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Unit 1 Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 4hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The fossils found closer to the surface of the ground are generally -


(a)  
Choose from the below words
Younger & more complex
Older & simpler
Younger & simpler
Older & more complex
2.

A bat wing and a butterfly wing are both used for flying but they are made differently. What type of structure is this?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial structure

d)

Fossil structure

3.

A human arm and a whale fin have similar bone structure but the whale fin is used for swimming and the arm is used for reaching and grabbing. What type of structures are these?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Fossil structures

4.

When comparing the DNA of two different organisms, the more differences in the DNA base pairs the more-

a)

Closely related they are.

b)

Distantly related they are.

c)

It doesn't prove anything.

d)

They look alike.

5.

The moth wing and the bat wing are example of structures.


(a)  
Choose from the below words
Analogous
Homologous
Vestigial
Fossil
6.

Which of the pictures above would be examples of homologous structures? (pick 2)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

7.

What type of evidence is shown with the diagram above?

a)

Molecular

b)

Anatomical

c)

Embryological

d)

Fossil

8.

The similarities of bone structure in the diagram provide evidence of what?

a)

The organisms probably use there forelimbs for the same thing.

b)

The organisms evolved from a common ancestor.

c)

The organisms have the same DNA.

d)

All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs.

9.

Match the following

a)

Analogous Structure

1.

Same function different structure

b)

Homologous Structure

2.

Same structure different function

c)

Comparative Embryology

3.

Comparing embryological development of different species

d)

Biochemical Evidence

4.

Comparing DNA and amino acid sequences of different species

e)

Vestigial Structures

5.

Structures in the body of an organism that no longer work.

10.
What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive in its environment?
a)
adaptation
b)
variation
c)
homologous structure
d)
vestigial structure
11.

What is the process of which humans breed organisms for certain traits?

a)

artificial selection

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

inheritance of acquired characteristics

d)

natural selection

12.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
13.
Finches on the Galapagos Islands had different beaks in order to help them do what?
a)
Build nests
b)
Fight off predators
c)
Collect food sources
d)
Compete with rivals
14.

If an organism is made entirely of one cell it is called...

a)

Multicellular

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

Unicellular

d)

Eukaryotic

15.

Reproduction that involves two cells from different parents unite to produce the first cell of a new organism.

a)

Asexual

b)

Sexual

c)

Budding

d)

Division

16.

Maintaining a stable internal

environment is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

equilibrium

c)

balance

d)

evenness

17.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
18.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
19.
What is another way of saying organism?
a)
living thing
b)
organ system
c)
tissue team
d)
critter
20.

The ability to produce fertile offspring is called

a)

Growth and Development

b)

Metabolism

c)

Cellular Organization

d)

Reproduction

21.

All organisms begin their life as

a)

a group of cells

b)

a single cell

c)

an embryo

d)

a fully developed offspring

22.

An organism that must obtain its nutrients by ingesting another organism is called

a)

Autotroph

b)

Heterotroph

c)

unicellular

d)

multicellular

23.

An organism that can make its own nutrients through cellular processes involving light is called

a)

Autotroph

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Unicellular

d)

Multi-cellular

24.
All living organisms are made up of ____.
a)
Cells
b)
Bacteria
c)
Organs
d)
Tissue
25.

Which of the following is a term used to describe all the chemical reactions that take place in a living thing?

a)
respiration
b)
mutations
c)
homeostasis
d)
metabolism
26.

A plant growing towards a light source is an example of which of the following?

a)

attracting a mate

b)

destroying infectious germs

c)

responding to a stimuli

d)

obtaining moisture from the air

27.

Infants will often smile when they hear a parent’s voice. In this situation, the parent’s voice is considered

a)

stimulus

b)

response

c)

adaptation

d)

resource

28.

Identify all of the following that are living.

a)

Volcano

b)

Tree

c)

Sun

d)

Fungus

29.

