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BB42 Vocabulary Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the process by which an organization's accounts and records are verified.

a)

Audit

b)

Budgeting

c)

Forecasting

d)

Recruitment

2.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a financial statement that captures the financial condition of the business at that particular moment (assets and liabilities).

a)

Balance sheets

b)

Income statements

c)

Cash flow statements

d)

Profit and loss accounts

3.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the process of determining the level at which revenues equal total costs.

a)

Break-even analysis

b)

Depreciation

c)

Budgeting

d)

Forecasting

4.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the process of determining the amount of cash a business has to work with at any given time.

a)

Cash flow analysis

b)

Inventory management

c)

Market segmentation

d)

Product development

5.

Fill in the blank: ________ are mechanisms used to monitor and regulate a task, activity, or performance while it is occurring.

a)

Concurrent controls

b)

Feedback controls

c)

Feedforward controls

d)

Corrective controls

6.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the management function that monitors the work effort.

a)

Controlling

b)

Planning

c)

Organizing

d)

Staffing

7.

Fill in the blank: ________ are mechanisms used to monitor and regulate a task, activity, or performance after it has already occurred.

a)

Feedback controls

b)

Feedforward controls

c)

Concurrent controls

d)

Preventive controls

8.

Fill in the blank: ________ are mechanisms used to monitor and regulate a task, activity, or performance before it occurs.

a)

Feedforward controls

b)

Concurrent controls

c)

Feedback controls

d)

Corrective controls

9.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the comparison of two numbers from a business's financial statement; used as a tool by businesses to see relationships between dollars, numbers, and percentages.

a)

Financial ratio

b)

Market share

c)

Gross income

d)

Asset turnover

10.

Fill in the blank: ________ are records that show a business's financial activities.

a)

Financial statements

b)

Invoices

c)

Receipts

d)

Budgets

11.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a promise made to the consumer that a product's purchase price will be refunded if the product is not satisfactory; often called a money-back guarantee.

a)

Guarantee

b)

Warranty

c)

Receipt

d)

Invoice

12.

Fill in the blank: ________ means to prompt another person to take some kind of action.

a)

Motivate

b)

Ignore

c)

Delay

d)

Confuse

13.

Fill in the blank: ________ is net profit divided by investment or the 'bottom line' on how successful an ad or campaign was in terms of what the returns (generally sales revenue) were for the money expended (invested).

a)

Return on investment (ROI)

b)

Gross margin

c)

Cost per impression (CPI)

d)

Click-through rate (CTR)

14.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the successful long-term management of an organization's financial, social, and environmental risks, opportunities, and obligations.

a)

Sustainability

b)

Profitability

c)

Liquidity

d)

Productivity

15.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the process of introducing a new product to a limited market to determine what its acceptance will be.

a)

Test marketing

b)

Market segmentation

c)

Product positioning

d)

Brand extension

16.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a promise made by the seller to the consumer that the seller will repair or replace a product that does not perform as expected.

a)

Warranty

b)

Invoice

c)

Receipt

d)

Discount

17.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the amount of goods or services produced by a business from a set amount of resources.

a)

Business productivity

b)

Business revenue

c)

Business capital

d)

Business liability

18.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the amount of money the business has invested in its goods and other property.

a)

Capital investment

b)

Revenue

c)

Liability

d)

Depreciation

19.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the edge achieved by businesses that offer something better than their competitors.

a)

Competitive advantage

b)

Market share

c)

Brand loyalty

d)

Cost leadership

20.

Fill in the blank: ________ is dividing a large job into units, or job tasks, and assigning an individual to do each of the tasks.

a)

Division of labor

b)

Job rotation

c)

Centralization

d)

Span of control

21.

Fill in the blank: ________ is accomplishing a task with a minimum expenditure of time and effort.

a)

Efficiency

b)

Accuracy

c)

Complexity

d)

Redundancy

22.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the ability to visualize, set, and focus on achieving business objectives.

a)

Goal setting

b)

Time management

c)

Delegation

d)

Resource allocation

23.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the final market value of the total outputs of all goods and services produced within a country's geographic boundaries during a year's time.

a)

Gross domestic product

b)

Net national product

c)

Personal income

d)

Disposable income

24.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the average productivity of individual workers calculated by dividing the gross domestic product by the worker hours required to produce it.

a)

Gross domestic product per capita

b)

Labor force participation rate

c)

Unemployment rate

d)

Consumer price index

25.

Fill in the blank: ________ is a rapid rise in prices that may occur when demand exceeds supply or when productivity declines and costs of labor go up.

a)

Inflation

b)

Deflation

c)

Stagnation

d)

Depreciation

26.

The specific economic resources used in producing goods and services are called ________.

a)

Inputs

b)

Outputs

c)

Profits

d)

Taxes

27.

Job preparation or induction training in which new employees are acquainted with their surroundings, receive general information about the company and its policies, and are given specific information about their jobs is called ________.

a)

Job orientation

b)

Job evaluation

c)

Job rotation

d)

Job enrichment

28.

The work people do or the workers themselves are referred to as ________.

a)

Labor

b)

Capital

c)

Profit

d)

Land

29.

The rapid production of large quantities of a product is known as ________.

a)

Mass production

b)

Batch processing

c)

Custom manufacturing

d)

Handcrafting

30.

Goals to be reached are called ________.

a)

Objectives

b)

Processes

c)

Schedules

d)

Budgets

31.

The goods or services produced as the result of combining inputs are called ________.

a)

Outputs

b)

Inputs

c)

Processes

d)

Resources

32.

The involvement of several individuals in making decisions; in business, the participation of employees in decisions to be made by management is called ________.

a)

Participative decision-making

b)

Autocratic leadership

c)

Centralized control

d)

Authoritarian management

33.

The amount and value of goods and services produced (outputs) from set amounts of resources (inputs) is called ________.

a)

Productivity

b)

Inflation

c)

Liquidity

d)

Depreciation

34.

The general conditions in which employees work is referred to as ________.

a)

Quality of work life

b)

Job rotation

c)

Workforce diversity

d)

Job enrichment

35.

A type of business that performs intangible activities that satisfy the wants of consumers or industrial users is called a ________.

a)

Service business

b)

Manufacturing business

c)

Retail business

d)

Agricultural business

36.

The process of making the best use of resources in the production of goods and services is called ________.

a)

Specialization

b)

Consumption

c)

Distribution

d)

Scarcity

37.

The general conditions in which people live; quality of life is referred to as ________.

a)

Standard of living

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Inflation Rate

d)

Unemployment Rate

38.

The organization of work so that it is always done in the same way is called ________.

a)

Standardization

b)

Delegation

c)

Centralization

d)

Diversification

39.

The general direction in which people or events are moving is called a ________.

a)

Trend

b)

Circle

c)

Puzzle

d)

Recipe

40.

The amount of work a worker can perform in a given period of time (e.g., customers served per hour) is called ________.

a)

Worker productivity

b)

Worker compensation

c)

Worker attendance

d)

Worker satisfaction

41.

The costs associated with inspecting and catching defective products as quickly as possible are called ________.

a)

Appraisal costs

b)

Prevention costs

c)

Internal failure costs

d)

External failure costs

42.

The confidence customers have that a service provider is trustworthy and knowledgeable is called ________.

a)

Assurance

b)

Empathy

c)

Tangibles

d)

Reliability

43.

Compliance with standards is called ________.

a)

Conformance

b)

Deviation

c)

Negligence

d)

Omission

44.

Not meeting predetermined standards is referred to as ________.

a)

Defective

b)

Efficient

c)

Standardized

d)

Optimized

45.

The measure of how long a product lasts is called ________.

a)

Durability

b)

Flexibility

c)

Portability

d)

Affordability

46.

The costs associated with defective products reaching customers are called ________.

a)

External failure costs

b)

Appraisal costs

c)

Prevention costs

d)

Internal failure costs

47.

The costs associated with catching defective products before they reach customers are called ________.

a)

Internal failure costs

b)

External failure costs

c)

Appraisal costs

d)

Prevention costs

48.

The costs associated with planning and implementing quality so that defective products aren't created are called ________.

a)

Prevention costs

b)

Appraisal costs

c)

Internal failure costs

d)

External failure costs

49.

The evaluation of a product based on excellence, value, conformance to specifications, and customer satisfaction is called ________.

a)

Quality

b)

Productivity

c)

Costing

d)

Marketing

50.

A process businesses use to prevent defective products from being created, not just to eliminate or correct them after they've already been produced is called ________.

a)

Quality assurance

b)

Inventory management

c)

Market research

d)

Product promotion

51.

A process businesses use to check for defects after products have been produced; also called quality inspection is known as ________.

a)

Quality control

b)

Inventory management

c)

Product marketing

d)

Supply chain analysis

52.

A business's ongoing commitment and willingness to make changes for the purpose of maintaining quality is called ________.

a)

Quality improvement

b)

Market expansion

c)

Cost reduction

d)

Product diversification

53.

The ongoing process of planning, implementing, and integrating quality into every aspect of an organization is called ________.

a)

Quality management

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Market analysis

d)

Resource allocation

54.

The measure of how well a product performs its purpose without breaking down is called ________.

a)

Reliability

b)

Durability

c)

Flexibility

d)

Affordability

55.

The level of promptness and willingness with which a service is provided is known as ________.

a)

Responsiveness

b)

Tangibility

c)

Empathy

d)

Assurance

56.

The measure of how easy a product is to fix and maintain is called ________.

a)

Serviceability

b)

Durability

c)

Reliability

d)

Aesthetics

57.

In quality management, refers to the environment in which a service is performed is called ________.

a)

Tangibles

b)

Reliability

c)

Empathy

d)

Assurance

58.

In quality management, refers to a customer's opinion on whether or not the product is worth the price is called ________.

a)

Value

b)

Quality Control

c)

Warranty

d)

Defect

59.

The various firms involved in performing the activities required to create and deliver a product or service to consumers or industrial users is called the ________.

a)

supply chain

b)

marketing mix

c)

distribution channel

d)

value proposition

60.

The management of flows among firms in the supply chain to maximize total profitability is called ________.

a)

Supply Chain Management

b)

Inventory Control

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Customer Relationship Management

61.

Goods a company acquires to use in making products are called ________.

a)

Raw Materials Inventory

b)

Finished Goods Inventory

c)

Work in Process Inventory

d)

Merchandise Inventory

62.

Partially completed goods that are still being worked on are called ________.

a)

Work in Process (WIP)

b)

Finished Goods

c)

Raw Materials

d)

Direct Materials

63.

Finished goods units of product that have been completed but not yet sold to customers are called ________.

a)

finished goods inventory

b)

work in process inventory

c)

raw materials inventory

d)

cost of goods sold

64.

Products for maintenance, repair, and operations are called ________.

a)

MRO goods

b)

Consumer goods

c)

Specialty goods

d)

Convenience goods

65.

Inventory that is currently moving within a transportation network to or from the company's facilities is called ________.

a)

transit inventory

b)

cycle inventory

c)

buffer inventory

d)

obsolete inventory

66.

Extra inventory held to guard against uncertainty in demand or supply is called ________.

a)

buffer stock (safety stock)

b)

lead time stock

c)

cycle stock

d)

obsolete stock

67.

Inventory that is held in anticipation of customer demand is called ________.

a)

Anticipation Inventory

b)

Cycle Inventory

c)

Pipeline Inventory

d)

Obsolete Inventory

68.

The average amount of inventory held to satisfy customer demands between inventory deliveries is called ________.

a)

cycle inventory

b)

safety stock

c)

pipeline inventory

d)

seasonal inventory

69.

A detailed inventory system in which a company maintains the cost of each inventory item, and the records continuously show the inventory that should be on hand is called ________.

a)

perpetual inventory system

b)

periodic inventory system

c)

just-in-time inventory system

d)

specific identification method

70.

An inventory system that requires businesses to obtain a physical count of inventory to determine quantities on hand at regular periods is called ________.

a)

periodic inventory system

b)

perpetual inventory system

c)

just-in-time inventory system

d)

consignment inventory system

71.

A system designed to ensure that materials or supplies arrive at a facility just when they are needed so that storage and holding costs are minimized is called ________.

a)

just-in-time inventory system

b)

batch processing system

c)

economic order quantity system

d)

material requirements planning system

72.

An examination of incoming goods or materials to ensure that they meet the quality standards of the purchaser is called ________.

a)

quality check

b)

stock transfer

c)

invoice matching

d)

order picking

73.

The receiver writes the description of the merchandise, counts the quantities received, and lists them on a blank or dummy invoice. This is called the ________.

a)

blind check receiving method

b)

open check receiving method

c)

invoice matching method

d)

direct receiving method

74.

The merchandise is checked directly against the actual invoice or purchase order. This is called the ________.

a)

direct check method

b)

blind receiving method

c)

invoice matching method

d)

purchase order review

75.

The receiver of a delivery conducts a check of one carton in a shipment to see if the right kind and quantity of goods were delivered. This is called the ________.

a)

spot check method

b)

random sampling method

c)

full inspection method

d)

batch verification method

76.

The possibility of loss (failure) or gain (success) is called ________.

a)

Risk

b)

Profit

c)

Guarantee

d)

Security

77.

A risk that carries the possibility of loss or no loss is called ________.

a)

Pure risk

b)

Speculative risk

c)

Systematic risk

d)

Unsystematic risk

78.

A risk that may result in loss, no change, or gain is called ________.

a)

Speculative risk

b)

Pure risk

c)

Systematic risk

d)

Uninsurable risk

79.

The likelihood that an event will occur is called ________.

a)

Probability

b)

Possibility

c)

Certainty

d)

Frequency

80.

The effect or influence of an event is called ________.

a)

Impact

b)

Source

c)

Origin

d)

Reason

81.

A risk-response strategy that involves reducing or controlling the impact of a risk if it occurs is called ________.

a)

Mitigation

b)

Acceptance

c)

Transfer

d)

Escalation

82.

A risk-response strategy that involves accepting a risk's consequences because the potential payoff is higher than the losses; also known as risk retention or assumption. What is this strategy called?

a)

Acceptance

b)

Avoidance

c)

Transference

d)

Mitigation

83.

A risk-response strategy that involves choosing not to do something that is considered risky. What is this strategy called?

a)

Avoidance

b)

Mitigation

c)

Transference

d)

Acceptance

84.

A risk-response strategy that involves moving the impact of a risk to someone or something else. What is this strategy called?

a)

Transference

b)

Avoidance

c)

Mitigation

d)

Acceptance

85.

Possible events and situations that directly impact a company's cash flow are known as what type of risks?

a)

Financial risks

b)

Operational risks

c)

Strategic risks

d)

Compliance risks

86.

Potential events and situations that can cause injury or harm to people, property, or the environment are called what type of risks?

a)

Hazard risks

b)

Financial risks

c)

Strategic risks

d)

Reputational risks

87.

Possible events and situations resulting from employee actions, core processes, and daily business activities are known as what type of risks?

a)

Operational risks

b)

Financial risks

c)

Strategic risks

d)

Compliance risks

88.

Possible events and situations that can affect the execution of an organization's long-term plans are called what type of risks?

a)

Strategic risks

b)

Operational risks

c)

Compliance risks

d)

Financial risks

89.

A business activity that involves the planning, controlling, preventing, and limiting of business losses and enhancing possibilities for gain is known as what?

a)

Risk management

b)

Financial accounting

c)

Market segmentation

d)

Product development

90.

A risk-management process that involves recognizing risks that could impact a business's objectives and activities is called what?

a)

Risk identification

b)

Risk transfer

c)

Risk financing

d)

Risk avoidance

91.

A risk-management process that involves determining the effectiveness of current risk-response strategies and tools, tracking existing risks, monitoring new risks, and developing responses and workarounds for previously unidentified risks is called what?

a)

Risk monitoring and control

b)

Risk identification

c)

Risk avoidance

d)

Risk transference

92.

Adapting to the environment in advance of the occurrence of events; taking advantage of opportunities rather than reacting to problems is known as being what?

a)

Proactive

b)

Reactive

c)

Passive

d)

Indifferent

93.

Hesitant to take action; passive; waiting for changes to occur before acting is known as being what?

a)

Reactive

b)

Proactive

c)

Assertive

d)

Decisive

94.

Risks that have not happened before but could occur in the future are called what?

a)

Prospective risks

b)

Historical risks

c)

Eliminated risks

d)

Current risks

95.

Risks that have previously occurred are called what?

a)

Retroactive risks

b)

Potential risks

c)

Future risks

d)

Unknown risks

96.

The amount of money people have to spend, or dispose of, after they have paid their taxes; also called discretionary income. What is this called?

a)

Disposable income

b)

Gross income

c)

Net worth

d)

Fixed expenses

97.

A government agency that regulates interstate and international communications by radio, television, wire, satellite, and cable is known as what?

a)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

b)

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

c)

Federal Reserve System (Fed)

d)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

98.

A government regulatory agency that administers and enforces antitrust laws to prevent price fixing and to prohibit unfair competitive practices is called what?

a)

Federal Trade Commission (FTC)

b)

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

c)

Federal Reserve Board (FRB)

d)

Department of Commerce

99.

The regulatory agency established by the federal government to enforce laws that protect consumers' health is called what?

a)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b)

Federal Reserve System (FRS)

c)

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

d)

Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)

100.

Issuing a government permit that allows an individual or a business to function in the marketplace is known as what?

a)

Licensing

b)

Taxation

c)

Subsidizing

d)

Auditing