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PSYC 111 Final Exam Review (1)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an example of overt behavior?

a)

Thinking about a sunny day

b)

Clapping your hands when happy

c)

Feeling stressed

d)

Planning to lean toward a sunny window

2.

Which of the following is a role of clinicians?

a)

Prescribe medication

b)

Diagnose and treat problems

c)

Apply psychological principles to the workplace

d)

Focus on the whole individual

3.

What is a primary focus of human factor psychologists?

a)

Improving job satisfaction

b)

Understanding the mind

c)

Enhancing performance, safety, and comfort

d)

Diagnosing mental disorders

4.

How do organizational psychologists contribute to the workplace?

a)

By diagnosing mental health issues

b)

By applying psychological principles to improve productivity

c)

By prescribing medication

d)

By focusing on abnormal populations

5.

How does empiricism suggest knowledge is primarily acquired?

a)

Through innate ideas

b)

Through sensory experience

c)

Through logical reasoning

d)

Through divine inspiration

6.

What is the main focus of behaviorism in psychology?

a)

Internal thoughts

b)

Genetic predispositions

c)

Observable behavior

d)

Unconscious desires

7.

According to nativism, how are some behaviors explained?

a)

They are learned through experience

b)

They are influenced by culture

c)

They are innate and not learned

d)

They are developed through education

8.

What does structuralism aim to analyze in psychology?

a)

The function of mental processes

b)

The structure of the conscious mind

c)

The influence of environment on behavior

d)

The role of genetics in behavior

9.

How does functionalism view mental and behavioral processes?

a)

As static and unchanging

b)

As serving a purpose or function

c)

As purely instinctual

d)

As irrelevant to adaptation

10.

Which psychological approach focuses on the unconscious mind and early childhood experiences as drivers of human behavior?

a)

Humanism

b)

Behaviorism

c)

Psychoanalysis

d)

Cognitive Psychology

11.

What is a key characteristic of humanism in psychology?

a)

Emphasis on unconscious conflicts

b)

Focus on observable behavior

c)

Belief in free will and personal growth

d)

Use of reinforcement and punishment

12.

What does the scientific method in psychology emphasize?

a)

Subjective interpretation

b)

Replication of truth

c)

Personal beliefs

d)

Anecdotal evidence

13.

What is an operational definition in research?

a)

A vague description of a variable

b)

A precise, measurable, and specific description of how a variable will be observed and measured

c)

A theoretical explanation of a concept

d)

A general idea of a research topic

14.

In which type of observation does the researcher become actively involved in the group or environment they are studying?

a)

Naturalistic observation

b)

Indirect naturalistic observation

c)

Participant observation

d)

Case study

15.

What is a primary limitation of correlational studies in psychology?

a)

They cannot show cause-and-effect, only associations.

b)

They can easily determine causation.

c)

They involve manipulation of variables.

d)

They always show a strong relationship between variables.

16.

Which method is used to explore rare, unique, or complex phenomena in psychology?

a)

Case studies

b)

Surveys

c)

Correlational studies

d)

Experimental method

17.

What is a confounding variable?

a)

An uncontrolled factor that influences both the independent and dependent variables.

b)

A variable that is intentionally manipulated in an experiment.

c)

A factor that only affects the dependent variable.

d)

A variable that is always controlled in an experiment.

18.

How can internal validity be described in an experiment?

a)

Confidence that changes in the dependent variable were caused by the independent variable.

b)

The ability to generalize findings to a larger population.

c)

The manipulation of independent variables to observe effects.

d)

The presence of external conditions affecting the outcome.

19.

What is expectancy bias in research?

a)

When a researcher's expectations or beliefs unintentionally influence the outcome of a study.

b)

When participants are aware of the study's purpose and alter their behavior.

c)

When the sample size is too small to draw conclusions.

d)

When external conditions are not controlled during the experiment.

20.