Identify all of the following that are nonliving.

a)

Rock

b)

Oxygen

c)

Bacteria

d)

Battery

30.
The basic unit of life is called a (n)
a)
atom
b)
compound
c)
cell
d)
energy
31.
Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why your legs and arms get longer and stronger as you get older? 
a)
living things respond to their environment
b)
living things maintain internal balance
c)
living things are made of cells
d)
living things grow and develop
32.
When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
33.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
34.

Which characteristic of living things is represented in the picture?

a)

Share similar chemicals

b)

Grows and develops

c)

Responds to stimuli

d)

Evolves (as a population)

35.

Which characteristic of living things is represented in the picture?

a)

Respond to stimuli

b)

Grow and develop

c)

Evolution

d)

Made of cells

36.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
37.
The scientific name for something living is a(an)
a)
organism
b)
cell
c)
tissue
d)
human
38.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
39.
It is hot outside. You start sweating. In this case, the hot weather is the...
a)
stimulus
b)
response
c)
cause and effect
d)
responder
40.

The combination of chemical reactions through

which an organism builds up or breaks down

materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

digestion

d)

consumption

41.

Maintaining a stable internal

environment is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

equilibrium

c)

balance

d)

evenness

42.

Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11". Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things contain cells

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

43.
When a baby kitten becomes an adult cat, this is an example of...
a)
energy metabolism
b)
growth and development
c)
response to stimuli
d)
having cells
44.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
45.

The one factor that a scientist changes during an experiment.

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

46.

The variable that is measured.

a)

Controlled Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Independent Variable

47.

Why is it important to have only one independent variable and to control the other variables when performing science experiments?

a)

So you can tell which factor is causing the change in the experiment.

b)

It does not matter, you can have as many independent variables as you want.

48.

Ben makes five paper helicopters with different wing lengths. He drops them the same way from a height of two meters for five trials each. He records the amount of time it takes for each helicopter to fall to the ground.

What is the independent variable?

a)

Dropping the same way

b)

Wing Length

c)

Amount of time it takes the helicopter to hit the floor

d)

Dropping from the same height

49.

Ben makes five paper helicopters with different wing lengths. He drops them the same way from a height of two meters for five trials each. He records the amount of time it takes for each helicopter to fall to the ground.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

Dropping the same way

b)

Wing Length

c)

Amount of time it takes the helicopter to hit the floor

d)

Dropping from the same height

50.

Ben makes five paper helicopters with different wing lengths. He drops them the same way from a height of two meters for five trials each. He records the amount of time it takes for each helicopter to fall to the ground.

What are two controlled variables? (Select 2 answers)

a)

Dropping the same way

b)

Wing Length

c)

Amount of time it takes the helicopter to hit the floor

d)

Dropping from the same height

51.
Mrs. Ahlers set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. What is the dependent variable?
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Where the experiment took place.
52.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

the thing changed on purpose in the experiment

b)

an explanation about what you observed

c)

using your 5 senses to gather data

d)

an educated guess about the outcome of an experiment

53.

What two words should be in your hypothesis?

a)

I think

b)

If ...then...

c)

It will

d)

No idea

54.

When is a hypothesis written?

a)

before you decide on a question

b)

after the experiment

c)

before the experiment

d)

after the conclusion

55.

Choose the correctly written hypothesis for "What is the effect of putting Pam Cooking Spray on the bottom of a sled?"

a)

I think the sled will slide faster.

b)

If I put Pam Cooking Spray on the bottom of my sled, then I will win the race."

c)

If I put Pam Cooking Spray on the bottom of my sled, then I will slide faster.

