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Science 6 Final Exam

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 2hrs 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which lab equipment is made of porcelain so it can withstand high temperature when heated?

a)

beaker

b)

crucible and cover

c)

petri dish

d)

thermometer

2.

Which term describes data that is drastically different from the rest of the data?

a)

average

b)

graph

c)

outlier

d)

variable

3.

Which is the center and largest celestial body in our solar system?

a)

asteroid

b)

comet

c)

Jupiter

d)

Sun

4.

Which color of the star has the lowest temperature?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

white

d)

yellow

5.

What solar feature appears as dark areas on the sun’s surface?

a)

coronal mass ejections

b)

prominences

c)

solar flares

d)

sunspots

6.

Which is the correct arrangement of Earth’s specific location in the Universe?

a)

Orion Arm à Solar System à Local Group à Milky Way à Virgo Supercluster

b)

Milky Way à Virgo Supercluster à Solar System à Orion Arm à Local Group

c)

Solar System à Orion Arm à Milky Way à Local Group à Virgo Supercluster

d)

Virgo Supercluster à Orion Arm à Local Group à Solar System à Milky Way

7.

How long is one lunar cycle?

a)

21 days

b)

24 days

c)

28 days

d)

31 days

8.

If Northern Hemisphere experiences autumn, what is the season in the southern hemisphere?

a)

autumn

b)

spring

c)

summer

d)

winter

9.

Which is the earliest era on the geologic time scale?

a)

Archean

b)

Hadean

c)

Phanerozoic

d)

Proterozoic

10.

Which era is also called the Age of Mammals?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Phanerozoic

11.

Why is Cambrian explosion a significant event in geologic history?

a)

Many organisms have gone extinct during this period

b)

Many organisms have rapidly evolved during this period

c)

Many organisms have remained the same throughout this period

d)

Many organisms have migrated to another place during this period

12.

What happens during a mass extinction?

a)

There is a rapid destruction of habitat

b)

There is a sharp spike in the birth of new species

c)

There is a sharp spike in the extinction of species

d)

There is a rapid growth in organisms’ populations

13.

Which among the following landmasses were formed when two continental plates collide?

a)

San Andreas Fault

b)

Mariana Trench

c)

Himalayas Mountain Ranges

d)

The Red Sea

14.

According to Alfred Wegener, which among the following is the cause of the movement and drifting of continents toward and apart from each other?

a)

Earth’s rotation

b)

Heat transfer

c)

Movement of tectonic plates

d)

None of the above

15.

Which agent of erosion usually results in avalanche and landslide?

a)

gravity

b)

ice

c)

water

d)

wind

16.

Which correctly describes accumulation during water cycle?

a)

The water vapor collects and form clouds filled with water droplets.

b)

The clouds become heavier and eventually pours down as rain or snow.

c)

The sun heats up the ocean causing the liquid water to change into gas.

d)

The water flows on the land and eventually collects in different bodies of water.

17.

In which of the following is freshwater mostly confined?

a)

glaciers and ice caps

b)

groundwater

c)

lakes

d)

river

18.

Which statement is true about a weather hazard?

a)

A weather hazard cannot be predicted.

b)

A weather hazard always results in a long-term effect.

c)

A weather hazard has a potential to cause harm or damage.

d)

A weather hazard may bring economic growth to a country.

19.

Which of the following is not an example of point source pollution?

a)

water runoff from residential lawns

b)

oil that is escaping from a damaged tanker

c)

heavy metals that are leaching out of an underground mine

d)

untreated sewage that is accidentally released from a wastewater treatment plant

20.

Why is ground-level ozone considered as a “bad” ozone?

a)

It regulates global air temperature.

b)

It releases greenhouse gases back to the space.

c)

It acts as the main ingredient in smog formation.

d)

It shields us from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays.