Which of the following strategies can help improve the external validity of a psychological study?

a)

Using a small, homogeneous sample

b)

Ensuring lab behavior is natural

c)

Random assignment of participants

d)

Focusing only on internal validity

21.

What does a low standard deviation indicate about the scores in a data set?

a)

Scores are spread out over a wide range

b)

Scores are clustered closely around the mean

c)

Scores are evenly distributed

d)

Scores are unpredictable

22.

How do sensory neurons function in the nervous system?

a)

They carry signals from the CNS to muscles

b)

They connect sensory and motor neurons

c)

They carry information from the body to the CNS

d)

They process information within the CNS

23.

What happens when a neuron is "on"?

a)

The cell is resting

b)

Na+ flows out of the cell

c)

The cell is firing

d)

The cell has a -70 to -60 mV charge

24.

What is the primary function of neurotransmitters in the nervous system?

a)

To provide energy to neurons

b)

To transmit signals across synapses

c)

To protect neurons from damage

d)

To store genetic information

25.

Which neurotransmitter is involved in muscle movement, learning, and attention?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

GABA

26.

What effect does a deficiency of dopamine have on the body?

a)

Enhanced memory

b)

Involuntary muscle movements

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Improved vision

27.

What happens when an action potential occurs in a neuron?

a)

The neuron stops functioning

b)

Neurotransmitters are released into the synapse

c)

The neuron becomes inactive

d)

The neuron divides

28.

Which part of the neuron is responsible for receiving signals from other neurons?

a)

Axon

b)

Soma

c)

Dendrite

d)

Myelin

29.

What is the role of serotonin in the human body?

a)

It is primarily involved in regulating mood, sleep, appetite, digestion, memory, and more.

b)

It acts as a natural painkiller and mood booster.

c)

It is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter to calm the nervous system.

d)

It connects the CNS to skeletal muscles.

30.

Which neurotransmitter is known as the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter that calms the nervous system?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Dopamine

c)

GABA

d)

Endorphins

31.

What is the function of agonists in relation to neurotransmitters?

a)

They block or inhibit the action of a neurotransmitter.

b)

They mimic or enhance the action of a neurotransmitter.

c)

They reduce pain and promote pleasure.

d)

They connect the CNS to the rest of the body.

32.

What is the primary function of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

a)

It controls voluntary movements.

b)

It connects the CNS to skeletal muscles.

c)

It is the part of the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord.

d)

It involves both sensory input and motor output.

33.

How do endorphins function in the body?

a)

They regulate mood, sleep, and appetite.

b)

They act as natural painkillers and mood boosters.

c)

They mimic the action of neurotransmitters.

d)

They block the action of neurotransmitters.

34.

Which part of the Autonomic Nervous System is responsible for the "fight or flight" response?

a)

Parasympathetic ANS

b)

Sympathetic ANS

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

35.

What is the primary function of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)?

a)

Controls voluntary muscle movements

b)

Connects the CNS to smooth muscles and glands

c)

Processes sensory information

d)

Maintains balance and coordination

36.

How does the Parasympathetic ANS affect the body?

a)

Increases heart rate and energy

b)

Slows heart rate and promotes digestion

c)

Controls voluntary muscle movements

d)

Processes sensory information

37.

Which part of the brain is responsible for basic life support systems such as shivering, sneezing, and coughing?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla and pons

c)

Thalamus

d)

Hypothalamus

38.

What is the primary function of the reticular formation?

a)

Coordination of complex movements

b)

Regulation of homeostasis

c)

Sleep, waking, attention

d)

Emotion and motivation

39.

Which part of the brain is involved in the coordination of complex movements and balance?

a)

Forebrain

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Limbic System

40.

The thalamus acts as the brain's relay station by sending sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cortex. Which sense is excluded from this process?

a)

Smell

b)

Taste

c)

Hearing

d)

Touch

41.

Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and hormones?

a)

Limbic System

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Reticular formation

d)

Cerebral cortex

42.