56.
A claim is ______________________________.
a)
a kind of shellfish often used in chowder. 
b)
a fact.
c)
a statement or conclusion that answers the original question or problem
d)
a bad thing to make about something.
57.
Evidence is ___________________
a)
A statement or conclusion that answers a question
b)
Scientific data that supports the claim
c)
A justification that connects the claim to the evidence
d)
Not vital when using an argument
58.
Reasoning is __________________.
a)
A statement of conclusion that answers the original question/problem
b)
Scientific data that supports the claim
c)
A justification that connects the evidence to the claim
d)
Empirical Evidence
59.
According to the American Health Association, peanut butter is a great source of protein.
a)
Claim
b)
Evidence
60.
Air is matter. We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it. This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
Which sentence is the claim?
a)
Air is matter.
b)
We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it.
c)
This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
61.
Air is matter. We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it. This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
Which sentence is the evidence?
a)
Air is matter.
b)
We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it.
c)
This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
62.
Air is matter. We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it. This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
Which sentence is the reasoning?
a)
Air is matter.
b)
We found that the weight of the ball increases by .5lbs each time we pumped more air into it
c)
This shows that air has weight, one of the characteristics of matter.
63.
"Sleepy students are more likely to be tardy, absent, inattentive in the morning and less able to learn" is an example of:
a)
Claim
b)
Reasoning
c)
Evidence
d)
None of these
64.

Inductive Reasoning means...

a)

Guessing without any information

b)

Testing and observing patterns to make conjectures

c)

Drawing conclusions from situations based on facts and definitions

d)

Sounding knowledgeable even when you are not

65.

Deductive reasoning means...

a)

Guessing without any information

b)

Sounding knowledgeable even when you are not

c)

Testing and observing patterns to make conjectures

d)

Drawing conclusions from situations based on facts and definitions

66.
IF 3...6...9...12...
AND 24...27...30...?
THEN the next term is going to be 33
a)
Inductive
b)
Deductive
67.
All observed houses on South Street have roofs that are falling apart.  Sherry lives on South Street.  Her roof is falling apart. 
a)
Deductive
b)
Inductive
68.
It is dangerous to drive on icy streets.  The streets are icy now so it is dangerous to drive now. 
a)
Deductive
b)
Inductive
69.
All bears are mammals, all mammals have kidneys; therefore all bears have kidneys. 
a)
Deductive
b)
Inductive
70.

When you use your 5 senses to gather information, you are making a/an

a)

Observation

b)

Inference

c)

Scientific Wondering

71.

These kind of observations are made using instruments such as rulers, balances and thermometers

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

c)

Scientific

72.

These type of observations are described, not measured.

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

73.

Why is it important to have a control group in an experiment?

a)

To ensure the experiment can be done more quickly

b)

To have a group that receives all the treatments

c)

To provide a standard of comparison for checking the effect of the treatment

d)

To increase the sample size of the experiment

74.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of conducting experiments?

a)

To prove a hypothesis beyond any doubt

b)

To test the validity of a hypothesis

c)

To demonstrate the researcher's expertise in the field

d)

To gather data unrelated to the hypothesis

75.

What is the role of data analysis in scientific research?

a)

To make the data look more appealing in presentations

b)

To confirm the researcher's personal beliefs

c)

To draw conclusions based on the data collected from experiments

d)

To choose which data to ignore

76.

How can the validity of scientific conclusions be evaluated?

a)

By the number of experiments conducted

b)

Through peer review and replication of results

c)

Based on the complexity of the experiments

d)

By the reputation of the scientists involved

77.

Why is it important to communicate scientific findings?

a)

To gain fame and recognition

b)

To fulfill funding requirements

c)

To contribute to the body of scientific knowledge and inform future research

d)

To ensure the research is not forgotten

78.
Which statement best describes the process of evolution?
a)
Populations can survive in different locations on earth
b)
Environmental conditions limit the number of species on Earth
c)
Populations grow when resources are abundant
d)
The traits of a species can change over time
79.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
80.
Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation. 
d)
 fitness.
81.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
82.

Which statement best describes Natural selection?

a)

The best adapted organisms survive and reproduce.

b)

There are a set amount of organisms.

c)

Organisms only change through genetic engineering.

d)

Organisms slowly adapt to their surroundings over a lifetime.

83.

What is the mechanism by which species adapt to their environment in order to survive?

a)

artificial selection

b)

natural selection

c)

development

84.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
85.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
86.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

87.

Identify the observation that supports the following conclusion of the theory of natural selection: "Small variations within species can confer advantages to certain individuals that allow them to survive & reproduce"

a)

Monkeys and orangutans are found on Borneo, while other islands are home to tree kangaroos but no monkeys.

b)

Individuals within a given species are not exactly alike.

c)

Animals have distinct geographic ranges, but more similar species tend to live closer to each other.

d)

Fossils of extinct animals turn up where similar animals live today.