21.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the statement adheres to the laboratory safety rule. Otherwise, put a cross (û). 1. Use dirty, chipped, or broken glassware when experimenting in the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the statement adheres to the laboratory safety rule. Otherwise, put a cross (û). Return used chemicals back to their containers.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the statement adheres to the laboratory safety rule. Otherwise, put a cross (û). 3. Notify teacher immediately if there’s any accident in the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the statement adheres to the laboratory safety rule. Otherwise, put a cross (û). 4. Do not sniff or taste chemical.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the statement adheres to the laboratory safety rule. Otherwise, put a cross (û). 5. Use beaker as a drinking glass inside the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Be familiarized with the safety equipment inside the lab.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Always keep the lab clean in consideration for the next user.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Once the experiment is done, mix leftover chemicals to easily dispose them. Is this statement correct?

a)

No, this statement is incorrect. Leftover chemicals should not be mixed for disposal unless instructed by proper safety guidelines.

b)

Yes, mixing leftover chemicals is always the safest way to dispose them.

c)

It is acceptable to mix chemicals if they are in small quantities.

d)

Mixing chemicals after experiments is recommended for faster cleanup.

29.

C. Arrange the steps in performing the laboratory procedure. Write the correct number of steps on the blank. Measuring Mass Using a Triple Beam Balance: How many steps are there in the procedure?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

8

d)

5

30.

On the blank, put a check (ü) if the description matches the given celestial body.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

III. Our Solar System A. On the blank, put a check (ü) if the description matches the given celestial body. 2. Mercury: The hottest planet in the solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

III. Our Solar System A. On the blank, put a check (ü) if the description matches the given celestial body. 3. Venus: The Earth's twin planet.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Our Solar System: On the blank, put a check (ü) if the description matches the given celestial body. Earth: The only planet where life exists.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

III. Our Solar System A. On the blank, put a check (ü) if the description matches the given celestial body. 5. Mars: The Red Planet.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Saturn: The spinning giant gas.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

8. Uranus: A miniature solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Neptune: The coldest planet in the solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Pluto: The biggest asteroid in the solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. Fill in the blank for the first stage.

a)

Nebula

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Red Giant

d)

Supernova

41.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. Fill in the blank for the second stage.

a)

Protostar

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Supernova

d)

Neutron Star

42.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. What is the third stage?

a)

Main Sequence Star

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Red Giant

d)

Neutron Star

43.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. Fill in the blank for the fourth stage.

a)

Red Giant

b)

White Dwarf

c)

Neutron Star

d)

Black Hole

44.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. Fill in the blank for the fifth stage.

a)

Planetary Nebula

b)

Red Giant

c)

Main Sequence

d)

White Dwarf

45.

Label the diagram to show the complete stages of the life cycle of a medium-sized star. Fill in the blank for the sixth stage.

a)

White Dwarf

b)

Red Giant

c)

Neutron Star

d)

Black Hole

46.

Refer to the diagram of the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram showing star categories, luminosity, and temperature. What characteristic of sun is plotted on the:

a)

a. x-axis: Temperature (Kelvin) / Stellar Classification b. y-axis: Luminosity (Sun = 1)

b)

a. x-axis: Age (Million Years) b. y-axis: Distance from Earth (Light Years)

c)

a. x-axis: Mass (Solar Masses) b. y-axis: Radius (Solar Radii)

d)

a. x-axis: Apparent Magnitude b. y-axis: Surface Gravity

47.

In which category does the sun belong?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Red Giant

c)

White Dwarf

d)

Neutron Star

48.

What happens to the luminosity of stars as the surface temperatures increase?

a)

The luminosity of stars generally increases as the surface temperature increases (for main sequence stars).

b)

The luminosity of stars generally decreases as the surface temperature increases (for main sequence stars).

c)

The luminosity of stars remains constant as the surface temperature increases (for main sequence stars).

d)

The luminosity of stars fluctuates randomly as the surface temperature increases (for main sequence stars).

49.

To what category do Betelgeuse and Antares belong?

a)

Supergiants

b)

White dwarfs

c)

Neutron stars

d)

Main sequence stars

50.

