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EMS103 MIDTERM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is research published in a medical journal more authoritative than the information in a typical article published in an EMS magazine?

a)

Medical journals don't rely on advertising revenue as EMS magazines do.

b)

EMS magazine articles tend to be poorly researched.

c)

EMS articles are generally opinion pieces.

d)

Research in medical journals is original and peer reviewed.

2.

What is the best answer to why new EMTs have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination?

a)

EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.

b)

EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam.

c)

It looks good to a jury should the service be sued.

d)

The state requires the training.

3.

What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care?

a)

Advanced EMT

b)

Emergency Medical Technician

c)

Emergency Medical Responder

d)

Paramedic

4.

Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system?

a)

Process Improvement Plan (PIP)

b)

System effectiveness management

c)

Total quality system

d)

Quality improvement

5.

The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) was founded to establish which of the following?

a)

Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services

b)

Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices

c)

An education curriculum for EMT courses

d)

National standards for emergency medical services personnel

6.

Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance?

a)

Emergency department

b)

Surgical services department

c)

Emergency medical services system

d)

Emergency medical dispatch center

7.

What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care?

a)

Emergency Ambulance Driver

b)

Emergency Medical Technician

c)

Emergency Medical Responder

d)

Advanced EMT

8.

Which of the following descriptions best defines the term pathogen?

a)

An immunity developed after an exposure

b)

A medication with a harmful effect

c)

A study of the origins of infection and disease

d)

An organism that causes infection and disease

9.

What stage of death and dying describes a patient who says, 'I know I'm going to die, but first I want to see my grandson graduate from high school.'?

a)

Denial

b)

Bargaining

c)

Depression

d)

Anger

10.

What response should you have to a patient's wife who blames you for her husband's death?

a)

Reassure her that you did everything you could and that everything will be okay.

b)

Correct her misconceptions and remind her that television shows are fiction.

c)

Recognize that she is in the denial stage of grief and interrupt her behavior.

d)

Listen empathetically to all of her complaints.

11.

During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure?

a)

Obtaining blood samples

b)

Splinting a sprained ankle

c)

Bandaging a laceration

d)

Childbirth

12.

Because EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.

a)

chronic stress

b)

stress prevention

c)

crisis intervention

d)

critical incident stress

13.

What is the best response to a partner who is prepared to die to save a life in a dangerous situation?

a)

The patient's family may sue him if he is not successful in rescuing him.

b)

He is not only putting his life at risk, but also placing the lives of the professional rescuers unnecessarily at risk.

c)

His family will not receive any benefits if he is not trained in rescue and dies while attempting a rescue.

d)

He will force additional fire units to come to his aid unnecessarily.

14.

Which of the following should you not do when reaching for something?

a)

Prolong the reach for as long as necessary.

b)

Avoid reaching more than 20 inches in front of your body.

c)

Avoid twisting.

d)

Keep your back in a locked-in position.

15.

If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT's waist, he should be in a(n) ________ position.

a)

feet-together

b)

overhead

c)

kneeling

d)

squatting

16.

What should you not do when using a stair chair?

a)

Lean forward from the waist.

b)

Lean forward from the hips.

c)

Keep your back straight.

d)

Flex your knees.

17.

Urgent moves are required when:

a)

there are no life threats and conditions are stable.

b)

rapid transport is necessary.

c)

life threats exist but there is time for precautions for spinal injuries.

d)

an emergency move is not possible.

18.

What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a tracklike system over a traditional stair chair?

a)

There is no benefit of a tracklike stair chair over a traditional stair chair.

b)

A stair chair with a tracklike system prevents the patient from having to be lifted down stairs.

c)

Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a tracklike system.

d)

A stair chair with a tracklike system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system.

19.

Which of the following is the best position for transporting an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately?

a)

Recovery position

b)

Supine

c)

Fowler position

d)

Semi-Fowler position

20.

While treating a patient involved in a shooting at the patient's vacation home, which of the following actions will NOT interfere with the investigation of a crime scene?

a)

Using the patient's phone

b)

Moving the patient

c)

Using the bathroom

d)

Wearing gloves at the scene

21.

Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene?

a)

How you gained access to the scene

b)

Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on scene

c)

Your experience as an EMT

d)

What route you took when responding to the scene

22.

Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation?

a)

Standard of care

b)

Protocols and standing orders

c)

Scope of practice

d)

Professional standards

23.

If the EMT is in doubt as to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision?

a)

Withhold resuscitative measures.

b)

Begin resuscitative measures.

c)

Have the patient's family put their wishes in writing.

d)

Consult with the patient's physician.

24.

Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the best way to obtain consent for treatment?

a)

Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.

b)

Call the patient's mother at work.

c)

Act on implied consent.

d)

Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

25.