88.

MRSA stands for Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

a)

True

b)

False

89.

A patient has a severe bacterial infection. Within a few weeks of treatment with an antibiotic, the bacterial population consists entirely of antibiotic-reisstant bacteria. How can this outcome most likely be explained?

a)

The bacteria began reproducing at a faster rate than before the antibiotic treatment.

b)

A small population of antibiotic-resistant bacteria were present before the treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.

c)

The antibiotic caused a mutation in the bacteria's DNA.

d)

The antibiotic created resistance in the bacteria, and the bacteria are passing the resistance to one another.

90.

Rhinoceroses and horses are related. They have very similar digestive systems and an odd number of toes on their feet. Horses have on toe, and rhinoceroses have three. These facts best support which claim?

a)

Horses and rhinos share a common ancestor.

b)

Horses and rhinos are genetically identical.

c)

Horese are the ancestors of modern rhinos.

d)

Horses have descended from modern rhinos.

91.

Which would most likley be biochemical evidence of evolution?

a)

Digestion in all organisms follows a very similar pathway.

b)

Humans, whales, and bats have similar looking forelimbs.

c)

Fish, birds, rabbit, and human embryos all have gill slits and tails.

d)

Chimpanzees and humans have a similar gene for producing hemoglobin.

92.

The three species pictured do not share a common ancestor, yet have evolved to have a similar anatomy and life style. This is an example of ?

a)

Homologous Structures

b)

Divergent Evolution

c)

Vestigial Organs

d)

Convergent Evolution

93.

The three species pictured share a common ancestor and have adapted so that each lives in a different environment. This is an example of

a)

Law of Superposition

b)

Evolutionary Arms Race

c)

Divergent Evolution

d)

Convergent Evolution

94.

By what mechanism did the anoles on Puerto Rico diverge to occupy species specific niches?

a)

Adaptive Radiation

b)

Artificial Selection

c)

Stabilizing Natural Selection

d)

Coevolution

95.

In the ocean surrounding Antarctica, there are fish that survive the cold water by using a molecule made of glycoproteins that circulates the blood and keeps it from freezing. Certain kinds of worms that live in the Arctic ocean also make antifreeze proteins that help them live in icy water. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

96.

Ants are the correct size and weight needed to open the flowers for the peony plant. The peony plant provides food for the ant and the ant fertilizes the peony’s flowers. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

97.

The Galloti atlantica and Galloti galloti lizards evolved through natural selection from a common ancestor into a wide variety of different looking lizards. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

98.

Ostriches (birds) and giraffes (mammals) are both native to the savannahs of Africa. They share the same characteristic of a very long neck. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

99.

The Galápagos finches evolved through natural selection from a common ancestor into a wide variety of different looking species. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

100.

Bees don’t see red, but do see yellow, blue, and ultra-violet light. Thus, bee-pollinated flowers are mostly yellow or blue with UV nectar guides (landing patterns) to guide the bee. They usually have a small, narrow floral tube to fit the tongue-length of that species of bee. Identify the type of evolution: Convergent, Divergent, or Coevolution.

(a)  

101.

Match the image with the correct pattern of evolution

a)

1.

divergent evolution

b)

2.

coevolution

c)

3.

convergent evolution

102.

Match the image with the correct pattern of evolution.

a)

1.

convergent evolution

b)

2.

divergent evolution

c)

3.

coevolution

103.
What does Evidence mean? 
a)
All scientific data that supports your claim
b)
An opinion
c)
Statement you believe to be true
d)
A statement of an opposing argument
104.
What does Reasoning mean?
a)
A solid and reasonable argument
b)
A written response to a claim
c)
An explanation that connects your evidence back to the claim
d)
An opinion you believe in 
105.
What is the best definition for claim? 
a)
A statement you believe to be false. 
b)
A statement you believe to be true. 
c)
Evidence that proves something right. 
106.
These kind of observation use your senses to observe results.
a)
Qualitative
b)
Quantitative
c)
Scientific
107.
These kind of observations are made using instruments such as rulers, balances and thermometers.
a)
Qualitative
b)
Quantitative
c)
Scientific
108.