How will you describe the temperature of white dwarf stars?

a)

White dwarf stars have high surface temperatures.

b)

White dwarf stars have low surface temperatures.

c)

White dwarf stars have moderate surface temperatures.

d)

White dwarf stars have variable surface temperatures.

51.

To what category does Arcturus belong?

(a)  

52.

Label the seasons in both Northern and Southern Hemispheres. (Refer to the diagram showing Earth's orbit around the Sun with four positions labeled N and S. Fill in the boxes with the correct seasons for each hemisphere.)

a)

Northern Hemisphere: Spring, Summer, Fall, Winter; Southern Hemisphere: Fall, Winter, Spring, Summer (order depends on position in orbit)

b)

Northern Hemisphere: Summer, Fall, Winter, Spring; Southern Hemisphere: Winter, Spring, Summer, Fall (order depends on position in orbit)

c)

Northern Hemisphere: Fall, Winter, Spring, Summer; Southern Hemisphere: Spring, Summer, Fall, Winter (order depends on position in orbit)

d)

Northern Hemisphere: Winter, Spring, Summer, Fall; Southern Hemisphere: Summer, Fall, Winter, Spring (order depends on position in orbit)

53.

Label the types of solar eclipse. Then, describe each type.

a)

Total Solar Eclipse: The Moon completely covers the Sun. Partial Solar Eclipse: The Moon covers part of the Sun. Annular Solar Eclipse: The Moon covers the center of the Sun, leaving a ring-like appearance.

b)

Total Solar Eclipse: The Moon partially covers the Sun. Partial Solar Eclipse: The Moon completely covers the Sun. Annular Solar Eclipse: The Moon is not visible at all.

c)

Total Solar Eclipse: The Sun covers the Moon. Partial Solar Eclipse: The Sun covers part of the Moon. Annular Solar Eclipse: The Sun is completely blocked by the Moon.

d)

Total Solar Eclipse: The Moon covers the Sun, leaving a ring. Partial Solar Eclipse: The Moon is not visible. Annular Solar Eclipse: The Moon completely covers the Sun.

54.

Foucault’s pendulum experiment proves that Earth is rotating and not stationary because:

a)

The pendulum swings in a fixed direction while the Earth rotates beneath it.

b)

The pendulum changes its length as Earth rotates.

c)

The pendulum stops swinging when Earth rotates.

d)

The pendulum swings faster as Earth rotates.

55.

Why does Earth’s revolution speed vary as it changes its distance from the sun?

a)

Because of the changing gravitational force between Earth and the Sun

b)

Because Earth's mass changes during revolution

c)

Because the Sun's mass changes during the year

d)

Because Earth's axis is tilted

56.

Axial tilt is one of the main reasons for seasons because:

a)

it causes different parts of Earth to receive varying amounts of sunlight throughout the year.

b)

it changes the distance between the Earth and the Sun.

c)

it affects the speed of Earth's rotation.

d)

it causes the Moon to orbit the Earth.

57.

On the blank, write true if the statement is true. Otherwise, change the underlined word/s to make each statement true. 1. Paleontology is the science that deals with the study of Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

On the blank, write true if the statement is true. Otherwise, change the underlined word/s to make each statement true. 2. Fossils are the remains of prehistoric organisms or other evidence of prehistoric life.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

On the blank, write true if the statement is true. Otherwise, change the underlined word/s to make each statement true. 3. Fossilization is a very common occurrence due to the presence of scavengers and decomposers.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

On the blank, write true if the statement is true. Otherwise, change the underlined word/s to make each statement true. 4. Petrified fossils are formed when minerals replace the structure of an organism.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

On the blank, write true if the statement is true. Otherwise, change the underlined word/s to make each statement true. 5. A cast is an imprint left by the shell on the rock that surrounded it.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Preserved fossil is also known as a ________ fossil as it remains intact or nearly intact during fossilization.

a)

true form

b)

trace

c)

cast

d)

mold

63.

The fossil and the order in which fossils appear comprises the ________.

a)

fossil record

b)

geological scale

c)

evolutionary tree

d)

carbon cycle

64.