In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest?

a)

Family members request that nothing be done.

b)

The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician.

c)

The patient's caregiver believes the patient would not want resuscitative measures.

d)

The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation.

26.

With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is not true?

a)

The foot is distal to the knee.

b)

The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body.

c)

The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head.

d)

The mouth is proximal to the nose.

27.

Which of the following describes the midline of the body?

a)

The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus

b)

An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion

c)

An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and left halves

d)

An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion

28.

What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology?

a)

The terms are synonymous.

b)

Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior.

c)

Anatomy is the study of body structure, and physiology is the study of body function.

d)

Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes.

29.

Which of the following best describes the anatomic position?

a)

Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward

b)

Standing in profile with the hands on the hips

c)

Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent

d)

Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head

30.

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body?

a)

Posterior

b)

Caudal

c)

Anterior

d)

Dorsal

31.

What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body?

a)

Posterior

b)

Caudal

c)

Anterior

d)

Dorsal

32.

Which of the following best describes the medical condition of shock?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Delayed capillary refill

c)

An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event

d)

A state of inadequate tissue perfusion

33.

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?

a)

Removal of old blood vessels

b)

Regulation of body temperature

c)

Balancing water in the body

d)

Protection from the environment

34.

Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae cavae?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

35.

Which of the following is not part of the lower extremity?

a)

Patella

b)

Carpals

c)

Femur

d)

Pelvis

36.

Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach?

a)

Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

b)

Absorption of water from food products

c)

Production of bile

d)

Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions

37.

A decreased number of red blood cells is a condition called:

a)

hypercapnia

b)

diffusion

c)

anemia

d)

liver failure

38.

Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism?

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Carbolic acid

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Lactic acid

39.

________ blood returns to the right side of the heart.

a)

Oxygenated

b)

Anemic

c)

Red

d)

Deoxygenated

40.

What do chemoreceptors found in the body and vascular system measure?

a)

Low oxygen and low carbon dioxide

b)

Low oxygen and high carbon dioxide

c)

High oxygen and low carbon dioxide

d)

High oxygen and high carbon dioxide

41.

Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are common ________ disorders.

a)

cardiac

b)

endocrine

c)

digestive

d)

neurological

42.

In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume?

a)

Late adulthood

b)

Infancy

c)

Early adulthood

d)

Middle adulthood

43.

During which age group is the body in peak physical condition?

a)

Early adult

b)

Middle adult

c)

Adolescence

d)

Preschool

44.

Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to:

a)

9 months

b)

12 months

c)

18 months

d)

15 months

45.

Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as 'the twilight years'?

a)

Early adulthood

b)

Late adulthood

c)

Adolescence

d)

Middle adulthood

46.

Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health except:

a)

a decrease in blood volume

b)

sleep-wake cycle disruption

c)

deterioration of the respiratory system

d)

an increase in metabolism

47.

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway?

a)

Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip

b)

Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached

c)

Using a 14 French suction catheter

d)

Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning

48.

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should:

a)

perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs

b)

move the patient to the ambulance and suction

c)

insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate

d)

roll him onto his side to clear the airway

49.

Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning?

a)

Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth

b)

Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter

c)

Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction

d)

Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter

50.

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway?

a)

Movement of air around the mouth and nose

b)

Regular chest movements

c)

Nasal flaring

d)

Equal expansion of both sides of the chest on inhalation

51.

What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air?

a)

Hoarseness

b)

Snoring

c)

Stridor

d)

Gurgling

52.

What device is used to perform mouth-to-mask ventilation?

a)

Automatic transport ventilator

b)

Bag-valve mask

c)

Stoma

d)

Pocket face mask

53.

Concerning the use of humidified oxygen, which of the following is true?

a)

The water in the reservoir should be treated with chlorine tablets to prevent the growth of bacteria

b)

The water reservoir should be changed on a weekly basis

c)

It is not of great benefit during short transports but can make the patient more comfortable

d)

It should only be used when assisting ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device

54.

What signs and symptoms would indicate inadequate breathing in a patient?

a)

Increased effort to breathe, cyanosis, clammy skin, altered mental status

b)

Decreased depth of respiration, decreased rate of breathing, clammy skin, normal mental status

c)

Increased effort to breathe, increased depth of respiration, normal skin, normal mental status

d)

Rapid breathing, pale skin, and normal mental status

55.

When does respiratory distress change to respiratory failure?

a)

When continuation of a respiratory challenge results in the systems being unable to keep up with the demand, and the skin color and mental status change

b)

When a compensatory mechanism is no longer needed and the patient goes into respiratory arrest

c)

When continuation of a respiratory challenge causes the systems to fail, the pupils to dilate, and the skin to become hot and dry due to the demand for oxygen

d)

When a patient who is short of breath presents in the tripod position with noisy respirations that suddenly clear up and return to normal

56.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:

a)

an urgent care center

b)

a neurosurgery center

c)

the closest hospital

d)

a trauma center

57.

