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Final Review Ch3

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does capital expenditure refer to?

a)

Money invested in the acquisition of fixed assets

b)

Money available for the day to day operations of a firm

c)

Monetary payments to sustain the daily operations such as wages, rent and energy

d)

Money received from the sale of assets

2.

What are payments for daily operations such as wages, advertising, water and electricity costs called?

a)

Working capital

b)

Capital expenditures

c)

Revenue expenditures

d)

Cash outflows

3.

Which of the following is not an internal source of finance?

a)

Sale of assets

b)

Personal savings

c)

Retained profits

d)

Share capital

4.

When a firm is given the ability to pay a supplier at a later date, usually after one to two months, this is called (a) ________. An example of such a facility also arises when using ___________.

a)

Trade credit, credit cards

b)

Cash payment, debit cards

c)

Advance payment, checks

d)

Immediate payment, bank transfers

5.

The first time a firm offers its shares to the general public, it is called a(n) ____________; subsequent offerings of additional shares are called ____________.

a)

Share placement, additional share issue

b)

Initial public offering, share placement

c)

Initial public offering, oversubscriptions

d)

Initial public offering, administrative issuances

6.

A debenture is a _______ loan providing regular __________. They provide ______ voting rights.

a)

Long-term, interest payments, no

b)

Short-term, dividends, no

c)

Short-term, interest payments, significant

d)

Long-term, dividends, no

7.

What is a facility that allows a firm or person to temporarily use more money than their bank account holds called?

a)

Short-term loan

b)

Overdraft

c)

Debt-factoring facility

d)

Trade credit

8.

Which of the following is the main advantage of an overdraft facility?

a)

It provides flexibility in the face of cash flow problems

b)

It offers long-term financial stability

c)

It reduces interest rates on loans

d)

It increases the credit score of the borrower

9.

What are sums of money that do not have to be paid back given by the government to firms called?

a)

Stockholders’ equity

b)

Subsidies

c)

Cash injections

d)

Grants

10.

What is a per-unit payment to producers to encourage greater output by reducing costs of production called?

a)

Grant

b)

Business angel

c)

Subsidy

d)

Venture capital

11.

What is the primary difference between venture capital and business angels?

a)

Venture capitalists are institutional investors while business angels are high net worth individuals

b)

Venture capitalists are high net worth individuals while business angels are institutional investors

c)

Venture capitalists require a stake in the business while business angels do not

d)

Business angels require a stake in the business while venture capitalists do not

12.

What does debt factoring refer to?

a)

Selling one’s accounts receivable at a discount

b)

The facility whereby a firm can withdraw more funds than their bank account holds

c)

The analysis of how efficient different debtors are at repaying amounts owed

d)

The interest expense that builds up due to trade credit facilities being used

13.

What is the primary difference between leasing and hire purchase?

a)

In leasing the lessee acquires ownership, but in hire purchase the lessee does not

b)

Leasing is short term while hire purchase is for long term purchases

c)

In leasing the lessee does not acquire ownership, but in hire purchase the lessee does

d)

Leasing involves a lump sum security deposit while hire purchase does not

14.

The short term refers to a period of less than _______ months, while the medium term refers to a period of _______ to _______ years. Anything with a later maturity date is considered long term.

a)

6, 1, 3

b)

12, 2, 5

c)

3, 1, 2

d)

9, 1, 4

15.

Which of the following is not an advantage of leasing as an external source of finance?

a)

Lessors conduct necessary maintenance

b)

System upgrades are the responsibility of the lessor

c)

It minimizes capital expenditures

d)

The lessee acquires ownership at the end of the lease contract

16.

Sources of finance found within the firm are __________ sources of finance.

a)

Internal

b)

External

c)

Borrowed

d)

Equity

17.

Which of the following is a bank loan not likely to include?

a)

Periodic interest repayments

b)

Periodic principal repayments

c)

Dividends

d)

Collateral

18.

Which of the following are valid criticisms of share issuances?

a)

It dilutes ownership and control of existing shareholders

b)

It is a costly and bureaucratic procedure

c)

It increases a firm’s gearing ratio

d)

All of the above

19.

What is leasing most appropriate to fund?

a)

Equipment procurement

b)

Property acquisitions

c)

Inventories

d)

Salaries

20.

What is the benefit of receiving venture capital funding?

a)

Access to expertise

b)

Access to contacts and networks

c)

Access to funding that may not be provided by traditional lenders like banks

d)

All of the above

21.

What are costs that have to be paid regardless of the level of output called?

a)

Variable costs

b)

Stubborn costs

c)

Fixed costs

d)

Direct costs

22.

What are costs that are directly proportional to the level of output called?

a)

Variable costs

b)

Indirect costs

c)

Fixed costs

d)

Direct costs

23.