What is the purpose of sending Perseverance to the red planet?

a)

To get closer to Jupiter

b)

To communicate with aliens

c)

To build a space station

d)

To look for signs of ancient (past) life

109.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
110.

How many bonds will a C atom form?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

111.

In the CHNOPS abbreviation, what does the N stand for?

a)

Nickel

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Nitrous Oxide

d)

Neon

112.

In CHNOPS, what does the P stand for?

a)

Potassium

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Platinum

d)

Polonium

113.

In CHNOPS, what does the O stand for?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Orphium

c)

Oganesson

d)

Optium

114.

In CHNOPS, what does the S stand for?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Strontium

c)

Silicon

d)

Selenium

115.

In CHNOPS, what does the H stand for?

a)

Helium

b)

Hafnium

c)

Hassium

d)

Hydrogen

116.
What are the building blocks of MATTER?
a)
Atoms
b)
Cells
c)
Protons
d)
Neutrons
117.
What are the positively charged particles in an atom?
a)
Protons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Electrons
118.
Electrons have what charge?
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
Neutral
 (No Charge)
119.

Stimulus is

a)

organisms that are made up of more than one cell

b)

a membrane-covered structure that contains all of the materials necessary for life.

c)

a change that affects the activity of an organism.

d)

the maintenance of a stable internal environment.

120.
When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
121.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
122.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
123.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)
All living things contain cells
b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things grow
124.
The roots of a plant grow towards a source of ground water.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things reproduce
c)
All living things respond to their environment
d)
All living things grow
125.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
126.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
127.

Which of the following is an example of homeostasis?

a)

adapting to your environment

b)

maintaining an appropriate respiration rate

c)

the sum of all of your chemical reactions

d)

being composed of more than one cell

128.

The sum of all the chemical reactions in your body?

a)

organization

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

evolution

129.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

130.

Living things are based on a universal genetic code. What molecule is responsible for that code?

a)

RNA

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

DNA

131.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
132.

In order for something to be considered a living organism, it must display _____ of the nine characteristics of living things.

a)
one
b)
some
c)
all
d)
more than half
133.

Which of the following lists the biological levels of organization in order from smallest to largest?

a)

molecule

cell

organ

organ system

tissue

organism

community

biome

ecosystem

population

biosphere

b)

molecule

cell

tissue

organ

organ system

organism

population

community

ecosystem

biome

biosphere

c)

cell

molecule

tissue

organ

organ system

organism

biosphere

biome

population

community

ecosystem

d)

cell

molecule

organism

organ system

organ

tissue

population

ecosystem

community

biome

biosphere

134.
all matter is made of what 
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
135.
The positive particles of an atom are 
a)
electrons 
b)
positrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
136.
the central region of an atom where its neutrons and protons are is its 
a)
nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
core 
d)
center 
137.
an atom with atomic number 6 would have how many protons 
a)
6
b)
12
c)
3
d)
cannot be determined 
138.
Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are 
a)
negatrons 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
protons 
139.
Carbon is considered an element while carbon dioxide is considered a compound. This is because carbon dioxide is –
a)
a gas at room temperature.
b)
made of two different elements.
c)
given off by green plants.
d)
useful to human beings.
140.
How many protons does this atom have?
a)
2.5
b)
6
c)
5
d)
10.811
141.
What part of the atom is the arrow pointing to?
a)
nucleus
b)
proton
c)
electron shell
d)
electron
142.
If the number of protons equal the number of _____, the atom will have no charge
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
nucleus
143.
Which of the following represents an element?
a)
H2O
b)
H2
c)
NaCl
d)
CaCO3
144.
A combination of substances that are not chemically combined is called a(n)____________. 
a)
mixture
b)
compound
c)
physical
145.
An element is made up of only one kind of _____.
a)
isotope
b)
plastic
c)
atom
d)
metal
146.
What subatomic particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons only
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
d)
Protons and Electrons 
147.
What subatomic particle(s) would be found orbiting the nucleus?
a)
Neutrons only
b)
Electrons only
c)
Protons and Neutrons
d)
Protons and Electrons
148.
What are the 3 subatomic particles that make-up the atom?
a)
protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b)
neutrons, isotopes, and electrons
c)
positives, negatives, and electrons
d)
protons, neutrons, and electrons
149.

