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Test Bank - Chapter 16

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many times should tubes with additives be inverted after collection?

a)

None

b)

1–5

c)

5–10

d)

10–15

2.

According to CLSI, what is the maximum amount of time that may be allowed to elapse between collection of a blood sample and separation of cells from plasma or serum?

a)

30 minutes

b)

2 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

3.

What is the maximum amount of time a glucose sample collected in a gray top tube can be held at room temperature without loss of viability?

a)

2 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

4.

Which of the following is the term for the metabolic breakdown of sugar within cells?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Glucolysis

5.

Which of the following tests is most affected by glycolysis in the tube after collection?

a)

Glucose

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Potassium

d)

APTT

6.

Whole blood specimens collected in EDTA are stable for how long?

a)

1 hour

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

7.

Blood smears from EDTA specimens must be made within what time period after collection to prevent distortion of cell morphology?

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

8.

Which of the following problems with a blood sample may be caused by extremes of temperature?

a)

Clotting

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Hemoconcentration

d)

Hemolysis

9.

An analyte needs to be protected from light, but you do not have any amber tubes. What is another way to protect the specimen?

a)

Transport it as soon as possible and it will be acceptable.

b)

Cover the specimen with aluminum foil.

c)

Turn out all the lights during sample collection and transport it to the laboratory right away.

d)

Stand the tube upright in a rack with other specimens on all sides surrounding the sample.

10.

Smaller portions of a specimen transferred into separate containers are called

a)

aliquots.

b)

accessioned samples.

c)

centrifuged parts.

d)

portions.

11.

A unique identifying number used for cataloging samples in the laboratory is referred to as what kind of number?

a)

Accession

b)

Aliquot

c)

Laboratory

d)

Safety

12.

A small centrifuge head has 12 spots (holes) labeled in a manner similar to a clock face. There are three tubes of equal volume that need to be centrifuged. In which of the following choices for tube placement would the centrifuge be balanced?

(a)  

13.

What is the major safety risk in removing stoppers from blood collection tubes?

a)

Aerosols

b)

Aliquots

c)

Breaking the tube

d)

Needle puncture

14.

Before dividing a 24-hour urine sample into aliquots, what must be done with the sample first?

a)

Place it in the refrigerator for 1 hour.

b)

Add anticoagulant to the container.

c)

Measure and record the volume of the sample.

d)

Mix it and then divide into aliquots as needed.

15.

What notation is used to indicate that the sample volume is insufficient for testing?

a)

EDTA

b)

IFT

c)

QNS

d)

VIS

16.

Which of the following is an acceptable sample for laboratory testing?

a)

A half-full sodium citrate tube for coagulation testing

b)

A cold agglutinin test transported at 37 °C

17.

If the stopper is removed from a tube before centrifugation, what effect will this have on the carbon dioxide and pH levels in the sample?

a)

A decrease in CO₂ and an increase in pH

b)

A decrease in CO₂ and a decrease in pH

c)

An increase in CO₂ and an increase in pH

d)

An increase in CO₂ and a decrease in pH

18.

Which of the following tubes can be centrifuged immediately after collection?

a)

Heparin tube

b)

Plain tube

c)

SST tube

d)

Thrombin tube

19.

What regulations must be adhered to when samples are being transported from an outside laboratory?

a)

State and national

b)

Local and state

c)

Facility and state

d)

State and federal

20.

What is the correct method for recording specimen volume when preparing an aliquot?

a)

Write the volume on the lid of the main specimen collected.

b)

Write the volume on the aliquot sample container.

21.

What specimen would not meet requirements and is likely to be rejected from the laboratory?

a)

Collecting a CBC in an EDTA tube

b)

Sending a light blue tube with 1 part additive and 9 parts blood

c)

A urine specimen for C&S collected in a clean container

d)

Specimen for cold agglutinin testing maintained in a warm environment

22.

The phlebotomist had difficulty getting an EDTA tube for a CBC and sed rate. Two underfilled tubes were collected. The phlebotomist should

a)

mix the two tube volumes to get one full tube.

b)

reject at bedside and redraw the patient.

c)

take to the lab to see if they QNS the specimens.

d)

perform a dermal puncture.