The limbic system is involved in regulating which of the following?

a)

Language and memory

b)

Emotion, memory, and motivation

c)

Sleep and attention

d)

Basic life support systems

43.

Which part of the brain is responsible for emotional valiance, including emotion, memory, and survival behaviors?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Cerebral cortex

c)

Amygdala

d)

Occipital lobe

44.

What is the primary function of the hippocampus?

a)

Vision and visual processing

b)

Memory, learning, and spatial navigation

c)

Planning and decision-making

d)

Sensory information processing

45.

Which part of the brain is often described as the "thinking cap" due to its role in advanced cognitive functions?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Cerebral cortex

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

46.

What does an electroencephalogram (EEG) record?

a)

Blood flow in the brain

b)

Structural abnormalities

c)

Electrical activity in the brain

d)

Detailed images of brain structure

47.

Which imaging technique uses radioactive dye to track blood flow and shows the brain at work?

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

EEG

d)

PET

48.

How does a functional MRI (FMRI) help in understanding brain activity?

a)

It shows changes in blood flow as the brain thinks.

b)

It provides a static image of the brain.

c)

It measures electrical activity in the brain.

d)

It detects chemical changes in the brain.

49.

What is the primary function of transcriptional magnetic stimulation (TMS)?

a)

It measures blood flow in the brain.

b)

It provides a brief magnetic pulse to the brain.

c)

It detects chemical changes in the brain.

d)

It measures electrical activity in the brain.

50.

What is the process by which the nervous system forms, matures, and adapts called?

a)

Cognitive development

b)

Neural development

c)

Habituation

d)

Rewarding

51.

What is the habituation technique in learning?

a)

Associative learning where response increases over time.

b)

Non-associative learning where response decreases to a repeated stimulus.

c)

Learning through rewards and punishments.

d)

Learning through imitation and observation.

52.

According to Piaget, how do children construct their understanding of the world?

a)

Through memorization and repetition.

b)

Through interaction and experience.

c)

Through genetic inheritance.

d)

Through passive observation.

53.

What are schemas in cognitive development?

a)

Physical structures in the brain.

b)

Mental frameworks that help organize and interpret information.

c)

Genetic codes that determine behavior.

d)

Emotional responses to stimuli.

54.

What is the primary function of rods in the human eye?

a)

Detecting color and detail.

b)

Providing vision in low light conditions.

c)

Detecting movement and speed.

d)

Focusing on distant objects.

55.

How do mantis shrimp differ from humans in terms of vision?

a)

They have fewer cones than humans.

b)

They can see many colors at different wavelengths that humans cannot.

c)

They have a single type of cone for color vision.

d)

They cannot perceive depth.

56.

What is the main issue with the trichromatic theory of color perception?

a)

It cannot explain afterimages and impossible color combinations.

b)

It only accounts for two types of cones in the retina.

c)

It explains all aspects of color perception.

d)

It is only applicable to animals, not humans.

57.

Which type of cone is absent in protanopia?

a)

Red cone

b)

Green cone

c)

Blue cone

d)

Yellow cone

58.

In deuteranopia, how do green and red appear?

a)

Similar

b)

Distinct

c)

Green appears darker

d)

Red appears brighter

59.

What is a characteristic of tritanopia?

a)

Blue and green can be confused.

b)

Red and green appear similar.

c)

Reds appear dull, brown, or black.

d)

It is the most common type of color blindness.

60.

What do monocular depth cues allow us to perceive?

a)

Depth and distance using just one eye

b)

Color using both eyes

c)

Motion using peripheral vision

d)

Sound using one ear

61.

What is prosopagnosia and which part of the brain is affected by it?

a)

A condition affecting the ability to recognize faces; temporal lobe

b)

A condition affecting hearing; frontal lobe

c)

A condition affecting vision; occipital lobe

d)

A condition affecting speech; parietal lobe

62.

What is the primary function of the pinna in the human ear?

a)

To amplify sound frequencies

b)

To collect sound waves from the environment

c)

To protect the eardrum with wax and hair

d)

To transmit sound to the brain

63.

How does the ear canal contribute to hearing?

a)

It transmits sound directly to the brain

b)

It amplifies sound waves and protects the eardrum

c)

It collects sound waves from the environment

d)

It converts sound waves into electrical signals

64.

Where is the tympanic membrane located in the ear?

a)

At the outer part of the ear

b)

At the end of the ear canal, between the outer and middle ear

c)

Inside the cochlea

d)

In the inner ear, near the auditory nerve

65.

What is the primary function of the ossicles in the middle ear?

a)

To convert sound waves into electrical signals

b)

To amplify and transmit vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear

c)

To send signals to the brain's auditory cortex

d)

To fill the ear with fluid

66.

Which part of the ear converts mechanical vibrations into electrical nerve impulses?

a)

Ossicles

b)

Eardrum

c)

Cochlea

d)

Auditory nerve

67.

How do the ossicles contribute to hearing?

a)

They vibrate when struck by sound waves

b)

They convert air pressure waves into mechanical vibrations

c)

They push on the oval window of the cochlea

d)

They send signals via the auditory nerve

68.

What role do hair cells play in the cochlea?

a)

They amplify sound waves

b)

They convert sound waves into mechanical vibrations

c)

They act as sensory receptors

d)

They transmit signals to the ossicles

69.

What is the role of the corpus callosum in the brain?

a)

It connects the brain to the spinal cord.

b)

It connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain.

c)

It regulates the body's temperature.

d)

It controls the heart rate.

70.

Which hemisphere of the brain is primarily responsible for language and analytical tasks?

a)

Right hemisphere

b)

Left hemisphere

c)

Both hemispheres equally

d)

Neither hemisphere

71.

What is negative reinforcement?

a)

Adding a stimulus to decrease a behavior

b)

Removing a stimulus to increase a behavior

c)

Adding a stimulus to increase a behavior

d)

Removing a stimulus to decrease a behavior

72.

How does partial reinforcement (PRF) differ from consistent reinforcement (CRF)?

a)

PRF punishes every time, CRF punishes some of the time.

b)

PRF rewards every time, CRF rewards some of the time.

c)

PRF punishes some of the time, CRF punishes every time.

d)

PRF rewards some of the time, CRF rewards every time.

73.

What is shaping in the context of learning?

a)

Punishing undesired behavior immediately

b)

Rewarding successive approximations of a desired behavior

c)

Ignoring undesired behavior until it stops

d)

Reinforcing a behavior only once it is fully developed

74.

What is observational learning?

a)

Learning through direct experience

b)

Learning by observing the experience of others

c)

Learning through trial and error

d)

Learning by memorizing facts

75.

What is vicarious reinforcement?

a)

Imitating a behavior after seeing someone punished for it

b)

Imitating a behavior after seeing someone rewarded for it

c)

Avoiding a behavior after seeing someone rewarded for it

d)

Avoiding a behavior after seeing someone punished for it

76.

What is the duration of sensory memory?

a)

1 second

b)

1-5 minutes

c)

10 seconds

d)

30 minutes

77.

What is the role of the central executive in working memory?

a)

Storing long-term memories

b)

Deciding what gets attention

c)

Repeating information

d)

Storing sensory information

78.

What is episodic memory?

a)

Memory for skills and tasks

b)

Memory for facts and knowledge

c)

Memory for a particular event or episode

d)

Memory for sensory experiences

79.

Which type of memory involves the recall of factual information, concepts, and general knowledge about the world?

a)

Procedural memory

b)

Semantic memory

c)

Episodic memory

d)

Sensory memory

80.

What is the term for a mechanism that helps manage and access a set of potentially relevant items during a retrieval process?

a)

Encoding queue

b)

Retrieval queue

c)

Memory buffer

d)

Cognitive map

81.

