of a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Golgi Bodies

78.

Which organism would be unicellular and prokaryotic?

a)

Amoeba

b)

Bacteria

c)

Owl

d)

Termite

79.

What part of a plant cell converts sunlight into food?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Vacuole

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Mitochondria

80.

Which two structures do plant cells have that animal cells don't?

a)

Vacuoles and Chloroplasts

b)

Nucleus and Cell Membrane

c)

Chloroplasts and Cell Wall

d)

Mitochondria and Chlorophyll

81.

Who published the three laws of motion in 1687?

a)

Albert Einstein

b)

Galileo Galilei

c)

Isaac Newton

d)

Nikola Tesla

82.

What is inertia?

a)

The resistance of any physical object to a change in its state of motion

b)

The rate of acceleration due to a force

c)

The tendency of an object to keep doing what it's doing

d)

The force of gravity on an object

83.

According to Newton's second law, the net force is equal to:

a)

mass / acceleration

b)

velocity / time

c)

mass x acceleration

d)

mass x velocity

84.

What does Newton's third law state?

a)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

The force of gravity is 9.81 m/s^2

c)

An object at rest stays at rest

d)

Force equals mass times acceleration

85.

What is the formula to calculate the force of gravity?

a)

F(g) = m+a

b)

F(g) = m/v

c)

F(g) = ma

d)

F(g) = mg

86.

What units are used to measure weight?

a)

Newtons

b)

Pounds

c)

Meters per second squared

d)

Kilograms

87.

What does 'normal force' refer to?

a)

The force that is perpendicular to the surface on which an object rests

b)

The force that keeps an object in motion

c)

The force that an object exerts on itself

d)

The force that always acts downward

88.

How can a reindeer pull a sleigh according to Newton's laws?

a)

By pulling the sled with a force equal to its weight

b)

By reducing the force of gravity

c)

By increasing its mass

d)

By exerting a force on the ground that propels it forward

89.

What is a free body diagram?

a)

A sketch of the movement of an object over time

b)

A diagram showing the gravitational force on an object

c)

A diagram showing all the forces acting on an object

d)

A detailed drawing of the shape and dimensions of an object

90.

What does it mean if the net force on an object is 0?

a)

The object is moving at a constant speed

b)

The object is accelerating

c)

The object is losing mass

d)

The object is in equilibrium

91.

Which one is balanced?

a)

top

b)

bottom

c)

both

d)

Neither is balanced

92.

What is the net force on the object pictured?

a)

3 N

b)

5 N

c)

4 N

d)

8 N

93.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
94.
Which direction will the object move?
a)
Up
b)
Down
c)
Right
d)
Left
95.
The forces represented by the arrows in the diagrams are applied to the four objects that are at rest on a table. Which object is most likely to move to the right?
a)
Object W
b)
Object X
c)
Object Y
d)
Object Z
96.
The forces represented by the arrows in the diagrams are applied to the four objects that are at rest on a table. Which object is most likely to remain in place?
a)
Object W
b)
Object X
c)
Object Y
d)
Object Z
97.
Calculate the net force shown in the  diagram?
a)
41 N
b)
25 N
c)
16 N
d)
9 N
98.
What is the net force?
a)
65 N left
b)
65 N right
c)
35 N left
d)
35 N right
99.
How will this object move? 
a)
It won't move. 
b)
It will move to the right. 
c)
It will move to the left. 
d)
It will move in both directions. 
100.
Which could be an example of a balanced force?
a)
An asteroid moving at a constant speed through space 
b)
A car accelerating from a stop sign
c)
A box of dishes falling from a counter 
d)
A rocket taking off 
101.
How many Hydrogen are in 4H2O?
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
102.
How many Oxygen are in H2O?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
0
d)
4
103.
How many Magnesium are in 10MgCl2?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
20
104.
2H2 + O2 ----> 2H2O What is the product?
a)
------>
b)
2H2O
c)
2H2+ O2
105.
2H2 + O2 --------> 2H2O What  are the reactants?
a)
----->
b)
2H2O
c)
2H2 +O2
106.
How many O's are in Al₂(SO₄)₃
a)
4
b)
12
c)
7
d)
24
107.
Number of H in 3(NH₄)₂CrO₄
a)
4
b)
2
c)
8
d)
24
108.
How many atoms are there TOTAL in:
H2SO4
a)
6
b)
5
c)
7
d)
3
109.
How many elements are in C6H12O6?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
110.
How many Sodium (Na) are in 6NaCl?
a)
1
b)
12
c)
6
111.
Number of N in (NH₄)₂CrO₄
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
16
112.
How many Sodium (Na) are in 6NaCl?
a)
1
b)
12
c)
6
113.
Number of N in (NH₄)₂CrO₄
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
16
114.
A subscript is the small number below a(n) ________ that tells the number of _______ of that element.
a)
element symbol; atoms
b)
atom; element symbol
c)
subscript; protons
d)
compound; elements
115.
How many O's are in Al₂(SO₄)₃
a)
4
b)
12
c)
7
d)
24
116.

What does the number 3 represent in 4NH3?

a)

Subscript

b)

Superscript

c)

Coefficient

117.

What does the number 4 represent in 4NH3?

a)

Subscript

b)

Superscript

c)

Coefficient

118.

How many Nitrogen (N) atoms are in 4NH3?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

12

119.

How many Hydrogen (H) atoms are in 4NH3?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

12

120.

In the equation shown, what are the reactant(s)?

a)

N2 + H2

b)

NH3

121.

In the equation shown, what are the product(s)?

a)

N2 + H2

b)

NH3

122.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

123.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

124.

Is this equation balanced?

a)

Yes

b)

No

125.