What are costs which contain both a fixed and variable cost component called?

a)

Fixed costs

b)

Indirect costs

c)

Direct costs

d)

Semi-variable costs

24.

What is the distinguishing factor between direct and variable costs?

a)

Direct costs need not be directly proportional to the level of output

b)

Direct costs are always fixed costs

c)

Direct costs need not be traceable to the production of any particular product

d)

There are no distinguishing factors between direct and variable costs

25.

Which of the following is not an example of an indirect cost?

a)

Energy (lighting) costs

b)

Rent

c)

Mortgage fees

d)

Security

26.

Which of the following is not an example of fixed costs?

a)

Mobile phone service costs

b)

Loan interest payments

c)

Rent

d)

Manager salaries

27.

Assume a firm has fixed costs of $125,000 per month, and a variable cost per unit of $85. What is the firm’s total costs at an output level of 30,000 units per month?

a)

$2,675,000

b)

$3,000,000

c)

$2,550,000

d)

$2,750,000

28.

Assume a firm has fixed costs of $3,071,025 per year, and a variable cost per unit of $256. What is the firm’s total costs at an output level of 82,000 units per year?

a)

$21,150,025

b)

$24,063,025

c)

$29,500,000

d)

$31,018,025

29.

Assume a firm has total costs of $2,500,000 per year. Fixed costs are $300,000. 200,000 units of output are produced in the year. What is the firm’s variable costs per unit?

a)

$11.00

b)

$12.00

c)

$12.50

d)

$14.00

30.

Assume a firm has total costs of $7,750,000 per year. 480,000 DVD players are produced in the year at a variable cost per unit of $12.50. What is the firm’s fixed costs?

a)

$1,750,000

b)

$5,500,000

c)

$7,125,000

d)

$13,750,000

31.

What is the firm’s average cost per unit if produced at a variable cost per unit of $12.50?

a)

$12.50

b)

$13.75

c)

$16.15

d)

$28.65

32.

Assume a firm has fixed costs of $23,250,000 per year. 1,440,000 coffee machines are produced in the year at a variable cost per unit of $37.50. If the selling price per coffee machine is $65, what is the total profit or loss made if all the units produced are sold?

a)

($8,500,000) loss

b)

$16,350,000 profit

c)

$39,600,000 profit

d)

$70,350,000 profit

33.

Which of the following is not an example of a revenue stream?

a)

Product sales

b)

Interest income

c)

Rental income

d)

Employee salaries

34.

What does contribution refer to?

a)

The money generated per sale that is used to contribute towards paying fixed costs

b)

Selling price – variable costs – fixed costs per unit

c)

Selling price – variable costs – direct costs

d)

Both (A) and (C)

35.

Assume a firm sells its output for $649. Variable costs per unit are $456, and total fixed costs are $2,500,000, and 5,000 units of output were sold this year. What is the contribution per unit?

a)

$193

b)

$307

c)

$456

d)

$649

36.

Assume a firm sells its output for $45. Variable costs per unit are $41, and total fixed costs are $150,000, and 72,150 units of output were sold this year. What is the total contribution?

a)

$3,246,750

b)

$138,600

c)

$288,600

d)

-$438,600

37.

Assume a firm sells its output for $90. Variable costs per unit are $82, and total fixed costs are $300,000, and 144,300 units of output were sold this year. What is the total profit?

a)

$1,454,400

b)

$1,154,400

c)

$577,200

d)

$854,400

38.

Which of the following is not a valid use of contribution analysis?

a)

Conducting breakeven analysis

b)

Managing product portfolios

c)

Set prices

d)

Position mapping

39.

What does the breakeven point refer to?

a)

The level of output where there are neither profits nor losses

b)

The level of output where fixed costs are covered by sales revenue

c)

The level of output where variable costs are equal fixed costs

40.

Which of the following equations is used to determine the breakeven level of output?

a)

Fixed costs / (selling price – average variable costs per unit)

b)

Selling price / (fixed costs – contribution per unit)

c)

Fixed costs / selling price

d)

Total sales revenue / contribution per unit

41.

A shoe manufacturer faces fixed costs of $30,000 per month. Variable cost per shoe is $15, and selling price is $40. What is the breakeven level of output?

a)

2000 shoes

b)

1000 shoes

c)

1200 shoes

d)

750 shoes

42.

A printer manufacturer faces fixed costs of $475,000 per month. Selling price is $100 per printer. The breakeven level of output is 9,500 printers per month. What is the average variable cost per unit?

a)

$45.00

b)

$47.50

c)

$50.00

d)

Cannot be determined

43.

A calculator manufacturer has fixed costs of $40,000 per month. Total variable cost $30,000. The calculators sell for $10 per unit. Using the TR=TC approach, what is the breakeven level of output for this firm?

a)

3000 calculators

b)

5000 calculators

c)

4000 calculators

d)

6000 calculators

44.