You have just arrived on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a compact car was struck from behind by a delivery truck. The driver of the delivery truck is standing outside his vehicle talking to police when you arrive, but the driver of the car is still seated in the driver's seat. You have noted moderate damage to the rear of the car. For which of the following injuries should you have the highest level of suspicion?

a)

Chest injury

b)

Fractures of the lower extremities

c)

Abdominal injuries

d)

Neck injury

58.

Which of the following situations will not require additional resources at the scene?

a)

A 300-pound woman complaining of back pain

b)

A patient with emphysema who is on oxygen therapy at home

c)

A call to a manufacturing plant where a worker has his hand caught in a machine

d)

A call for a sick person at home during which an odor of natural gas is detected

59.

A fall is considered severe anytime an adult patient has fallen more than ________ feet.

a)

20

b)

15

c)

8

d)

10

60.

You have arrived on the scene at a high school football field where a 17-year-old male is lying on the ground. He is unresponsive and cyanotic, and he is making obvious respiratory effort without moving adequate amounts of air. Which of the following should be done first?

a)

Assist ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen

b)

Insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway

c)

Apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask

d)

Open the patient's airway using a manual maneuver

61.

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment?

a)

To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems

b)

To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew

c)

To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms

d)

To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition

62.

Which of the following is not part of the general impression?

a)

Patient's past medical history

b)

Patient's age and sex

c)

Patient's facial expression

d)

Position in which the patient is found

63.

You are approaching a 16-year-old male with bright red spurting blood coming from his leg. He is screaming and he begs you to help him. You should:

a)

control the bleeding

b)

apply oxygen

c)

ask him to calm down

d)

assess his airway

64.

How often should a patient's vital signs be reassessed during transport to the hospital after the pulse has been restored with CPR and the use of an AED?

a)

Every 10 minutes

b)

Every 5 minutes

c)

Every 15 minutes

d)

Every 2 minutes

65.

What is the pressure remaining in the arteries after the pulse wave has passed through?

a)

Resting blood pressure

b)

Systolic blood pressure

c)

Diastolic blood pressure

d)

Venous pressure

66.

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache and an initial blood pressure of 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is called:

a)

stroke

b)

hypertension

c)

prehypertension

d)

hypotension

67.

In a blood pressure reading of 120/80, what body process does the 120 measure?

a)

Systolic blood pressure; when the right ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the veins

b)

Systolic blood pressure; when the left ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the arteries

c)

Diastolic blood pressure; when the right ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the veins

d)

Diastolic blood pressure; when the left ventricle contracts and the blood is forced into the arteries

68.

Of the following, which would most likely give the best information regarding your patient's mental status?

a)

Pulse and respiratory rate

b)

Patient's ability to know person, place, time, and purpose

c)

Last oral intake

d)

List of allergies

69.

Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up.

4 lines
70.

Your patient is a 16-year-old female who is reporting abdominal pain and nausea. She says it came on when she woke up this morning. Her mother says that her daughter has been tired and cranky lately and has not been eating well for a couple of weeks. In fact, every time you ask a question, the patient's mother answers. What should you do next?

a)

Ignore the mother and continue to try to talk to the patient.

b)

Have your partner interview the mother in the next room.

c)

Ask the mother to please be quiet.

d)

Tell the mother to leave the room.

71.

You are on the scene of a 16-year-old patient in respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. After placing the patient on oxygen and performing the primary and secondary assessments, you are confident that the patient is indeed having an asthma attack. How can you be sure your field diagnosis is accurate?

a)

Ask your partner her opinion; if she also agrees that it is asthma, the diagnosis is correct.

b)

Think of all possible causes of respiratory distress and rule them in or out as potential diagnoses based on your clinical findings.

c)

Keep your EMT textbook with you on the ambulance and review it to confirm your diagnosis.

d)

Constantly reassess the patient to make sure you are correct.

72.

An EMT's assessment differs from an assessment made in the emergency department in which way?

a)

An EMT's focus is on life threats first.

b)

The EMT is working with limited resources.

c)

The emergency physician is concerned with scene safety.

d)

Time is available in the emergency department to make a diagnosis.

73.

What is a surgical opening in the wall of the abdomen with a plastic bag in place to collect digestive waste?

a)

Tracheostomy

b)

Stoma

c)

Colostomy

d)

Priapism

74.

What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes?

a)

Stoma

b)

Tracheostomy

c)

Crepitation

d)

Pneumothorax

75.