The fossil record provides ________ by revealing the features of an ancestor for comparison against living descendants.

a)

evidence

b)

confusion

c)

contradiction

d)

ignorance

65.

________ fossils provide evidence that organisms may have transitioned from one form to another.

a)

Trace

b)

Index

c)

Mold

d)

Cast

66.

Fossils can show structural similarities and differences in organisms overtime, revealing the vast ________ of life form on Earth.

a)

diversity

b)

simplicity

c)

scarcity

d)

uniformity

67.

In which layer of rocks are the oldest fossils found?

a)

Top layer

b)

Middle layer

c)

Bottom layer

d)

Surface layer

68.

In which layer of rocks are the newest fossils discovered?

a)

Topmost layer

b)

Middle layer

c)

Bottom layer

d)

All layers

69.

Based on the diagram, how do scientists determine the age of the fossils?

a)

By comparing the layers of rock in which the fossils are found

b)

By measuring the size of the fossils

c)

By observing the color of the fossils

d)

By counting the number of fossils in each layer

70.

Explain what fossil succession is based on the given diagram.

a)

Fossil succession is the principle that fossil organisms succeed one another in a definite and recognizable order.

b)

Fossil succession is the process by which fossils are formed from living organisms.

c)

Fossil succession refers to the age of rocks determined by radioactive dating.

d)

Fossil succession is the study of how fossils are preserved in amber.

71.

What type of fault is shown in the first diagram (top left)?

a)

Normal fault

b)

Reverse fault

c)

Strike-slip fault

d)

Thrust fault

72.

What type of fault is shown in the second diagram (top right)?

a)

Reverse fault

b)

Normal fault

c)

Strike-slip fault

d)

Oblique-slip fault

73.

What type of fault is shown in the third diagram (bottom left)?

4 lines
74.

What type of fault is shown in the fourth diagram (bottom right)?

a)

Oblique-slip fault

b)

Normal fault

c)

Reverse fault

d)

Strike-slip fault

75.

Which of the following correctly matches the movement and associated geological features of Divergent, Transform, and Convergent plate boundaries?

a)

Divergent: plates move apart, mid-ocean ridges; Transform: plates slide past, earthquakes; Convergent: plates move together, mountains/trenches.

b)

Divergent: plates move together, earthquakes; Transform: plates move apart, volcanoes; Convergent: plates slide past, mid-ocean ridges.

c)

Divergent: plates slide past, mountains; Transform: plates move together, trenches; Convergent: plates move apart, volcanoes.

d)

Divergent: plates move together, trenches; Transform: plates move apart, mountains; Convergent: plates slide past, earthquakes.

76.

Supply the missing information to complete the nitrogen cycle diagram below. Choose from the words inside the box. (Note: Some answers may be repeated) Word bank: ammonification, ammonium, assimilation, decomposers, denitrification, denitrifying bacteria, nitrogen in air, nitrates, nitrites, nitrification, nitrifying bacteria, plants, nitrogen-fixing soil bacteria, nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules of legumes.

a)

Answers will vary depending on the specific blanks in the diagram, but should be selected from the provided word bank.

b)

Answers should be selected from outside the provided word bank.

c)

The diagram should be completed using only the terms 'photosynthesis' and 'respiration'.

d)

Only use the terms 'carbon dioxide' and 'oxygen' to fill in the blanks.

77.

Fill in the blank for the top left label in the nutrient cycle diagram.

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

78.

Fill in the blank for the top right label in the nutrient cycle diagram.

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Decomposer

d)

Soil

79.

Fill in the blank for the animal in the nutrient cycle diagram.

a)

Animal

b)

Plant

c)

Fungi

d)

Bacteria

80.

Fill in the blank for the process involving aerobic and anaerobic bacteria and fungi in the nutrient cycle diagram.

a)

Decomposition

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Transpiration

d)

Respiration

81.

Fill in the blank for the process where nutrients are absorbed by plant roots in the nutrient cycle diagram.

a)

Absorption

b)

Transpiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Respiration

82.

