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8th Science STAAR Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many atoms of each element are in this chemical formula?

CH4COOH2

a)

2 Carbon atoms, 8 Hydrogen Atoms, 4 Oxygen atoms

b)

4 Carbon atoms, 6 Hydrogen atoms, 4 Oxygen atoms

c)

2 Carbon atoms, 6 Hydrogen atoms, 2 Oxygen atoms

d)

1 Carbon atom, 2 Hydrogen atoms, 2 Oxygen atoms

2.

How many atoms of Oxygen are in this compound?


K2(MnSO2)4

a)

4

b)

8

c)

2

d)

6

3.

According to the law of conservation of mass, how much zinc should have been produced?

a)

256 grams

b)

104 grams

c)

128 grams

d)

64 grams

4.

Two liquids are mixed in a chemical reaction forming a white solid. What will the mass of the new solid substance be?

a)

150 g

b)

100 g

c)

250 g

d)

50 g

5.

Organism that makes its own food

a)

consumer

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

d)

predator

6.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
7.
The mouse in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Tertiary Consumer
d)
Secondary Consumer
8.

The word "primary" means "first."

If that's true, what does primary consumer mean?

Hint: look carefully at the food chain!

a)

the first organism in a food chain

b)

the first organism that consumes something else for energy

9.
Any change in the state of matter of a substance is a...
a)
Physical Change
b)
Chemical Change
10.

Which of the following are examples of a Chemical Change?

a)

Iron Rusting

b)

Gas Burning

c)

Breaking a glass

d)

Boiling water

e)

Burning Wood

11.

What is a chemical change?

a)

Forming a new substance

b)

When two or more substances combine to make a greater one

c)

When two or more substances combine to make a new chemical substance

d)

Combing substances

12.
When coffee is poured into a cup of ice, the ice begins to melt and mix with the coffee. Which statement best describes this change?
a)
The ice melting is a chemical change because the water changes form.
b)
The ice melting is a physical change because the water may be frozen again.
c)
The water and coffee mixing is a chemical change because the liquids change color.
d)
The water and coffee mixing is a physical change because the mixture forms bubbles.
13.

Which elements are to the right of the zig zag?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

14.

Sulfur is considered:

a)

malleable

b)

brittle

c)

ductile

d)

a good conductor

15.

ductile means...

a)

can be made into wire

b)

can be bent or hammered

c)

can light up a light bulb

d)

it's shiny

16.

Which elements are to the LEFT of the zigzag?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

17.

Elements in the shaded area can best be described as -

a)

Malleable

b)

Brittle

c)

Dull

d)

Insulators

18.
Anytime you see the word SEMICONDUCTOR - what substance do you have?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
19.

According to Newtons second Law, if you push with 2N on an object with a mass of 5kg how much should it accelerate? (a)   m/s^2

20.

Acceleration is less when the (a)   of the object is greater.

21.

According to Newton's second law of motion, if you push with a force of 10 N on an object with a mass of 2 kg, it will accelerate at --------- m/s2.

(a)  

22.

The illustration shows the masses of a tennis ball, soccer ball, and bowling ball.

According to Newton's second law of motion, if you use the same force to set each ball in motion, which will accelerate the most?

a)

Tennis Ball

b)

Soccer Ball

c)

Bowling Ball

d)

They would all accelerate at the same rate

23.

If the same force is applied to each of the balls pictured below, which one will have the LEAST acceleration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.

What is the net force on the object pictured?

a)

3 N

b)

5 N

c)

4 N

d)

8 N

25.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
26.
Which could be an example of a balanced force?
a)
An asteroid moving at a constant speed through space 
b)
A car accelerating from a stop sign
c)
A box of dishes falling from a counter 
d)
A rocket taking off 
27.

If the boy is pulling with a force of 10 N and the girl is pushing with a force 20 N, what is the net force on the box?

a)

10 N

b)

20 N

c)

30 N

d)

0 N

28.

What does Newton's third law state?

a)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

b)

The force of gravity is 9.81 m/s^2

c)

An object at rest stays at rest

d)

Force equals mass times acceleration

29.

what is the first law

a)

F=M x A

b)

an object in motion stays in motion, an object at rest stays at rest until acted on by an unbalanced force

c)

an objects tendency to remain the same

d)

for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

30.

for every action there is a --- and opposite reaction

a)

new

b)

opposite

c)

old

d)

equal

31.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
32.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
33.

Based on the diagram of a roller coaster car on a roller coaster track, what statement is true?

a)

The car at point A has more kinetic energy than the car at point C

b)

The car at point C has less kinetic energy than the car at point B.

c)

The car at point C has more kinetic energy than the car at point B.

d)

The car at point D has less potential energy than the car at point B.

34.

How do you fine average speed?

a)

distance divided by density

b)

multiply volume and mass

c)

distance divided by time

d)

time divided by density

35.

How do you calculate time?

a)

multiply distance and speed

b)

distance divided by speed

c)

speed divided time

d)

divide distance and density then multiply by volume

36.

Calculate the average speed between 0 and 10 hours.

a)

2 km/h

b)

3 km/h

c)

1 km/h

d)

5 km/h

37.

Calculate the average speed of the object between 1 and 3 seconds.

a)

20 m/s

b)

1 m/s

c)

30 m/s

d)

12 m/s

38.

What kind of speed does this graph represent?

a)

No speed.

b)

Constant Speed.

c)

Increasing speed.

d)

Decreasing speed.

39.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
40.

What is happening between 2 and 3 seconds?

a)

The object is not moving.

b)

The object is not accelerating.

c)

The object is slowing down.

d)

The object is speeding up.

41.

During which segment did the car travel back toward its starting position?

a)

Segment A to B

b)

Segment B to C

c)

Segment C to D

d)

Segment D to E

42.

During which segment did the car come to a complete stop?

a)

Segment A to B

b)

Segment B to C

c)

Segment C to D

d)

Segment D to E

43.

A lamp that plugs into a wall socket draws energy, which flows through a thin wire in the bulb, causing it to heat up until it glows. What energy transformations are taking place?

a)

Chemical → light → electrical

b)

Mechanical → sound → light

c)

Thermal → solar → electrical

d)

Electrical → thermal → light

44.
what type of energy is stored in a battery?
a)
electrical
b)
chemical
c)
thermal
d)
mechanical
45.
A student listens to music with a digital music player, similar to the one shown below. Which best describes the energy transformations that take place in the music player?
a)
Mechanical to chemical to electrical
b)
Chemical to sound to electrical
c)
Chemical to electrical to sound
d)
Electrical to heat to sound
46.

What Seasons is position A?

a)

Northern Hemisphere (Summer)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

b)

Northern Hemisphere (Fall)/ Southern Hemisphere (Winter)

c)

Northern Hemisphere (Spring)/ Southern Hemisphere (Fall)

d)

Northern Hemisphere (Winter)/ Southern Hemisphere (Summer)

47.

Which part of the Earth is receiving the most direct Sunlight?

a)

Northern Hemisphere

b)

Southern Hemisphere

c)

Polar Hemisphere

d)

MidAtlantic Hemisphere

48.

The REVOLUTION around the Sun and the TILT on the Earth's axis cause what?

a)

Seasons

b)

Rain

c)

Tidal Waves

d)

Moon Phases.

49.

There would be no seasons if there was no ____________.

a)

tilt

b)

rotation

c)

moon

d)

Saturn

50.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?
a)
The equator rotates slower than the poles.
b)
The equator remains the same distance from the sun.
c)
The equator always receives direct sunlight.
d)
The equator has 18 hour days.
51.
What does the rotation of the earth cause us to experience?
a)
seasons
b)
year
c)
day & night
d)
eclipse
52.

Which diagram reflects daytime hours for position X?

a)
b)
c)
d)
53.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

54.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
55.

A spring tide occurs during which two lunar phases?

a)

New Moon and Full Moon

b)

Waxing Crescent and Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Gibbous and Waning Gibbous

d)

1st Quarter and 3rd Quarter

56.

A neap tide occurs during which two lunar phases?

a)

Full Mooon and New Moon

b)

Waxing Crescent and Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Gibbous and Waning Gibbous

d)

1st Quarter and 3rd Quarter

57.

Which star stage does our Sun belong to?

a)

Supergiant

b)

Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

58.
As you move from the bottom to the top of the H R diagram the __________ changes.
a)
Temperature
b)
Luminosity or Brightness
59.
Which star has the lowest temperature?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
60.
 Which one shows the correct location of the Sun in the Milky Way galaxy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
none of the above
61.
What are the the 3 types of galaxies?
a)
Spiral, Regular, and Elliptical 
b)
Spiral, Irregular, and Elliptical 
c)
 Milky Way, Elliptical, and Spiral 
d)
Milky Way, Elliptical, and Irregular 
62.
As a whole, Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.
a)
True
b)
False
63.

What is this a picture of?

a)

plate tectonics

b)

continental drift

c)

pangaea

d)

glacier scaring

64.
Why was Wegener's theory not accepted?
a)
He had no proof of how they were moving
b)
He had no evidence
c)
He was married
d)
He was not a Scientist
65.

What evidence did Wegener use to support his theory?

a)

Continents and fossils fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces

b)

glacier scars and other climate evidence from temperature

c)

mountain ranges and rocks line up across continents

d)

all of the above

66.
What causes tectonic plates to move along the Earth's surface?
a)
wind
b)
ocean currents
c)
convection in the mantle
d)
expansion of the Earth
67.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move away from each other?
a)
transform
b)
subduction
c)
convergent
d)
divergent
68.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move toward each other?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
lateral
69.
What forms at a convergent boundary between a continental plate and an oceanic plate?
a)
volcanoes
b)
rift valleys
c)
faults
d)
mid-ocean ridges
70.
What type of boundary is shown at A?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
71.

The San Andreas Fault in California is known as an active earthquake area. What type of

boundary is it?

a)

Converging

b)

Diverging

c)

Transform

d)

Sea Floor Spreading

72.

A divergent boundary on land creates what feature?

a)

Mid Ocean Ridge

b)

Rift Valley

c)

Subduction Zone

d)

Deep Ocean Trench

73.
If differences in air pressure produce winds, what can you conclude about temperature and air pressure based on the figure?
a)
As warm air rises, it creates an area of lower pressure, and cooler air flows in as wind
b)
Warm air is denser than cold air is, creating an area of high pressure the produces wind.
c)
Winds flow from areas of low pressure to areas high pressure when temperature is warmer
d)
Air pressure decreases at night because temperature is lower, producing land and sea breezes
74.
a)
Warm Front
b)
High Air Pressure
c)
Cold Front
d)
High Temperatures
75.
a)
High Pressure
b)
Warm Front
c)
Cold Front
d)
Mountains
76.
The picture represents the symbol for a _______________________Front.
a)
Cold
b)
Warm
c)
Occluded
d)
Stationary
77.
Low Pressure is associated with this type of weather...
a)
Cloudy/Overcast Weather
b)
Cold Weather
c)
Warm Weather
d)
Fair Weather
78.
High Pressure is associated with this type of weather...
a)
Cloudy/Overcast Weather
b)
Cold Weather
c)
Warm Weather
d)

Sunny/Fair Weather

79.

A cold front is approaching Minneapolis. What will happen to the air temperature AFTER the front passes through?

a)
stay the same
b)
increase
c)
decrease
80.

a)

Sunny with strong winds

b)

Partly cloudy with no wind

c)

Very sunny with light winds

d)

Cloudy overcast with strong winds

81.

a)

Denver, because it is currently experiencing Low pressure with a warm front

b)

St. Louis because a cold front is approaching

c)

Minneapolis because a warm front is approaching

d)

Atlanta because a warm front is approaching

82.

a)

Area 4

b)

Area 3

c)

Area 2

d)

Area 1

83.

Which surface would have the most runoff from it after a rainstorm?

a)
b)
c)
d)
84.

What does the quantity of groundwater that can be stored depend upon?

a)

It depends upon the porosity of the underground rock.

b)

It depends upon the pH of the groundwater.

c)

It depends upon the level of contamination in the aquifer.

d)

It depends upon the temperature of the underground rock.

85.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
86.

What is a biotic factor?

a)

Anything that is living, or once living

b)

anything that is not alive

c)

something that you see in a store

d)

none of the above.

87.

Lizards and cacti are biotic factors in a desert ecosystem that would rely on which abiotic factors?

a)

insects and sun

b)

water and insects

c)

snakes and temperature

d)

water and soil

88.

When there is higher biodiversity...

a)

more organisms are likely to die because they can't adapt to environmental changes.

b)

there is more diversity and higher sustainability of life.

c)

there is less diversity.

d)

there is more diversity and lower sustainability of life

89.

How do biodiversity and sustainability work together?

a)

The higher the biodiversity, the greater the sustainability.

b)

The lower the biodiversity the greater the sustainability.

c)

The higher the biodiversity, the less sustainable the ecosystem.

d)

Biodiversity has nothing to do with sustainability.

90.

What is a stable ecological community that has reached equilibrium called? This ecosystem will have a high amount of biodiversity.

a)

ecological succession

b)

climax community

c)

secondary succession

d)

pioneer species

91.

What process starts with bare/barren rock followed by lichen?

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

c)

both types of succession

92.

What type of succession occurs after an event like a forest fire?

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

c)

both

93.

How do lichens contribute to primary succession?

a)

Lichens produce glucose like plants

b)

Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil

c)

Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria to help plants grow

d)

Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.

94.
 What is the main function of the respiratory system?
a)
take in oxygen and exhale waste like carbon dioxide
b)
move nutrients throughout the body
c)
take in carbon dioxide and exhale oxygen
95.

Which two body systems deliver oxygen to your body and take away carbon dioxide?

a)

Respiratory and Nervous

b)

Circulatory and Nervous

c)

Respiratory and Circulatory

d)

Circulatory and Excretory

96.
The __________ is the main organ of the nervous system.
a)
heart
b)
lungs
c)
brain
d)
skin
97.
Which statement is a part of the cell theory?
a)
all cells come from preexisting cells
b)
bacteria are prokaryotic cells
c)
eukaryotic cells are complex
d)
humans are multicellular
98.

The integumentary system protects your body from bacteria and getting infected.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

How are genes different from DNA?

a)

DNA is found only in males, and genes are in both males and females.

b)

Genes are sections of DNA, and DNA is all genetic information.

c)

Genes are located in the nucleus, and DNA is located in the mitochondria.

d)

Genes are found in nonliving things, and DNA is found in living things.

100.

What is a gene?

a)

A bundle (like a hot dog bun) that the DNA is packed into

b)

something inside the nucleus

c)

a section/piece of DNA

d)

all of your DNA

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