A product has a per-unit contribution of $8. Total fixed costs are $7600. If the product sells for $15, and 1950 units are sold, what is the profit (or loss) generated?

a)

($3000) loss

b)

$8000 profit

c)

$15,600 profit

d)

$21,650 profit

45.

If a firm has a breakeven level of output of 3,000 units, but sold 7,500 units of output in the most recent quarter, the margin of safety in units is ________ and the margin of safety in percentage is ________.

a)

7,500; 250%

b)

3,000; 75%

c)

4,500; 150%

d)

7,500 units; 40%

46.

A firm wishes to achieve profits of $15,000. The product they sell retails for $35, with variable costs per unit of $15. Rental expenses are $8,000, and management salaries for the month total $17,000. What is the level of output required to achieve the profit target?

a)

1000 units

b)

2000 units

c)

3000 units

d)

4000 units

47.

Assuming the consoles sell for $399 each and costs per unit equal $195, if 235 units are sold this month, what is the margin of safety?

a)

-65 units

b)

-10 units

c)

75 units

d)

125 units

48.

Which of the following are valid criticisms of breakeven analysis?

a)

It assumes every unit produced is sold

b)

It assumes costs functions are linear

c)

It is a static model

d)

All of the above

49.

Which of the following is not a principle or ethical value of the accounting profession?

a)

Integrity

b)

Punctuality

c)

Professional competence and due care

d)

Objectivity

50.

What is a financial statement illustrating a firm’s results from its trading activities over a period of time called?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Trade-exchanges sheet

c)

Cash flow statement

d)

Income statement

51.

Which of the following is not a component of an income statement?

a)

Profit & loss account

b)

Expenditure account

c)

Appropriation account

d)

Trading account

52.

What is the cost of goods sold if the firm makes stock purchases of $452,000 and ends the year with $521,125 in ending inventory?

a)

$306,645

b)

$444,895

c)

$1,348,895

d)

Cannot be determined

53.

Which of the following is not a relevant method to boosting gross profit?

a)

Reduce expenses

b)

Raise the product’s price

c)

Shift to cheaper suppliers and intermediaries

d)

An improved marketing strategy

54.

What is the net profit for the year given the following data: Sales revenue $1,525,018, Rental expenses $325,000, Opening stock $289,455, Stock purchases $82,011, Closing stock $133,087, Interest expenses $37,050, Salaries $415,111, Retained earnings $212,815?

a)

$221,663

b)

$296,663

c)

$673,824

d)

$834,478

55.

An asset expected to stay within the business and be used for business activities for over 12 months is called a _______ asset, while assets likely to be used up or converted into cash within 12 months are called _______ assets.

a)

Direct, indirect

b)

Fixed, variable

c)

Fixed, current

d)

Long-term, fixed

56.

Debts that must be paid back within 12 months are called _______ liabilities, while debts that have a maturity of over 12 months are called _______ liabilities.

a)

Current, fixed

b)

Direct, indirect

c)

Long-term, current

d)

Current, long-term

57.

A firm has $32,500 in cash, $17,750 due from debtors, and $45,000 in stock. Creditors are owed $25,250 and a 6-month loan of $42,000 is outstanding. What is the firm’s working capital?

a)

-$7,500

b)

$28,000

c)

$70,000

d)

$73,000

58.

Which of the following is not an example of a current asset?

a)

Cash

b)

Debtors

c)

Machinery

d)

Inventories

59.

Which of the following is not an example of a fixed asset?

a)

Buildings

b)

Debtors

c)

Plant

d)

Intangible assets

60.

Which of the following is/are current liability/liabilities?

a)

Overdrafts

b)

Taxes due to the government

c)

Short-term loans

d)

All of the above

61.

In a balance sheet, what would ordinary share capital be classified as?

a)

A fixed (long-term) asset

b)

A current asset

c)

A liability

62.

Which of the following is not an example of an intangible asset?

a)

Goodwill

b)

Copyrights and patents

c)

Share capital

d)

Trademarks

63.

A machine costs $125,000, and has a residual (salvage) value at the end of its 5-year useful life of $20,000. What is the annual depreciation expense of this machine?

a)

$21,000

b)

$25,000

c)

$29,000

d)

$105,000

64.

A machine with a 7-year lifespan costs $9,500, and records annual depreciation under the straight line method of $1,150. What is the salvage value of this machine?

a)

$1,357

b)

$1,450

c)

$1,500

d)

$1,521

65.

A commercial machine costing $35,000,000 with a 20-year expected life and a salvage value of $2,500,000 is depreciated at a rate of 3% per year. The depreciation expense in the first year is __________, and the net book value is __________.

a)

$700,000; $34,300,000

b)

$750,000; $34,250,000

c)

$975,000; $34,025,000

d)

$1,050,000; $33,950,000

66.