23.

What is another name for point-of-care testing (POCT)?

a)

Alternate site testing

b)

CLIA testing

c)

FDA testing

d)

Reference site testing

24.

Which of the following agencies decides whether a given test is CLIA-waived?

a)

AMA

b)

CLIA

c)

FDA

d)

OSHA

25.

Which of the following procedures is important when drawing blood at a patient’s home and is not necessary in a hospital building?

a)

Be sure the patient is sitting or reclining in a safe position.

b)

Carry a cell phone for emergencies.

c)

Make sure the patient has stopped bleeding before leaving.

d)

Ensure that the materials used during the procedure are properly removed and disposed of.

26.

A portable instrument for a simple, fast method of testing for anemia measures which of the following?

a)

ACT

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Hemoglobin

27.

Which of the following types of therapy is monitored by the activated clotting time (ACT) test?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Heparin

c)

Insulin

d)

Warfarin

28.

Coumadin (warfarin) therapy can be monitored using which of the following tests?

a)

ACT

b)

APTT

c)

Potassium

d)

PT

29.

What is the most common chemistry test performed via POCT?

a)

CBC

b)

Glucose

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

30.

Blood levels of which of the following analytes rise within 4 hours after an acute myocardial infarction?

a)

Cardiac troponins

b)

Cholesterol

c)

BNP

d)

PTT

31.

Blood levels of which of the following analytes are increased in congestive heart failure?

a)

APTT

b)

BNP

c)

Cardiac troponin

d)

PT

32.

Which of the following is a recording of the electrical activity of the heart?

a)

Cardiac troponin

b)

BNP

c)

ECG

d)

PTT

33.

A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) consists of a tracing of five prominent points, which are identified in what manner?

a)

A B C D E

b)

J K L M N

c)

P Q R S T

d)

V W X Y Z

34.

A complete heartbeat, consisting of depolarization and repolarization, is also known as which of the following?

a)

Cardiac cycle

b)

Conduction cycle

c)

P-wave cycle

d)

Sinoatrial cycle

35.

Most ECGs place how many electrodes on the body?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

10

d)

16

36.

Which of the following is a POCT used to screen for colon cancer and gastric ulcers?

a)

Cardiac troponin T

b)

BNP

c)

Occult blood

d)

PTT

37.

Which type of sample is used for an occult blood test?

a)

Blood

b)

Feces

c)

Throat swab

d)

Urine

38.

Which group of Streptococcus bacteria is detected by the rapid strep test?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

The detection of HCG in a patient sample is useful in the diagnosis of what condition?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Cancer

c)

Hormonal Imbalance

d)

Ectopic Pregnancy

40.

Before urinalysis testing, a urine specimen needs to be ________

a)

filtered and at refrigerator temperature.

b)

at room temperature and well-mixed.

c)

centrifuged and at room temperature.

d)

at body temperature and well-mixed.

41.

A laboratory values that is well outside of the designated range is referred to as a________

a)

high range value.

b)

panic value.

c)

low range value.

d)

bad value.

42.

What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a)

Sinoatrial node

b)

Atrioventricular node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje fibers

43.

What portion of the ECG depicts ventricular depolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

ST segment

44.

Bedside glucose testing is usually performed on patients with what condition?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Kidney failure

d)

Liver disease

45.

According to CLIA, what is the classification of tests in which the procedure is simple and erroneous results are unlikely?

a)

Waived level

b)

Low level

c)

Moderate complexity

d)

High complexity

46.

What type of medication is Aspirin?

a)

Antidiarrhea

b)

Antidiuretic

c)

Antiplatelet

d)

Antianxiety

47.

Which of the following is a bacterium found in the stomach?

4 lines
48.

TnI reaches peak concentration within:

a)

4–8 hours.

b)

12–16 hours.

c)

24 hours.

d)

3 days.

49.

C-reactive protein is a:

a)

predictor of cardiovascular risk due to inflammation.

b)

test for heart disease.

c)

protein used to monitor nutrition status.

d)

substance used to diagnose autoimmune diseases.

50.

A consent form is required to perform which test?

a)

HBV

b)

CRP

c)

RPR

d)

HIV