What is the principle behind transfer appropriate processing in memory retrieval?

a)

Memory retrieval is best when the cognitive processes used during retrieval match those used during encoding.

b)

Memory retrieval is best when the information is rehearsed repeatedly.

c)

Memory retrieval is best when the information is encoded visually.

d)

Memory retrieval is best when the information is encoded acoustically.

82.

What is an example of retroactive interference?

a)

Forgetting a new phone number because of an old one

b)

Forgetting an old address because of a new one

c)

Remembering both old and new information equally

d)

Forgetting both old and new information

83.

What is the Baker-Baker paradox an example of?

a)

Elaborative encoding

b)

Procedural memory

c)

Sensory memory

d)

Episodic memory

84.

What is the test effect and how can it be applied to improve learning?

a)

Practice rewriting notes

b)

Practice remembering information instead of learning it

c)

Avoid practice questions

d)

Focus on memorizing notes

85.

How can eyewitness testimony be unreliable?

a)

Eyewitnesses always remember details accurately

b)

Eyewitnesses can have false memories they believe are true

c)

Eyewitnesses never forget details

d)

Eyewitnesses are always objective

86.

What are flashbulb memories and when do they occur?

a)

Ordinary events that are easily forgotten

b)

Emotionally significant or surprising events

c)

Routine daily activities

d)

Events with no emotional impact

87.

What does a social psychologist study?

a)

Individual behavior in isolation

b)

How people behave in a group

c)

The behavior of animals

d)

The behavior of machines

88.

What influences our impressions of others?

a)

Only what we hear

b)

Clothing, expression, hygiene, size, etc.

c)

Only what we read

d)

Only what we are told

89.

What is the fundamental attribution error?

a)

Overestimating situational factors

b)

Underestimating internal factors

c)

Overestimating internal factors and underestimating situational factors

d)

Assuming everyone is good

90.

What is the main idea behind confirmation bias?

a)

We tend to seek out information that contradicts our beliefs.

b)

We are more likely to pay attention to information that confirms our beliefs.

c)

We ignore all information regardless of its source.

d)

We always change our beliefs based on new information.

91.

How does the self-fulfilling prophecy influence behavior?

a)

It has no impact on behavior.

b)

It causes people to behave randomly.

c)

The way we behave creates our beliefs and influences our behavior.

d)

It only affects behavior in negative ways.

92.

What is the actor-observer effect?

a)

Attributing our behavior to internal sources and others' behavior to external sources.

b)

Attributing our behavior to external sources and others' behavior to internal sources.

c)

Attributing all behaviors to luck.

d)

Ignoring the reasons behind behaviors.

93.

According to Kelley’s Covariation Model, which of the following is NOT a piece of information used to make attributions?

a)

Behavior

b)

Consistency

c)

Distinctiveness

d)

Intelligence

94.

What is cognitive dissonance?

a)

A state of harmony between behavior and attitude.

b)

Tension produced when behavior does not equal attitude.

c)

A method of learning new information.

d)

A type of memory bias.

95.

What is the term for the phenomenon where people perform better in the presence of others?

a)

Social Interference

b)

Social Loafing

c)

Social Facilitation

d)

Group Polarization

96.

Which concept explains why people may not help in an emergency when others are present?

a)

Social Facilitation

b)

Bystander Effect

c)

Group Polarization

d)

Conformity

97.

What is the effect called when individuals put in less effort when working in a group?

a)

Social Interference

b)

Social Loafing

c)

Deindividuation

d)

Stereotypes

98.

Which term describes the loss of individuality and increase in aggressive behavior in groups?

a)

Conformity

b)

Social Facilitation

c)

Deindividuation

d)

Group Polarization

99.

What happens to a group's point of view over time according to the concept of group polarization?

a)

It becomes more moderate

b)

It becomes more polarized

c)

It remains unchanged

d)

It becomes less extreme

100.

How do stereotypes affect our perception of group members?

a)

They make us treat all members equally

b)

They lead us to categorize others based on experiences

c)

They eliminate biases

d)

They encourage individuality