Where might you find a patient's medical alert identification jewelry?

a)

Bracelet

b)

Necklace

c)

Ankle bracelet

d)

All of the above

76.

________ is reassessing and recording findings of the reassessment so they can be compared to earlier findings.

a)

Analysis

b)

Critical thinking

c)

Averaging

d)

Trending

77.

What is the first step in the reassessment process?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Focused history and physical exam

c)

Primary assessment

d)

Secondary assessment

78.

You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient's respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You should:

a)

increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.

b)

assist the patient's breathing with a bag-valve mask.

c)

switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

d)

call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler.

79.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires ambulance services to do all of the following except:

a)

report child abuse.

b)

safeguard patient confidentiality.

c)

place patient care reports in a locked box.

d)

All of the above are required by HIPAA.

80.

Which of the following agencies assigns and licenses radio frequencies?

a)

Transportation Security Administration

b)

Federal Trade Commission

c)

Federal Communications Commission

d)

United States Department of Transportation

81.

In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented prehospital care report not necessary?

a)

Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.

b)

A patient says that someone else called EMS and he does not want any assistance.

c)

A patient is treated but not transported.

d)

A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above.

82.

A drug's form refers to which of the following?

a)

Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas

b)

The type of container it comes in

c)

The mandatory paperwork that must be completed when giving any drug

d)

The way in which it is administered

83.

You have just administered nitroglycerin to a 68-year-old patient. Within a few minutes, she complains of feeling faint and lightheaded, but states that she is still having some chest pain. Which of the following would be the best sequence of actions?

a)

Advise the patient that this is a normal occurrence and administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.

b)

Administer activated charcoal to prevent further absorption of the nitroglycerin and closely monitor the patient's blood pressure.

c)

Lower the head of the stretcher and take the patient's blood pressure.

d)

Increase the amount of oxygen you are giving to the patient before administering a second dose of nitroglycerin.

84.

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are called:

a)

indications.

b)

side effects.

c)

contraindications.

d)

untoward effects.

85.

Which of the following patients with difficulty breathing should not receive supplemental oxygen?

a)

A patient with a chronic lung disease who may have a hypoxic drive

b)

A patient whose oxygen saturation level is 100% on room air

c)

An infant whose eyes may be damaged by excessive oxygen administration

d)

None of these patients should have oxygen withheld.

86.

Which of the following respiratory rates should be cause for alarm in a 2-month-old child?

a)

32 breaths/min

b)

16 breaths/min

c)

40 breaths/min

d)

38 breaths/min

87.

Today, patients with cystic fibrosis are surviving to:

a)

adulthood.

b)

infancy.

c)

adolescence.

d)

the toddler years.

88.

You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a 'little sick' for the past two days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has 'heart problems,' suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a 'water pill.' She is afebrile and has coarse crackles bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress?

a)

Acute myocardial infarction

b)

Aortic aneurysm

c)

Congestive heart failure

d)

Dysrhythmia

89.

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited?

a)

The patient has a gastrointestinal ulcer.

b)

The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg.

c)

The patient does not currently take aspirin.

d)

The patient feels dizzy.

90.

Which of the following best describes a fluttering sensation in the chest?

a)

Palpitations

b)

Dysrhythmia

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Pulseless electrical activity of the heart

91.

Once an EMT has begun resuscitative efforts, when may the EMT cease those efforts?

a)

The EMT's partner gives the order to cease.

b)

No other rescuer is available to relieve the EMT.

c)

The patient has no pulse after 1 minute.

d)

Spontaneous circulation and breathing occur.

92.

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide:

a)

a faster response time to the scene.

b)

better quality of care with less training.

c)

high-quality compressions.

d)

a 100% success rate.

93.

In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards?

a)

U.S. Department of the Interior

b)

U.S. Department of Homeland Security

c)

U.S. Department of Transportation

d)

U.S. Department of Health Services

94.

Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs?

a)

To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies

b)

To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence

c)

To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted

d)

To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan

95.

The body's three-stage response to a stressful stimulation is known as general ________ syndrome.

a)

resistance

b)

reaction

c)

incident

d)

adaptation

96.

All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except:

a)

spending more time relaxing with friends and family.

b)

eating more carbohydrates.

c)

following a regular walking regimen.

d)

drinking caffeine instead of alcohol.

97.

How many pounds are most battery-powered hydraulic systems rated to safely lift?

a)

700

b)

200

c)

300

d)

500

98.

How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip?

a)

24 inches

b)

6 inches

c)

15 inches

d)

10 inches

99.

You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do?

a)

Provide emergency care under implied consent.

b)

Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service.

c)

Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law.

d)

Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help.

100.

Which of the following situations best illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT?

a)

An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff.

b)

An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic.

c)

An EMT who is off duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help.

d)

The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician.