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Alterations in Tissue Integrity

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two broad etiologic categories of alterations in tissue integrity?

a)

Inflammatory/Infectious and Proliferative/Neoplastic

b)

Viral and Bacterial

c)

Acute and Chronic

d)

Genetic and Environmental

2.

Fill in the blank: Inflammatory disorders occur in those with __________ reactions to substances in the environment.

a)

hypothermic

b)

hypotensive

c)

hypoglycemic

d)

hypersensitivity

3.

Infectious agents that alter tissue integrity can range from viruses to insects.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

What is the pathogenesis/etiology of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?

a)

Bacterial infection of the skin, presents with painful vesicles

b)

virus contact with skin and mucous membranes; persists in latent form in trigeminal nerve and other ganglia

c)

Fungal infection of the mouth, white patches

d)

Viral infection of the lungs, airborne transmission

5.

Which type of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is common above the waist, especially on the lips, face, and mouth?

a)

HSV-1

b)

HSV-2

c)

Both HSV-1 and HSV-2

d)

Neither

6.

Fill in the blank: Healing of HSV-1 infections typically occurs in ____ to ____ days and persists in a latent form.

a)

2 to 4

b)

10 to 14

c)

20 to 30

d)

5 to 7

7.

Clinical manifestations of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) usually begin with burning or tingling sensation, followed by ________, ulcers, vesicles, and erythema; pain is common.

a)

crusts

b)

scabs

c)

pustules

d)

papules

8.

Is there a cure for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?

a)

Yes

b)

No

9.

What is the focus of management for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?

a)

Focus on increasing viral replication

b)

Complete eradication of the virus

c)

No treatment required

d)

Focus on symptom management

10.

What is herpes zoster (shingles)?

a)

A) A chronic inflammatory disease of the lungs

b)

B) An acute localized inflammatory disease of a dermatomal segment of the skin

c)

C) A bacterial infection of the blood

d)

D) A genetic disorder

11.

Fill in the blank: In herpes zoster, vesicles develop with redness along the ________ and then dry, crust, and fall off.

a)

dorsal root ganglia

b)

arterial walls

c)

lymph nodes

d)

muscle fibers

12.

What virus causes Herpes-Zoster (shingles)?

a)

Influenza virus

b)

Herpesvirus that causes varicella zoster virus (chickenpox)

c)

Epstein-Barr virus

d)

Human papillomavirus

13.

The reactivation of the latent virus results in shingles.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

What is a common diagnostic sign of the Herpes-Zoster Virus?

a)

Fever

b)

Rash

c)

Cough

d)

Headache

15.

The image shows a rash on the back as a symptom of Herpes-Zoster Virus.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What are the clinical manifestations of Herpes-Zoster Virus?

a)

Vesicles with erythematous bases, lesions, paresthesia (numbness and tingling), and pain

b)

Fever and cough

c)

Joint pain and swelling

d)

Sore throat and runny nose

17.

What is a common complication of Herpes-Zoster Virus?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Diabetes

d)

Postherpetic neuralgia

18.

Postherpetic neuralgia is characterized by recurring pain after rash, can persist for months to years, and is most common in individuals older than (a)   .

19.

What are the three genera of fungi that infect human skin in superficial fungal infections?

a)

Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton

b)

Candida, Aspergillus, Penicillium

c)

Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Coccidioides

d)

Cryptococcus, Mucor, Rhizopus

20.

What is the term for a superficial fungal infection of the scalp?

a)

alopecia areata

b)

tinea capitis

c)

seborrheic dermatitis

d)

psoriasis

21.

What is the term for a superficial fungal infection of the foot?

a)

tinea pedis

b)

onychomycosis

c)

tinea capitis

d)

impetigo

22.

Which of the following is used for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infections?

a)

Blood test

b)

Microscopy and culture

c)

X-ray

d)

Urine analysis

23.

Fill in the blank: One of the clinical manifestations of superficial fungal infections is ________.

a)

Erythematous

b)

Cyanotic

c)

Jaundiced

d)

Necrotic

24.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of superficial fungal infections?

a)

Macules/papules or plaques with peripheral scaling and central clearing

b)

Fever

c)

Headache

d)

Cough

25.

Fill in the blank: Nail ________ and discoloration are clinical manifestations of superficial fungal infections.

a)

elongation

b)

brittleness

c)

curvature

d)

thickening

26.

What is the medical term for this condition?

a)

Tinea pedis

b)

Distal subungual onychomycosis

c)

Candidiasis

d)

Tinea capitis

27.

Look at the image labeled 'Ringworm Rash.' What type of infection does this image show?

a)

Bacterial infection

b)

Viral infection

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Parasitic infection

28.

What is the pathology of yeast infections caused by Candida albicans?

a)

Undiagnosed immunodeficiency disorder of superficial infection of skin and/or mucous membranes

b)

Bacterial overgrowth in the gastrointestinal tract

c)

Autoimmune destruction of red blood cells

d)

Viral infection of the central nervous system

29.

What is this?

(a)  

30.

Diagnosis of yeast infections caused by Candida albicans varies on location and may include which of the following methods?

a)

Blood pressure measurement

b)

Samples, microscope, and visual

c)

X-ray

d)

Ultrasound

31.

Which type of yeast infection is commonly found in infants?

a)

Thrush

b)

Athlete's foot

c)

Ringworm

d)

Jock itch

32.

Fill in the blank: The clinical manifestations of Candida albicans infections usually present as ______ lesions.

a)

white

b)

red

c)

yellow

d)

blue

33.

Pathology: Bacteria found in ______ causes impetigo. Fill in the blank.

a)

nares

b)

lungs

c)

intestine

d)

liver

34.

Etiology: Impetigo is caused by which of the following? Choose the correct answer.

a)

Viruses

b)

Fungi

c)

Staphylococci or streptococci

d)

Parasites

35.

Diagnosis: Impetigo is diagnosed by ______ of sores. Fill in the blank.

a)

visualization

b)

biopsy

c)

ultrasound

d)

blood test

36.

What bacterial infection is shown in the image on the left?

a)

Cellulitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

Erysipelas

d)

Folliculitis

37.

What is the pathogenesis of Seborrheic Dermatitis?

a)

Papular-squamous skin disease caused by high oil production.

b)

Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.

c)

Bacterial infection of the dermis.

d)

Allergic reaction to environmental allergens.

38.

What is the etiology of Seborrheic Dermatitis? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Vitamin C deficiency.

b)

Low protein intake.

c)

Excessive sun exposure.

d)

High oil production

39.

What is the diagnosis method for Seborrheic Dermatitis?

a)

Blood test.

b)

Biopsy

c)

Urine analysis.

d)

X-ray.

40.

What are the clinical manifestations of Seborrheic Dermatitis? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Various degrees of scaling and erythema in areas of high oil gland concentration; for example cradle cap and dandruff.

b)

Painful blisters and ulcers on the mucous membranes.

c)

Thick, silvery scales and sharply demarcated plaques on extensor surfaces.

d)

Bullous lesions with a positive Nikolsky sign.

41.

What is the pathogenesis of psoriasis?

a)

Chronic skin condition of papules and plaques of silvery scales, periods of exacerbation and remission

b)

Acute bacterial infection causing pustules and fever

c)

Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes leading to depigmentation

d)

Fungal infection resulting in ring-shaped lesions

42.

What is the etiology of psoriasis?

a)

Viral infection

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

unknown, inherited autoimmune

d)

Nutritional deficiency

43.

What is the pathogenesis of Acne Vulgaris? Fill in the blank: The obstruction of follicles due to cells and oils results in an inflamed lesion; arises when sludging of sebaceous oils and deposition of loose epithelial cells.

a)

Obstruction of follicles due to cells and oils results in an inflamed lesion; arises when sludging of sebaceous oils and deposition of loose epithelial cells.

b)

Increased melanin production in the dermis leads to hyperpigmented lesions and scarring.

c)

Autoimmune destruction of sebaceous glands causes dry, scaly patches on the skin.

d)

Bacterial invasion of sweat glands results in purulent discharge and ulcer formation.

44.

Sex hormones, heredity, bacterial flora of skin, stress, mechanical occlusion, and cosmetic use are all examples of _______.

a)

treatment methods for Acne Vulgaris

b)

etiological factors of Acne Vulgaris

c)

symptoms of Acne Vulgaris

d)

preventive measures for Acne Vulgaris

45.

What is the pathogenesis of atopic dermatitis? (Fill in the blank)

4 lines
46.

What is the etiology of atopic dermatitis? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Genetic Chromosome 11.

b)

Viral infection.

c)

Nutritional deficiency.

d)

Bacterial contamination.

47.

How is atopic dermatitis diagnosed? (Fill in the blank)

a)

EKG

b)

Blood glucose test.

c)

Urine analysis.

d)

Biopsy and physical exam

48.

What are the clinical manifestations of atopic dermatitis? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Pruritis, inflammation, dermatitis, eczematous, rhinitis, allergic rhinitis; risk factor is history of asthma.

b)

Fever, cough, chest pain, and hemoptysis; risk factor is smoking.

c)

Polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, and blurred vision; risk factor is obesity.

d)

Jaundice, abdominal pain, dark urine, and pale stools; risk factor is hepatitis infection.

49.

What is the pathology of Contact Dermatitis?

a)

viral infection

b)

Genetic mutation

c)

exposure to high levels of irritating agent

d)

Bacterial infection

50.

Which of the following is an example of Allergic Contact Dermatitis?

a)

Hypersensitivity to a specific agent such as detergent or lotion

b)

Exposure to sunlight

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Insect bite

51.

Rhus Dermatitis is caused by exposure to which of the following?

a)

pet dander

b)

Detergent

c)

Poison ivy, oak, sumac

d)

Animal fur

52.

The etiology of Contact Dermatitis is ______ or irritation level.

a)

allergy

b)

infection

c)

heredity

d)

nutrition

53.

The diagnosis of Contact Dermatitis is made using a ______ test.

a)

urine

b)

skin prick

c)

blood

d)

patch

54.

What are the clinical manifestations of Rhus Dermatitis?

a)

Itching, erythema, vesicle formation (may be in linear fashion)

b)

Fever, cough, headache

c)

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

d)

Joint pain, swelling, stiffness

55.

Fill in the blank: One of the clinical manifestations of Rhus Dermatitis is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
itching

fever

cough

headache

56.

Vesicle formation in Rhus Dermatitis may be in a linear fashion.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The image shows a skin rash associated with which condition?

a)

Psoriasis

b)

Rhus Dermatitis

c)

Herpes Zoster

d)

Scabies

58.

What is the pathogenesis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? Fill in the blank: Infected tick bites and burrows into the host and feeds releasing _______ into the blood stream; followed by a rash – within 4 to 8 days symptomatic.

a)

rickettsiae

b)

spirochetes

c)

protozoa

d)

viruses

59.

Which of the following is an initial clinical manifestation of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

a)

generalized edema

b)

Petechial lesions

c)

papule or macule

d)

Photophobia

60.

After 4 to 8 days, which symptoms may develop in a patient with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

a)

A) Fever, headache, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting

b)

B) Rash on wrist or ankle

c)

C) Burrows

d)

D) Cranial nerve deficits

61.

Fill in the blank: The rash in Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever typically appears on the ______ or ankle, then spreads; it has a macule and maculopapular appearance.

a)

forearm

b)

elbow

c)

wrist

d)

shoulder

62.

Which of the following are other symptoms of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

a)

Photophobia

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Petechial lesions

d)

Lethargy

e)

Generalized edema

63.

Burrows may be observed in patients with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Fill in the blank: The clinical manifestations of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever initially include ______ or macule.

a)

papule

b)

vesicle

c)

pustule

d)

nodule

65.

Pathology: Eggs laid by ________ mite (called scabies) on the stratum corneum, eggs hatch into larvae, and in 3 to 4 days they grow to adulthood; usually contracted after close contact with infested person. Fill in the blank.

a)

Demodex folliculorum

b)

Sarcoptes scabiei

c)

Ixodes scapularis

d)

Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus

66.

Etiology: Scabies is caused by infestation of which mite? Choose the correct answer.

a)

Demodex folliculorum

b)

Sarcoptes scabiei

c)

Ixodes scapularis

d)

Pediculus humanus

67.

What is the pathology of Pediculosis (Lice)? Fill in the blank: Parasitic insects (lice), survive by ________ on human blood.

a)

swimming

b)

sleeping

c)

jumping

d)

feeding

68.

What is the most common way Pediculosis (Lice) is spread? Fill in the blank: Spread most commonly by ________ or from surface dwelling.

a)

person-to-person contact

b)

airborne droplets

c)

contaminated food

d)

animal bites

69.

How is Pediculosis (Lice) diagnosed? Fill in the blank: Diagnosis is made by observation of ________ or louse (lice).

a)

spores

b)

nymph

c)

cysts

d)

eggshells

70.

What are the clinical manifestations of Pediculosis (Lice)? Clinical manifestations include ________ and visualization.

a)

rash

b)

fever

c)

itching

d)

nausea

71.

Fill in the blank: The pathology of bedbugs is that Cimex lectularius insect feed on _________.

a)

human blood

b)

plant leaves

c)

wood fibers

d)

animal fur

72.

Fill in the blank: The diagnosis of bedbug infestation is based on ________ and examination of insect.

a)

bites

b)

fever

c)

rash

d)

cough

73.

What is the pathology of Lyme Disease? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Bite of tick that carries the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi.

b)

Inhalation of airborne Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

c)

Consumption of contaminated water with Vibrio cholerae.

d)

Direct contact with herpes simplex virus.

74.

What is the etiology of Lyme Disease? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Tick bite that carriers Borrelia burgdorferi; common locations are groin, thigh, and axillae.

b)

Mosquito bite that transmits Plasmodium falciparum; common in tropical regions.

c)

Flea bite that transmits Yersinia pestis; common in rodents.

d)

Direct contact with infected respiratory droplets; common in crowded places.

75.

What test is used for the diagnosis of Lyme Disease? (Fill in the blank)

a)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test – detects antibodies to B. burgdorferi.

b)

Mantoux test – detects tuberculosis infection.

c)

Widal test – detects typhoid fever.

d)

Paul-Bunnell test – detects infectious mononucleosis.