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Worksheets

April 2025

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which modifier indicates a significant, separately identifiable E/M service on the same day?

a)

-25

b)

-59

c)

-51

d)

-24

2.

Modifier -59 is used to indicate:

a)

Services unrelated to diagnosis

b)

Procedures on different days

c)

Distinct procedural service

d)

Global care only

3.

Modifier -50 refers to:

a)

Right side

b)

Bilateral procedure

c)

Multiple visits

d)

Post-op care

4.

Use modifier -26 for:

a)

Full service

b)

Technical component

c)

Professional component

d)

Incomplete service

5.

Modifier -58 is used for:

a)

Unrelated procedures

b)

Staged or related procedure during global period

c)

Assistant at surgery

d)

Bilateral surgery

6.

A patient returns to the OR for post-op bleeding. Which modifier?

a)

-25

b)

-59

c)

-78

d)

-52

7.

Modifier -91 applies to:

a)

Physical therapy

b)

Repeat clinical lab test

c)

Diagnostic ultrasound

d)

Consultation

8.

CPT® codes for anesthesia are found in what range?

a)

10021–69990

b)

70010–79999

c)

00100–01999

d)

80047–89398

9.

HCPCS Level II codes that start with J describe:

a)

Ambulance services

b)

Radiology

c)

Medications and injections

d)

Surgery

10.

In ICD-10-CM, diabetes is coded under:

a)

E08–E13

b)

I10–I15

c)

R50–R69

d)

F01–F99

11.

Modifier -LT refers to:

a)

Bilateral procedure

b)

Left side

c)

Emergency care

d)

Right side

12.

Which code set is used for diagnoses?

a)

CPT®

b)

ICD-10-CM

c)

HCPCS Level II

d)

NDC

13.

Modifier -GC is used to show:

a)

Cosmetic surgery

b)

Services under teaching physician supervision

c)

Technical component only

d)

Multiple surgeries

14.

The CPT® section for radiology services is:

a)

00100–01999

b)

10021–69990

c)

70010–79999

d)

90000–99999

15.

HCPCS Level II ambulance services start with which letter?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

T

d)

J

16.

Modifier -24 is used for:

a)

Same procedure repeated

b)

Unrelated E/M during post-op

c)

Preventive care

d)

Global period

17.

Which CPT® modifier refers to increased procedural services?

a)

-77

b)

-76

c)

-22

d)

-55

18.

Where are E/M codes located in the CPT® manual?

a)

Back

b)

Medicine section

c)

Surgery section

d)

99202–99499

19.

Modifier -52 is used for:

a)

Repeat test

b)

Reduced services

c)

Repeat procedure by same provider

d)

Right side

20.

ICD-10-CM codes always start with:

a)

Numbers

b)

Letters

c)

Modifiers

d)

Symbols

21.

CPT® Category II codes are:

a)

Mandatory

b)

Optional performance tracking

c)

HCPCS temporary codes

d)

Surgery codes

22.

The CPT® index helps locate codes based on:

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Procedure name

c)

Body part

d)

Insurance payer

23.

CPT® modifier -PT is used to show:

a)

Partial service

b)

Diagnostic converted from preventive

c)

Teaching physician

d)

Repeat test

24.

Modifier -Q6 is used when:

a)

CRNA is on staff

b)

Locum tenens is used

c)

Teaching physician is present

d)

Routine foot care

25.

What does modifier -AS represent?

a)

Assistant surgeon

b)

Amputation service

c)

Ambulatory setting

d)

Advance screening

26.

Modifier -P3 refers to:

a)

Pregnancy

b)

High-risk anesthesia

c)

Post-op care

d)

New patient

27.

Modifier -RT refers to which side?

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Bilateral

d)

Not applicable

28.

Where are vaccine codes found in CPT®?

a)

Radiology

b)

Pathology

c)

Medicine

d)

Surgery

29.

The ICD-10-CM Tabular List is organized by:

a)

Procedure type

b)

Code chapter

c)

Diagnosis order

d)

Alphabet

30.

CPT® updates are released:

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Annually

d)

Every 5 years

31.

The prefix tachy- means:

a)

Slow

b)

Normal

c)

Fast

d)

Below

32.

The suffix -ectomy means:

a)

Disease

b)

Inflammation

c)

Surgical removal

d)

Flow

33.

The root nephr/o refers to the:

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Stomach

d)

Skin

34.

The suffix -dynia means:

a)

Flow

b)

Swelling

c)

Pain

d)

Abnormal

35.

The prefix sub- means:

a)

Above

b)

Beyond

c)

Under

d)

Beside

36.

Cardi/o is the root for:

a)

Brain

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Heart

37.

The suffix -rrhea means:

a)

Bleeding

b)

Discharge or flow

c)

Infection

d)

Inflammation

38.

Hepat/o refers to which organ?

a)

Lung

b)

Liver

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

39.

The suffix -logy means:

a)

Study of

b)

Tumor

c)

Pain

d)

Removal

40.

What does the prefix hyper- mean?

a)

Below

b)

Around

c)

Excessive

d)

Under

41.

What is the most common reason for claim denials?

a)

Incorrect demographics

b)

Unbundled services

c)

Missing diagnosis code

d)

Lack of medical necessity

42.

What should be your first step when a claim is denied?

a)

Delete it

b)

Appeal

c)

Review EOB and documentation

d)

Resubmit as is

43.

What is an Explanation of Benefits (EOB)?

a)

A medical report

b)

A legal form

c)

A document showing how a claim was processed

d)

A denial notice

44.

Which type of denial occurs when procedures are coded together instead of separately?

a)

Prior auth

b)

Duplicate claim

c)

Bundling denial

d)

Non-covered service

45.

If a claim is denied for "timely filing," what does it mean?

a)

The service was not covered

b)

The claim was submitted after the allowed period

c)

The provider forgot the diagnosis

d)

The modifier was wrong

46.

What does "medical necessity" mean?

a)

Patient requested it

b)

Covered by insurance

c)

Reasonable and required for diagnosis or treatment

d)

Performed in hospital

47.

Which code link is necessary to justify a procedure?

a)

CPT® only

b)

ICD-10 only

c)

Diagnosis linked to service

d)

Modifiers

48.

What is an appeal?

a)

A request to resend a bill

b)

A new insurance claim

c)

A request for reconsideration of a denied claim

d)

Claim deletion

49.

What should you do if documentation does not match the services billed?

a)

Submit anyway

b)

Correct documentation or coding

c)

Use a default modifier

d)

Bill the patient

50.

What is the best strategy to reduce claim denials?

a)

Skip modifiers

b)

Submit manually

c)

Use templates for all patients

d)

Accurate documentation and coding review