To balance an equation you should:

a)

ONLY change subscripts.

b)

ONLY change coefficients.

c)

Change BOTH subscripts and coefficients.

126.
Is this equation balanced?
a)
yes
b)
no
c)
Not enough information
127.

Which statement is true of the following chemical reaction?

a)

The mass of the reactants is less than the mass of the products.

b)

The mass of the reactants is greater than the mass of the products.

c)

The mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products.

128.

Which statement is true of the following chemical reaction?

a)

The mass of the reactants is less than the mass of the products.

b)

The mass of the reactants is greater than the mass of the products.

c)

The mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products.

129.

Which statement is true of the following chemical reaction?

a)

The mass of the reactants is less than the mass of the products.

b)

The mass of the reactants is greater than the mass of the products.

c)

The mass of the reactants is equal to the mass of the products.

130.

Which equation shows that the atoms are conserved in the chemical reaction?

a)

K + 3O2 --> 2KO3

b)

3K + 3O2 --> 6KO3

c)

2K + 3O2 --> 2KO3

d)

4K + 2O2 --> 2KO3

131.

Which of the following is true about this chemical reaction?


N2 + 2H2 --> NH4

a)

The equation is balanced.

b)

There are more atoms in the reactants

c)

There are more atoms in the products

132.

Which of the following is true about this chemical reaction?


N2 + 2H2 --> 2NH4

a)

The equation is balanced.

b)

There are more atoms in the reactants

c)

There are more atoms in the products

133.

Which of the following is true about this chemical reaction?


N2 + 4H2 --> 2NH4

a)

The equation is balanced.

b)

There are more atoms in the reactants

c)

There are more atoms in the products

134.

Which formula represents the molecules?

a)

4CO2

b)

C4O8

c)

4C4O8

d)

CO2

135.

Which formula represents the molecules?

a)

2CH4

b)

CH4

c)

C2H8

d)

10CH4

136.

Are the atoms conserved in the following chemical reaction?

a)

Yes because the number of reactant atoms are equal to the product atoms.

b)

Yes because there are 3 molecules on both sides.

c)

No because the reactants have more atoms than the products.

d)

No because the molecules are different on the product side.

137.

Are the atoms conserved in the following chemical reaction?

a)

Yes because the number of reactant atoms are equal to the product atoms.

b)

Yes because there are 3 molecules on both sides.

c)

No because the reactants have more atoms than the products.

d)

No because the products have more atoms than the reactants.

138.

According to the law of conservation of mass, how much zinc should have been produced?

a)

256 grams

b)

104 grams

c)

128 grams

d)

64 grams

139.

According to the law of conservation of mass, how much zinc should have been produced?

a)

152 grams

b)

104 grams

c)

128 grams

d)

64 grams

140.

What changes during a chemical reaction?

a)

total mass

b)

the number of atoms

c)

the properties of the new substance

d)

the size of the atoms

141.

What are the coefficients required to balance the following chemical equation?

a)

3, 1, 2

b)

3, 2, 1

c)

6, 1, 2

d)

6, 2, 3

142.

Which statement best describes what happens during. a chemical reaction when two different substances form a new substance?

a)

Some of the atoms are destroyed and replaced by new atoms.

b)

All of the atoms are destroyed and all new atoms form.

c)

None of the atoms are destroyed but some new atom are added.

d)

None of the atoms are destroyed and no new atoms form.

143.

Two liquids are mixed in a chemical reaction forming a white solid. What will the mass of the new solid substance be?

a)

150 g

b)

100 g

c)

250 g

d)

50 g

144.

What are these signs of?

a)

a physical reaction occurred

b)

a chemical reaction occurred

c)

an exothermic reaction occurred

d)

an endothermic reaction occurred

145.

Which sign of a chemical reaction shows the formation of a precipitate?

a)

Example A

b)

Example B

c)

Example C

d)

Example D

e)

Example E

146.

Which sign of a chemical reaction shows the formation of a gas?

a)

Example A

b)

Example B

c)

Example C

d)

Example D

e)

Example E

147.

The tangram activity is a good analogy for...

a)

conservation of mass

b)

physical properties

c)

chemical properties

d)

balancing equations

148.

Which equation represents the model below?

a)

2SO2 + O2 --> 2SO3

b)

N2 + H2 --> NH3

c)

2S2O + S2 --> S3O

d)

2H2O + O2 --> 2H3O

149.

What is this image showing?

a)

atoms form new bonds during a chemical reaction

b)

atoms release large amounts of energy during a chemical reaction

c)

atoms are too strong to break apart during collisions

d)

some atoms get destroyed when they collide with enough energy

150.

Several students made a claim about what happened when the coal was burned. Which claim is support with evidence form the image below?

a)

All of the particles in the solid piece of coal have rearranged into a colorless gas.

b)

The solid coal particles get burned up and destroyed when coal is burned.

c)

The gas particles created have less mass than the solid coal particles.

d)

The solid coal is converted into pure energy when burned.

Similar Resources on Wayground

CLASS 8 | SCIENCE | Chapter 7 | Metals and Non-metals

150 questions

CLASS 8 | SCIENCE | Chapter 7 | Metals and Non-metals

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

NC EOG ESS

151 questions

NC EOG ESS

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Science Final Exam REVIEW GAME (2022*)

145 questions

Science Final Exam REVIEW GAME (2022*)

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Sci 7 Semester One Exam Review January 2021

150 questions

Sci 7 Semester One Exam Review January 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Sci 8 Semester One Exam Review January 2021

150 questions

Sci 8 Semester One Exam Review January 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade

Enviro B Final Exam Review

150 questions

Enviro B Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 12th Grade

Human Impact Unit Test

145 questions

Human Impact Unit Test

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 8th Grade

Science stage 7

148 questions

Science stage 7

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th Grade - University