What is matter?

a)

Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.

b)

Matter is a type of energy.

c)

Matter is a form of light.

d)

Matter is a type of sound.

150.

Which of the following is NOT a state of matter?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Light

151.

Label the 3 states of matter shown here

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
152.
How are covalent bonds formed?
a)
Sharing of electrons
b)
Transfer of electrons
153.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
154.

Which bond involves an unequal sharing of electrons?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Nonpolar covalent bond

c)

Polar covalent bond

d)

Metallic bond

155.

If sodium and oxygen formed a bond, it would be classified as --

a)

polar covalent

b)

nonpolar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

156.

Which electrons are involved in a chemical bond?

a)

Valence electrons

b)

Inner shell electrons

c)

Electrons are not involved in bonding

157.

__________ bonds involve an unequal sharing of electrons, while __________ bonds involve an equal sharing of electrons.

a)

Nonpolar, polar

b)

Polar, metallic

c)

Metallic, nonpolar

d)

Polar, nonpolar

158.

The difference in electronegativity affects the type of bond will be formed. What type of bond would be formed with a difference of 0.8?

a)

Nonpolar Covalent

b)

Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

159.

True or False: The smaller the difference in electronegativity, the more polar the bond

a)

True

b)

False

160.

If carbon forms a covalent bond with chlorine, which end of the bond will be partially negative?

a)

the carbon end

b)

the chlorine end

161.
In this Lewis structure, the symbol above F means...
a)
electrons are being transferred to Fluorine
b)
electrons are less attracted to F than H
c)
electrons are more attracted to F than H
d)
Fluorine has formed a cation
162.

How do nonpolar covalent bonds differ from polar covalent bonds?

a)

Nonpolar bonds have a partial positive charge

b)

Nonpolar bonds have a buildup of electrons

c)

Nonpolar bonds have equal sharing of electrons

d)

Nonpolar bonds have no charge

163.

Classify the following molecule.

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

164.

Classify the following molecule.

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

165.

Is the following molecule polar or nonpolar?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

166.

Why is the molecule polar?

a)

There is a nonbonding pair on the central atom.

b)

There are different types of elements bonded to the central atom.

c)

There are no nonbonding pairs on the central atom and all of the atoms bonded to the central atom are the same.

167.

Use your knowledge and electronegativity sheet to predict what the following compound is classified as.

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

168.

Use your knowledge and electronegativity sheet to predict what the following compound is classified as.

a)

non-polar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

metallic

169.

In a polar covalent bond, electrons are shared:

a)

equally

b)

unequally

c)

between two metals

d)

between a metal and a non-metal

170.
In chemical compounds, covalent bonds form when
a)
the electronegativity difference between two atoms is very large.
b)
electrons are completely transferred between two metals.
c)
pairs of electrons are shared between two nonmetal atoms.
d)
two nonmetal atoms are attracted to each other by opposite charges.
171.
The number of _____ is most important in determining how an atoms will bond. 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Valence Electrons
d)
Electron sin the innermost shell
172.
If an oxygen atom has 8 protons (+) and 10 electrons (-), what is it's charge?
a)
O10-
b)
O8+
c)
O2-
d)
O10+
173.

What type of bond is found BETWEEN water molecules?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

Polar covalent bonds

174.

Surface tension of water is the cohesive force between water molecules and other molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

175.

Cohesive force between water molecules and adhesive force between water molecules and other molecules enable this phenomenon to occur.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Capillary action

c)

Float on water

d)

Photosynthesis

176.

Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?

a)

The hydrogen end

b)

The oxygen end

c)

Both ends are slightly positive

d)

Neither end is positive

177.

