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Transmission Lines Quiz

Total questions: 182

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The most commonly used transmission line is a

a)

Two-wire balance line

b)

Single wire

c)

Three-wire line

d)

Coax

2.

The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its

a)

Length

b)

Conductor diameter

c)

Conductor spacing

d)

None of the above

3.

Which of the following is not a common transmission line impedance?

a)

50 Ω

b)

75 Ω

c)

120 Ω

d)

300 Ω

4.

For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line Z O and the load impedance Z l should be

a)

Z 0 = Z 1

b)

Z 0 > Z 1

c)

Z 0 < Z 1

d)

Z 0 = 0

5.

The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedances cannot be corrected for by

a)

Using an LC matching network

b)

Adjusting antenna length

c)

Using a balun

d)

Adjusting the length of transmission line

6.

A pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance is called

a)

An electric field

b)

Radio waves

c)

Standing waves

d)

a magnetic field

7.

The desirable SWR on a transmission line is

a)

0.

b)

1.

c)

2.

d)

Infinity

8.

A 50 Ω coax is connected to a 73 Ω antenna. The SWR is

a)

0.685.

b)

1.

c)

1.46.

d)

2.92.

9.

The most desirable reflection coefficient is

a)

0.

b)

0.5.

c)

1.

d)

Infinity

10.

A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line is known as the

a)

Velocity factor

b)

standing wave ratio

c)

Reflection coefficient

d)

Line efficiency

11.

The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum voltage is 390 V. The SWR is

a)

0.67

b)

1.0

c)

1.2

d)

1.5

12.

Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of

a)

100 MHz

b)

164 MHz

c)

300 MHz

d)

328 MHz

13.

At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as

a)

Tuned circuit

b)

Antennas

c)

Insulators

d)

Resistors

14.

A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)

a)

Series resonant circuit

b)

Parallel resonant circuit

c)

Capacitors

d)

Inductor

15.

A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a(n)

a)

Capacitors

b)

Inductor

c)

Series resonant circuit

d)

Parallel resonant circuit

16.

A popular half-wavelength antenna is the

a)

Ground plane

b)

End-fire

c)

Collinear

d)

Dipole

17.

The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is

a)

8.67 ft.

b)

17.33 ft

c)

18.2 ft

d)

34.67 ft

18.

A popular vertical antenna is the

a)

Collinear

b)

Dipole

c)

Ground Plane

d)

Broadside

19.

The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the earth. The antenna’s polarization

a)

Is vertical

b)

Is horizontal

c)

Is circuit

d)

Cannot be determined from the information given

20.

An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions is said to be

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Bidirectional

c)

Unidirectional

d)

Quasidirectional

21.

The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a

a)

Circle

b)

Figure eight

c)

Clover left

d)

Narrow beam

22.

the length of a ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is

a)

1.6 ft.

b)

1.68 ft.

c)

2.05 ft.

d)

3.37 ft.

23.

The impedance of a dipole is about

a)

50 Ω

b)

73 Ω

c)

93 Ω

d)

300 Ω

24.

A directional antenna with two or more elements is known as a(n)

a)

Folded dipole

b)

Ground plane

c)

Loop

d)

Array

25.

The horizontal radiation pattern of a vertical dipole is

a)

Figure eight

b)

Circle

c)

Narrow beam

d)

Clover leaf

26.

In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of radiation is toward the

a)

Director

b)

Driven element

c)

Reflector

d)

Sky

27.

Conductors in multielement antennas that do not receive energy directly from the transmission line are known as

a)

Parasitic elements

b)

Driven elements

c)

The boom

d)

Receptors

28.

A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 db per 100 ft. The attenuation for 275 ft is

a)

2.4 dB

b)

3.3 dB

c)

4.8 dB

d)

6.6 dB

29.

An antenna has a power gain of 15. The power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The effective radiated power is

a)

15 W

b)

32 W

c)

120 W

d)

480 W

30.

Which beamwidth represents the best antenna directivity

a)

70

b)

120

c)

190

d)

280

31.

The radiation pattern of collinear and broadside antennas

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Bidirectional

c)

Unidirectional

d)

Clover-leaf shape

32.

Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation pattern and gain

a)

Dipole

b)

Ground plane

c)

Yagi

d)

Collinear

33.

A wide-bandwidth multielement driven array is the

a)

End-fire

b)

Log-periodic

c)

Yagi

d)

Collinear

34.

Ground-wave communications is most effective in what frequency range?

a)

300 kHz to 3 MHz

b)

3 to 30 MHz

c)

30 to 300 MHz

d)

Above 300 MHz

35.

The ionosphere causes radio signals to be

a)

Diffused

b)

Absorbed

c)

Refracted

d)

Reflected

36.

The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?

a)

300 kHz to 3 MHz

b)

3 to 30 MHz

c)

30 to 300 MHz

d)

Above 300 MHz

37.

The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance communications by multiple skips is the

a)

Ground wave

b)

Direct wave

c)

Surface wave

d)

Sky wave

38.

Microwave signals propagate by way of the

a)

Direct wave

b)

Sky wave

c)

Surface wave

d)

Standing wave

39.

The line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?

a)

VHF

b)

UHF

c)

HF

d)

Microwave

40.

A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The maximum transmission distance is

a)

20 mi.

b)

33.2 mi.

c)

38.7 mi.

d)

53.2 mi.

41.

To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal, which of the following should be done Above 300 MHz?

a)

Increase antenna gain

b)

Increase antenna height

c)

Increase transmitter power

d)

Increase receiver sensitivity

42.

A coax has a velocity factor of 0.68. What is the length of a half wave at 30 MHz?

a)

11.2 ft

b)

12.9 ft

c)

15.6 ft

d)

16.4 ft

43.

Which transmission line has the lowest attenuation?

a)

Twin lead

b)

RG-11/U

c)

RG-59/U

d)

RG-214/U

44.

Refer to Fig. 9-39. The beam width of this antenna pattern is approximately

a)

30

b)

38

c)

45

d)

60

45.

A receiver-transmitter station used to increase the communications range of VHF, UHF, and microwave signals is called a(n)

a)

Transceiver

b)

Remitter

c)

Repeater

d)

Amplifier

46.

SWR stands for:

a)

Shorted Wave Radiation

b)

Sine Wave Response

c)

Shorted Wire Region

d)

none of the above

47.

TDR stands for:

a)

Total Distance of Reflection

b)

Time-Domain Reflectometer

c)

Time-Domain Response

d)

Transmission Delay Ratio

48.

An example of an unbalanced line is:

a)

a coaxial cable

b)

300-ohm twin-lead TV cable

c)

an open-wire-line cable

d)

all of the above

49.

When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:

a)

lumped

b)

distributed

c)

equal reactances

d)

ideal elements

50.

As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

changes periodically

51.

The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:

a)

I 2 R loss

b)

the skin effect

c)

the Ohmic effect

d)

frequency effect

52.

As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

there is no loss in a dielectric

53.

The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:

a)

the resistance per foot of the wire used

b)

the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot

c)

the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot

d)

the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot

54.

For best matching, the load on a cable should be:

a)

lower than Z 0

b)

equal to Z 0

c)

higher than Z 0

d)

50 ohms

55.

The characteristic impedance of a cable:

a)

increases with length

b)

increases with frequency

c)

increases with voltage

d)

none of the above

56.

The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:

a)

the wire resistance

b)

the dielectric constant

c)

the inductance per foot

d)

all of the above

57.

A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:

a)

would reflect as a positive pulse

b)

would reflect as a negative pulse

c)

would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse

d)

would not reflect at all

58.

On a Smith Chart, you 'normalize' the impedance by:

a)

assuming it to be zero

b)

dividing it by 2π

c)

multiplying it by 2π

d)

dividing it by Z

59.

The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:

a)

the voltage

b)

the current

c)

the impedance

d)

none of the above

60.

The center of the Smith Chart always represents:

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

characteristic impedance

d)

none of the above

61.

A TDR is commonly used to:

a)

measure the characteristic impedance of a cable

b)

find the position of a defect in a cable

c)

replace a slotted-line

d)

all of the above

62.

A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called (a)   .

63.

Parallel lines are usually operated as (a)   lines since both wires are symmetrical with respect to ground.

64.

Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its (a)   impedance.

65.

Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively (a)   frequencies.

66.

To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use (a)   parameters instead of lumped ones.

67.

The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the (a)   effect.

68.

The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the (a)   field inside the wire.

69.

Dielectrics become more (a)   as the frequency increases.

70.

The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit (a)   .

71.

Characteristic impedance is sometimes called (a)   impedance.

72.

A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a (a)   line.

73.

A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the (a)   polarity.

74.

The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a (a)   wave.

75.

SWR stands for (a)   -wave ratio.

76.

The ideal value for SWR is (a)   .

77.

Transmission line impedances can be found using a (a)   chart.

78.

Short transmission-line sections called (a)   can be used as capacitors or inductors.

79.

Any cable that radiates energy can also (a)   energy.

80.

A (a)   -dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.

81.

It is often best to measure SWR at the (a)   end of a cable.

82.

Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the (a)   voltage of its dielectric.

83.

To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by (a)   .

84.

The (a)   of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.

85.

A (a)   wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.

86.

A slotted line is used to make measurements in the (a)   domain.

87.

Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:

a)

Armstrong

b)

Hertz

c)

Maxwell

d)

Marconi

88.

Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by:

a)

Armstrong

b)

Hertz

c)

Maxwell

d)

Marconi

89.

The technology that made cell phones practical was:

a)

the microprocessor chip

b)

the miniature cell-site

c)

high-power microwave transmitters

d)

all of the above

90.

Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with:

a)

high power levels

b)

reuse of frequencies

c)

high antennas

d)

all of the above

91.

Which of the following are electromagnetic:

a)

radio waves

b)

light

c)

gamma waves

d)

all of the above

92.

The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are:

a)

perpendicular to each other

b)

perpendicular to the direction of travel

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

93.

TEM stands for:

a)

Transverse Electromagnetic

b)

Transmitted Electromagnetic

c)

True Electromagnetic

d)

none of the above

94.

In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of:

a)

3 × 10^6 meters per second

b)

300 × 10^6 meters per second

c)

3 × 10^6 miles per second

d)

300 × 10^6 miles per second

95.

Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:

a)

vertical

b)

horizontal

c)

circular

d)

all of the above

96.

Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:

a)

vertical

b)

horizontal

c)

circular

d)

all of the above

97.

The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

many

98.

An antenna has 'gain' as compared to:

a)

an isotropic radiator

b)

a vertically polarized radiator

c)

none of the above

99.

EIRP stands for:

a)

the E and I fields of the Radiated Power

b)

the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power

c)

the Effective Internal Reflected Power

d)

the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power

100.

The 'attenuation of free space' is due to:

a)

losses in the characteristic impedance of free space

b)

losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere

c)

the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront

d)

the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront

101.

Ground waves are most effective:

a)

below about 2 MHz

b)

above about 20 MHz

c)

at microwave frequencies

d)

when using horizontally polarized waves

102.

Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:

a)

a flat insulating surface of the right size

b)

a flat dielectric surface of the right size

c)

a flat metallic surface of the right size

d)

a flat body of water

103.

Radio waves sometimes 'bend' around a corner because of:

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffusion

d)

diffraction

104.

Space waves are:

a)

line-of-sight

b)

reflected off the ionosphere

c)

same as sky waves

d)

radio waves used for satellite communications

105.

Sky waves:

a)

are line-of-sight

b)

bounce off the ionosphere

c)

are same as space waves

d)

are radio waves used for satellite communications

106.

Sky waves cannot be 'heard':

a)

close to the transmitter

b)

far from the transmitter

c)

in the 'silent' zone

d)

in the 'skip' zone

107.

A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:

a)

fading

b)

diffraction

c)

frequency diversity

d)

spatial diversity

108.

'Ghosts' on a TV screen are an example of:

a)

fading

b)

diffraction

c)

multipath distortion

d)

cancellation due to reflection

109.

A 'repeater' is used to:

a)

send a message multiple times over a channel

b)

send a message over multiple channels at the same time

c)

extend the range of a radio communications system

d)

cancel the effects of fading

110.

Cellular phone systems rely on:

a)

high power

b)

the radio horizon

c)

repeaters

d)

frequency reuse

111.

Radio waves were mathematically predicted by (a)   .

112.

Radio waves were first demonstrated by (a)   .

113.

Radio waves are (a)   electromagnetic waves.

114.

The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is (a)   m/sec.

115.

Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called (a)   .

116.

Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a (a)   to travel through.

117.

The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about (a)   volts per meter.

118.

Waves from an (a)   source radiate equally in all directions.

119.

The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a (a)   .

120.

At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat (a)   -wave.

121.

The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its (a)   field.

122.

The electric field of a radio wave is (a)   to its magnetic field.

123.

Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are (a)   to its propagation direction.

124.

With (a)   polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it travels through space.

125.

An antenna is said to have (a)   in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that direction than in other directions.

126.

The watts per square meter of a radio wave (a)   as the wave-front moves through space.

127.

Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called (a)   reflection.

128.

(a)   is the 'bending' of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two different dielectrics.

129.

The process of (a)   makes radio waves appear to 'bend around a corner'.

130.

(a)   waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a 'line-of-sight' fashion.

131.

(a)   waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface.

132.

(a)   waves are radio waves that 'bounce off' the ionosphere due to refraction.

133.

The (a)   zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.

134.

'Ghosts' on a TV screen are an example of (a)   distortion.

135.

The 'fast fading' seen in mobile communications is caused by (a)   waves interfering with direct waves.

136.

Cell phones typically operate at a (a)   power level.

137.

The (a)   of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area.

138.

(a)   is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a third of the cell area, to reduce interference.

139.

The use of (a)   chips makes cell phones a practical technology.

140.

A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 ́ 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What is the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?

(a)  

141.

If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 10,000 meters from the source?

(a)  

142.

What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from the source is 1 mW/m2?

(a)  

143.

If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function, how far away from a 1-watt point source will it continue to work?

(a)  

144.

A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. What, approximately, is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same?

(a)  

145.

A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If the car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time between fades?

(a)  

146.

The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:

a)

the radiated signal

b)

the reflected signal

c)

the SWR

d)

all of the above

147.

A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:

a)

a Marconi antenna

b)

a Hertz antenna

c)

a Yagi antenna

d)

none of the above

148.

The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:

a)

one wavelength

b)

one half-wavelength

c)

slightly longer than a half-wavelength

d)

slightly shorter than a half-wavelength

149.

The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:

a)

standing wave pattern around the antenna

b)

SWR along the feed cable

c)

radiation resistance of the antenna

d)

I2R loss of the antenna

150.

Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest:

a)

in one direction

b)

in two directions

c)

in all directions

d)

depends on the number of elements

151.

The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:

a)

directivity

b)

selectivity

c)

active antenna

d)

resonance

152.

The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:

a)

0 dB

b)

3 dB

c)

10 dB

d)

infinite

153.

An antenna's beamwidth is measured:

a)

from +90° to –90°

b)

from front to back

c)

between half-power points

d)

between the minor side-lobes

154.

ERP stands for:

a)

Equivalent Radiation Pattern

b)

Effective Radiation Pattern

c)

Equivalent Radiated Power

d)

Effective Radiated Power

155.

'Ground Effects' refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:

a)

radio signals reflecting off the ground

b)

buildings and other structures on the ground

c)

fading

d)

faulty connection of the feed cable ground

156.

A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:

a)

mounted vertically

b)

mounted horizontally

c)

at least one half-wavelength long

d)

at least one wavelength long

157.

The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:

a)

dipole

b)

folded dipole

c)

ferrite 'loop-stick'

d)

none of the above

158.

The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:

a)

gamma rays

b)

Faraday Rotation

c)

helical rotation

d)

the distance traveled

159.

A nonresonant antenna:

a)

will not transmit

b)

will not receive

c)

will cause SWR on the feed cable

d)

all of the above

160.

At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:

a)

resistive

b)

inductive

c)

capacitive

d)

infinite

161.

An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:

a)

a shorted stub

b)

a loading coil

c)

an LC network

d)

all of the above

162.

As the length of a 'long-wire' antenna is increased:

a)

the number of lobes increases

b)

the number of nodes decreases

c)

efficiency decreases

d)

none of the above

163.

Arrays can be:

a)

phased

b)

driven

c)

parasitic

d)

all of the above

164.

An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:

a)

Marconi

b)

Yagi

c)

Log-Periodic Dipole

d)

stacked array

165.

LPDA stands for:

a)

Low-Power Dipole Array

b)

Low-Power Directed Array

c)

Log-Periodic Dipole Array

d)

Log Power Dipole Array

166.

The radiated beam from a parabolic 'dish' transmitting antenna is:

a)

collimated

b)

phased

c)

dispersed

d)

none of the above

167.

The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:

a)

center

b)

edges

c)

focus

d)

horn

168.

Antennas are often tested in:

a)

an echo chamber

b)

an anechoic chamber

c)

a vacuum chamber

d)

an RF reflective chamber

169.

Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:

a)

a slotted line

b)

a dipole

c)

an EIRP meter

d)

a field-strength meter

170.
Name:
4 lines
171.
Age:
4 lines
172.
Address:
4 lines
173.
1. Does our product is feasible to the market?
a)
Yes
b)
No
174.
2. In the value of our product, does it worth buying for?
a)
Yes
b)
No
175.
3. Does our product's name appealing?
a)
Yes
b)
No
176.
4. Do you think our product is worth the customer's time in terms of concept?
a)
Yes
b)
No
177.
5. In the scale of 1-4, in terms of traditional and cultural promotion, on what scale do you believe this product will be effective?
(undefined = 1, undefined = 4)
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
178.
6. Do you think our tagline, "Dare to Wear Banana Fiber: Woven with Love, Worn with Care," is catchy enough?
a)
Yes
b)
No
179.
7. Do you think our packaging needs some improvements in terms of designs, sizes, and materials that being used?
a)
Yes
b)
No
180.
8. Do you believe our products are the same as those offered by the other company, and where will you buy if our products are not available?
a)
Yan's Handicrafts
b)
Agila Handicrafts
c)
Tatak Atin Handicrafts
d)
LOKAL Crafts
e)
Peddled Handicrafts Sellers
181.
9. Do you think our products will be popular in the market?
a)
Yes
b)
No
182.
10. How original and innovative is the product?
a)
Innovative
b)
Not Innovative
c)
Not at all Original