A piece of manufacturing equipment costing $21,500 has a 3-year lifespan, at the end of which it will be resold to scrappers for $3,500. The depreciation expense would be _______ using the straight line method and _______ using the declining balance method (at a 40% rate).

a)

$6,000, $7,200

b)

$6,000, $8,600

c)

$7,500, $8450

d)

$7,500, $10,000

67.

What does the gross profit margin describe?

a)

Gross profit earned per dollar of revenue

b)

Costs incurred per dollar of products sold

c)

Net profit earned per dollar of revenue

d)

Total revenue earned per dollar of cost

68.

Which company has the highest capital employed?

a)

Company E

b)

Company F

c)

Company G

d)

Company H

69.

Which of the following actions would not help in raising a firm’s gross profit margin?

a)

Optimising the marketing mix

b)

Using cheaper raw material suppliers

c)

Reducing fixed and indirect costs

d)

Cutting the number of staff employed in the manufacturing process

70.

Which of the following actions would not help in raising a firm’s net profit margin?

a)

Reducing fixed costs such as rental expenses

b)

Reducing indirect costs such as insurance expenses

c)

Increasing sales revenue

d)

Increasing the cost of goods sold

71.

Return on capital employed (ROCE) is a(n) ____________ ratio.

a)

Profitability

b)

Liquidity

c)

Efficiency

d)

Leverage

72.

What formula is used to calculate ROCE?

a)

Total dividends / capital employed × 100%

b)

Net profit after interest and tax / total share capital × 100%

c)

Net profit before interest and tax / capital employed × 100%

d)

Gross profit / net profit after interest and tax × 100%

73.

What are ratios which seek to assess the ability of a firm to meet short-term obligations called?

a)

Profitability ratios

b)

Efficiency ratios

c)

Liquidity ratios

d)

Current ratios

74.

If a firm has $7,589 in cash and $17,833 worth of stock on hand, and $14,751 in current liabilities due to suppliers, what is the current ratio?

a)

0.51

b)

1.21

c)

1.74

d)

2.25

75.

Typically, one would like their firm’s ________ to range between 1.5-2, and their firm’s ________ to be at least 1.

a)

Quick ratio, current ratio

b)

ROCE, net profit margin

c)

Current ratio, gearing ratio

d)

Current ratio, acid test ratio

76.

Which of the following statements about ratio analysis is invalid?

a)

Historical performance is not indicative of future performance

b)

Interfirm comparisons may not be valid due to accounting differences

c)

Only qualitative factors are considered

d)

Organization objectives may differ, making inter-firm comparisons inappropriate

77.

What do efficiency ratios assess?

a)

The number of times a firm sells its inventory within a year

b)

A firm’s ability to meet its short term obligations

c)

Profit as a proportion of sales revenue

78.

Which of the following is not an efficiency ratio?

a)

Debtor days

b)

Creditor days

c)

ROCE

d)

Gearing

79.

What does the stock (inventory) turnover ratio measure?

a)

How many times a firm’s inventory is used per time period

b)

How many days it takes a firm to recover its accounts receivable (debtors)

c)

The value of all inventory sold per time period

d)

The total potential sales revenue that can be generated from selling all a firm’s inventory

80.

What is the formula for the stock turnover (in days)?

a)

Cost of goods sold / average stock

b)

Average stock / cost of goods sold × 365

c)

Debt / sales revenue × 365

d)

Cost of goods sold / average inventory × 365

81.

With reference to the following data, what is the stock turnover (number of times per year) ratio? Sales revenue $1,275,113 Cost of goods sold $675,000 Opening inventory $150,000 Closing inventory $100,000 Debtors $122,300

a)

4.50 times

b)

3.75 times

c)

5.25 times

d)

6.00 times

82.

With reference to the following data, what is the stock turnover (number of days) ratio? Sales revenue $3,415,216 Cost of goods sold $2,850,000 Opening inventory $1,415,000 Closing inventory $825,000 Average inventory $1,120,000 Debtors $645,525 Accounts payable $315,600 Net profit margin 7.12%

a)

2.54 days

b)

76.20 days

c)

125.00 days

d)

143.44 days

83.

Which of the following methods would not help improve a firm’s stock turnover ratio?

a)

Implementing a just-in-time stock management system

b)

Divesting unpopular or obsolete items from the firm’s product line

c)

Hold lower stock levels

d)

Hold greater stock levels

84.

Which of the following ratios measures the number of days it takes a firm to collect its debt from customers who have purchased on credit?

a)

Current ratio

b)

Quick ratio

c)

Debtor days ratio

d)

Inventory turnover ratio