What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Capillary action

d)

Surface tension

178.

When water molecules stick easily to other water molecules, this is called what?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Solution

d)

Polar molecule

179.

Water beads up on the surface of a penny because of what property?

a)

Adhesion

b)

High surface tension

c)

Universal solvent

d)

Changes in density

180.

The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid form is _____________ than its liquid form.

a)

Less polar

b)

More polar

c)

Less dense

d)

More dense

181.

The tightness across the surface of water that enables insects to walk on it is

a)

Adhesion

b)

Capillary action

c)

Surface tension

d)

Polarity

182.

Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?

a)

Both sides are negative

b)

One side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge

c)

One side has a negative charge and the other side has a neutral charge

d)

Both sides are positive

183.

Large bodies of water help to keep nearby climates from being too hot or too cold because they

a)

Absorb heat in the spring and slowly release that heat in the fall

b)

Absorb heat in the fall and slowly release that heat in the spring

c)

Absorb heat in the summer and slowly release that heat in the winter

d)

Absorb heat in the winter and slowly release that heat in the summer

184.

A material is hydrophobic, that means it...

a)

Doesn't mix with water or dissolve in water easily

b)

Mixes with water or dissolves in water easily

185.
Water molecules require a lot of energy to break the hydrogen bonds.  This gives water a high
a)
density
b)
polarity
c)
solvency
d)
specific heat
186.
Some insects can stand on the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, but they do not break the surface. Why?
a)
The insects are light enough so they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water’s surface and they only skim it with their feet.
c)
The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water’s surface.
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
187.

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

a)

nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

b)

nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules

c)

polar substances that repel water molecules

d)

ar substances that have an affinity for water.

e)

charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

188.

Because of the unique properties of water associated with hydrogen bonding, water evaporates from pores on the leaves of plants and draws water molecules in a continuous chain from the roots up through the vascular tissues of plants. Which of these groups of terms describes the process and the properties of water that explain this?

a)

adhesion, cohesion, and translocation

b)

adhesion, cohesion, and transcription

c)

cohesion, adhesion, and transpiration

d)

cohesion, hybridization, and transpiration

189.
The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid is ___________ than it's liquid form
a)
less polar
b)
more polar
c)
less dense
d)
more dense
190.
Large bodies of water do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. Why?
a)
Water is a solvent.
b)
Water has a high heat capacity.
c)
Water acts as a buffer.
d)
Water is non-polar.
191.
 Many fish and aquatic plants can survive a cold winter because the layer of ice that forms at the top of the lake insulates the water below and prevents the lake from freezing solid. What unique property of water contributes to this effect? 
a)
Water absorbs heat when it evaporates and forms a gas 
b)
 Water expands and becomes less dense when it freezes.
c)
Water molecules completely separate into ions in solutions.
d)
 Water forms hydrogen bonds with ions and other polar substances. 
192.

For a solution, pH + pOH =

a)

7

b)

14

c)

1.0 x 10-14

d)

-log (1.0 x 10 -14)

193.

If the pH of a solution is 4.0, what is the pOH?

a)

4.0

b)

10.0

c)

1.0 x 10 -4

d)

cannot be determined from the information

194.
If the pH of a solution is 5 the [H+] is
a)
1.0 x 105  M
b)
1.0 x 109  M
c)
5.0 x 101  M
d)
1.0 x 10-5  M
195.

What is the pOH of a solution where the [OH-] is 1.0 x 10-11?

a)

11

b)

13

c)

14

d)

1

196.

What does pH measure?

a)

the amount of hydrogen (H+) ions

b)

the amount of hydroxide (OH-) ions

c)

amount of water

d)

all of the above

197.

Neutral solutions have a pH of

a)

pH of 2

b)

pH of 0

c)

pH of 7

d)

A neutral solution does not have a pH

198.

A base is a substance

a)

That releases OH- ions when dissolved in water

b)

That releases H+ ions when dissolved in water

c)

Does not release any ions when dissolved in water

d)

None of the above

199.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
200.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water

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