Which of the following best describes the processes involved in the rock cycle?

a)

Melting, cooling, weathering, erosion, compaction, cementation, heat and pressure

b)

Photosynthesis, respiration, transpiration, evaporation

c)

Condensation, precipitation, infiltration, runoff

d)

Diffusion, osmosis, active transport, endocytosis

83.

Fill in the description for the following process: Weathering and Erosion.

a)

Weathering and erosion are processes that break down rocks and transport the particles to new locations.

b)

Weathering and erosion are processes that form new rocks from molten lava.

c)

Weathering and erosion are processes that increase the temperature of the Earth's core.

d)

Weathering and erosion are processes that create earthquakes and volcanoes.

84.

Fill in the description for the following process: Transport and Deposition.

4 lines
85.

Fill in the description for the following process: Compaction and Cementation.

4 lines
86.

Fill in the description for the following process: Metamorphism.

a)

Metamorphism is the process by which rocks are changed by heat, pressure, or chemical processes.

b)

Metamorphism is the process by which rocks are formed from magma cooling.

c)

Metamorphism is the process by which sediments are deposited in layers.

d)

Metamorphism is the process by which rocks are broken down by weathering and erosion.

87.

Fill in the description for the following process: Melting and Crystallization.

a)

Melting and crystallization involve the melting of rocks into magma and the cooling and solidification of magma into igneous rock.

b)

Melting and crystallization involve the breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces by weathering and erosion.

c)

Melting and crystallization involve the transformation of sediment into sedimentary rock through compaction and cementation.

d)

Melting and crystallization involve the alteration of rocks by heat and pressure without melting.

88.

Which of the following is NOT a process involved in the hydrologic cycle?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Precipitation

89.

Match the process 'Evaporation' with its correct description.

a)

The process by which water changes from a liquid to a gas or vapor, usually caused by the sun's heat.

b)

The process by which water changes from a gas to a liquid, usually forming clouds.

c)

The process by which plants absorb water through their roots and release it as vapor through their leaves.

d)

The process by which water moves downward through the soil, filtering into underground reservoirs.

90.

Match the process 'Precipitation' with its correct description.

a)

Any form of water, such as rain, snow, sleet, or hail, that falls from clouds to the Earth's surface.

b)

The process by which plants release water vapor into the air through their leaves.

c)

The process of water changing from a liquid to a gas or vapor.

d)

The movement of water from the surface into the ground.

91.

Match the process 'Infiltration' with its correct description.

a)

The process by which water on the ground surface enters the soil.

b)

The process by which plants release water vapor into the air.

c)

The process by which water changes from liquid to gas.

d)

The process by which water flows over the surface of the ground.

92.

Match the process 'Runoff' with its correct description.

a)

Water, usually from precipitation, that flows over the land surface and into bodies of water.

b)

The process by which plants absorb water through their roots.

c)

The evaporation of water from plant leaves into the atmosphere.

d)

The process of water seeping into the ground to become groundwater.

93.

Match the process 'Groundwater flow' with its correct description.

a)

The movement of water through the subsurface soil and rocks.

b)

The evaporation of water from plant leaves into the atmosphere.

c)

The process of water turning into vapor from the surface of lakes and rivers.

d)

The movement of water from clouds to the ground as precipitation.

94.

Sun’s heat energy drives the hydrologic cycle by:

a)

causing evaporation of water from Earth's surface

b)

increasing wind speed

c)

decreasing rainfall

d)

cooling the atmosphere

95.

Which planet is known as the 'Gas Giant'?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Earth

96.

What is the primary component of the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Hydrogen

97.

Which of the following is a laboratory safety rule?

a)

Use broken glassware for experiments.

b)

Leave spills unattended.

c)

Wear safety goggles when handling hazardous materials.

d)

Always taste chemicals to identify them.

98.

Which planet is known as the 'Red Planet'?

a)

Earth

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Jupiter

99.

What is the primary component of the Sun?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Helium

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon