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WorksheetsTOWER 6
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 17mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Aerodrome forecasts contain specific information presented in a fixed order. The information and order are as follows:
a)
Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud (or vertical visibility if appropriate); Expected significant changes.
b)
Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud.
c)
Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather; Cloud.
d)
Identification groups; Surface wind; Prevailing Visibility; Weather.
2.
The information concerning meteorological services provided to aircraft in flight as:
a)
METAR, SPECI, TAF, TREND, SIGMET;
b)
Forecast of upper wind and upper air temperratures information, aircraft observations and reports.
c)
Both a and b
3.
In the aviation meteorological sevice “Cloud of operational significance” shall be understood as:
a)
a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1 500 m (5 000 ft)
b)
a cloud below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater
c)
a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height
d)
all correct
4.
There is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
a)
Windshear, turbulence.
b)
Steady rain.
c)
Precipitation static.
d)
Drizzle.
5.
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
a)
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
b)
Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
c)
Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
6.
An inversion is when:
a)
There is an increase of temperature as height increases.
b)
There is no horizontal gradient of temperature.
c)
There is no change of temperature with height.
d)
There is a decrease of temperature as height Increases.
7.
The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is:
a)
Regional QNH.
b)
QFE.
c)
QFF.
d)
QNE.
8.
Which of the following characterises unstable air?
a)
Cumulus cloud with showers and generally good visibility outside of the showers.
b)
Layered cloud with showers and generally poor visibility.
c)
Layered cloud with poor visibility and intermittent drizzle.
d)
Cumulus cloud with continuous precipitation and moderate visibility.
9.
One or more coloured rings around the sun or moon may indicate the presence of which type of cloud?
a)
Altostratus.
b)
High.
c)
Stratus.
d)
Cirrocumulus.
10.
Hail is most likely to fall from which type of cloud?
a)
CB.
b)
NS.
c)
AC.
d)
AS.
11.
From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order.
a)
Stratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
b)
Nimbostratus, Cumulonimbus, Cirrus.
c)
Altostratus, Altocumulus, Cirrus.
d)
Cirrus, Cumulonimbus, Stratus.
12.
Precipitation produced by stratus is normally?
a)
Drizzle.
b)
Heavy showers.
c)
Heavy rain.
d)
Light showers.
13.
Unstable air is forced to rise up the side of a mountain. What weather might you expect to see on the windward slopes?
a)
Cloud of extensive vertical development.
b)
Thick stratiform cloud, probably nimbostratus.
c)
None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after passing over the summit.
d)
Cap clouds with possible altocumulus lenticularis.
14.
The trend forecast shall indicate the expected onset, cessation or change in intensity of one or more of the following weather phenomena or combinations thereof:
a)
freezing precipitation,moderate or heavy precipitation (including showers thereof), thunderstorm (with precipitation), duststorm, sandstorm.
b)
freezing precipitation,moderate or heavy precipitation (including showers thereof), thunderstorm (with precipitation), duststorm, sandstorm, mits.
c)
freezing precipitation,moderate or heavy precipitation (including showers thereof), thunderstorm (with precipitation), duststorm, sandstorm, mits, fog.
d)
freezing precipitation, moderate or heavy precipitation (including showers thereof), thunderstorm (with precipitation), duststorm, sandstorm, mits, fog.
15.
GR stands for
a)
Mist
b)
Fog
c)
Hail
d)
Rain
16.
CAVOKS means:
a)
When the following conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation: a) visibility, 10 km or more; b) no cloud below 1 500 m (5 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus;
b)
When the following conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation: a) visibility, 10 km or more; b) no weather of significance to aviation
c)
When the following conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation: a) visibility, 10 km or more; b) no cloud below 1 500 m (5 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus; c) no weather of significance to aviation
d)
When the following conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation: a) no cloud below 1 500 m (5 000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, and no cumulonimbus; b) no weather of significance to aviation
17.
Wind shear warnings shall give concise information on the observed or
expected existence of wind shear which could adversely affect aircraft on the approach path or take-off path or during
circling approach between runway level and .... above that level and aircraft on the runway during the landing
roll or take-off run.
a)
500 m (1 600 ft)
b)
300m
c)
400m
d)
200m
18.
When the height of the base of a cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent is expected to lift and change to or pass through one or
more of the following values, or when the height of the base of a cloud layer of BKN or OVC extent is expected to lower and
pass through one or more of the following values: ...... the trend
forecast shall indicate the change
a)
30, 60, 150, 300 and 450 m
b)
60, 150, 300 and 450 m
c)
30, 60, 150m and 450 m
d)
150, 300 and 450 m
19.
In the aviation meteorological sevice “Cloud of operational significance” shall be understood as:
a)
a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1 500 m (5 000 ft)
b)
a cloud below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater
c)
a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height
d)
All correct
20.
The limits of the VHF band are:
a)
30 - 300 MHz.
b)
3 - 30 MHz.
c)
300 - 3000 MHz.
d)
300 - 3000 KHz.
21.
Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from:
a)
DME / DME.
b)
DME / VOR.
c)
DME / DME or DME / VOR.
d)
VOR / ADF.
22.
The radio navigation information used by the FMC is:
a)
ADF, VOR, DME.
b)
VOR, DME.
c)
DME, VOR, ILS.
d)
VOR, ADF, DME, ILS.
23.
Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
a)
+/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time.
b)
+/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time.
c)
+/- 5NM or better throughout the flight.
d)
+/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time.
24.
ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
a)
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
b)
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids.
c)
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self- contained aids, or a combination of these.
d)
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.
25.
In a hybrid navigation system:
a)
the information obtained from ATC and ground radars plays a dominant role.
b)
the aircrew has limited control over the navigation.
c)
data from two or more of sources is electronically compared and the best information is used.
d)
the aircrew has full control of all navigational matters, because all navigation is executed by the aircrew.
26.
Attenuation of a radio wave is the:
a)
increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals.
b)
reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading.
c)
change of its frequency by use of sidebands.
d)
change of its amplitude by use of sidebands.
27.
Using a primary radar:
a)
All 3 answers are correct.
b)
target size will influence the maximum range.
c)
detection of targets in the area close to the radar will be difficult.
d)
precipitation may reduce the useful range.
28.
The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
a)
amplitude.
b)
length.
c)
repetition rate.
d)
frequency.
29.
A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
a)
transponder interrogation.
b)
phase comparison.
c)
pulse technique.
d)
continuous wave transmission.
30.
The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:
a)
163842
b)
186000
c)
161842
d)
300000
31.
The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
a)
doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System.
b)
phase comparison from ground station transmissions.
c)
radar principles using frequency shift.
d)
radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.
32.
Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises which frequencies?
a)
VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes.
b)
UHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes.
c)
UHF at civil aerodromes and VHF at military aerodromes
d)
VHF at civil aerodromes and VHF at military aerodromes.
33.
A radio wave increases speed when crossing the coast, leaving the land and passing over the sea. When this happens:
a)
the frequency increases..
b)
no change in either.
c)
the wavelength changes.
d)
the frequency changes.
34.
Ground responders respond at a frequency:
a)
63 MHz grader than interrogation frequency.
b)
63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency.
c)
the same as the interrogation signal.
d)
63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below.
35.
The maximum theoretical range at which a UHF transmission can be received by an aircraft flying at FL 200, assuming the UHF station is at a height of 860 ft amsl is:
a)
170 nm
b)
213 nm
c)
180 nm
d)
144 nm
36.
For a given HF frequency skip distance will normally:
a)
have no diurnal variation.
b)
be greater by day than by night.
c)
be less by night than by day.
d)
be greater by night than by day.
37.
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135° , after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read:
a)
more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used
b)
225°
c)
less than 225°
d)
more than 225°
38.
What is the distance in kilometres from 49° S 180° E/W to 58° S 180º E/W?
a)
1112 km.
b)
621 km.
c)
540 km.
d)
1000 km.
39.
The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
a)
actual time of arrival at a point or fix.
b)
estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix.
c)
estimated time of arrival at destination.
d)
estimated time en route.
40.
What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
a)
-50° C
b)
-81° C
c)
-66° C
d)
-56° C
41.
Heading is 156° T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130° /45. What is your true track?
a)
160
b)
152
c)
222
d)
104
42.
Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060° Magnetic variation: 8° W Drift angle: 4° right What is the true track?
a)
072°
b)
048°
c)
056°
d)
064°
43.
Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. What is the approximate rate of descent?
a)
300 FT/MIN.
b)
350 FT/MIN.
c)
700 FT/MIN.
d)
D) 875 FT/MIN.
44.
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
a)
69 NM.
b)
49 NM.
c)
79 NM.
d)
59 NM.
45.
In an IRS:
a)
accelerometers and platform are both strapped down.
b)
accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised.
c)
the accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilised.
d)
the platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
46.
What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?
a)
Mach Number.
b)
IAS.
c)
TAS.
d)
Altitude and OAT.
47.
What measurement is used to carry out alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?
a)
Acceleration sensed by the east gyro horizontal accelerometer.
b)
Difference in magnitude of the value of gravity compared with the gravity at the last known position.
c)
Acceleration sensed by the north gyro vertical accelerometer.
d)
Acceleration sensed by the north gyro horizontal accelerometer.
48.
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called:
a)
drift.
b)
variation.
c)
deviation.
d)
compass error.
49.
What is the value of magnetic dip at the South Magnetic Pole?
a)
0°
b)
360°
c)
180°
d)
090°
50.
Deviation is:
a)
a correction to be added to magnetic heading to obtain compass heading.
b)
an error to be added to magnetic headings.
c)
a correction to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.
d)
an error to be added to compass heading to obtain magnetic heading.
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