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Biology Regents Review (Study Guide)

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a positive feedback mechanism?

a)

The output enhances the original stimulus (e.g., oxytocin in childbirth, blood clotting)

b)

The output reduces the original stimulus (e.g., glucose regulation, thermoregulation)

c)

The output has no effect on the original stimulus

d)

The output reverses the original stimulus

2.

What is a negative feedback mechanism?

a)

The output enhances the original stimulus

b)

The output reduces the original stimulus (e.g., glucose regulation, thermoregulation)

c)

The output has no effect on the original stimulus

d)

The output amplifies the original stimulus

3.

Fill in the blank: The independent variable is what the scientist is changing. In the example provided, the independent variable is _________.

a)

temperature

b)

time

c)

volume

d)

mass

4.

Fill in the blank: The dependent variable is what the scientist is measuring. In the example provided, the dependent variable is _________.

a)

amount of sweat

b)

type of thermometer used

c)

time of day

d)

color of clothing

5.

Which of the following is a controlled variable in the experiment described?

a)

Temperature

b)

Amount of sweat

c)

Time of day

d)

Hypothesis

6.

What is the control group in an experiment?

a)

The group that has the 'experimental treatment'

b)

The group that has no 'special treatment'

c)

The group with the largest sample size

d)

The group that measures the dependent variable

7.

What is the experimental group in an experiment?

a)

The group that has no 'special treatment'

b)

The group that has the 'experimental treatment'

c)

The group with the smallest sample size

d)

The group that controls the variables

8.

Based on the diagram, which target shows measurements that are accurate but imprecise?

a)

The second target from the left (Accurate but imprecise: The measurements are all close to the true value but not quite spread apart. Analogy: The arrows are close to the bullseye but spread around the target.)

b)

The first target from the left (Precise but inaccurate: The measurements are all close together but far from the true value. Analogy: The arrows are clustered away from the bullseye.)

c)

The third target from the left (Neither accurate nor precise: The measurements are spread out and far from the true value. Analogy: The arrows are scattered all over the target.)

d)

The fourth target from the left (Accurate and precise: The measurements are all close together and close to the true value. Analogy: The arrows are clustered at the bullseye.)

9.

What is the purpose of a table in scientific experiments?

a)

To show changes over time

b)

To organize and display numerical data collected in an experiment

c)

To compare sets of data

d)

To show correlation

10.

Which type of graph is best for showing changes over a continuous period of time?

a)

Bar Graph

b)

Line Graph

c)

Pie Chart

d)

Table

11.

Which type of graph is best for comparing sets of data?

a)

Line Graph

b)

Bar Graph

c)

Pie Chart

d)

Table

12.

Correlation does not imply _________.

a)

causation

b)

correlation

c)

association

d)

connection

13.

What is the main function of the respiratory system as described in the passage?

a)

The respiratory system inhales O2 and exhales CO2.

b)

The respiratory system digests food and absorbs nutrients.

c)

The respiratory system pumps blood throughout the body.

d)

The respiratory system controls movement and balance.

14.

According to the passage, how do the circulatory and respiratory systems work together?

a)

The respiratory system inhales O2, the circulatory system transports the O2 through the blood vessels to the cells, the circulatory system transports CO2 waste through the blood vessels to the alveoli, and the respiratory system exhales the CO2.

b)

The circulatory system inhales O2, the respiratory system transports the O2 to the cells, and the circulatory system exhales CO2.

c)

The respiratory system transports nutrients, and the circulatory system exchanges gases in the alveoli.

d)

The circulatory system produces O2, and the respiratory system uses it for cellular respiration.

15.

Which system breaks down food into smaller nutrients, and which system transports the nutrients to the cells?

a)

Digestive system breaks down food; Circulatory system transports nutrients

b)

Circulatory system breaks down food; Digestive system transports nutrients

c)

Both systems break down food

d)

Both systems transport nutrients

16.

What does the endocrine system release into the bloodstream, and what does the circulatory system do with it?

a)

Releases nutrients; transports nutrients

b)

Releases hormones; transports hormones

c)

Releases oxygen; transports oxygen

d)

Releases enzymes; transports enzymes

17.

The hormones insulin and glucagon from the endocrine system regulate the amount of ______ in the blood vessels.

a)

glucose

b)

oxygen

c)

calcium

d)

urea

18.

What is the function of the nervous system in relation to the skeletal and muscular systems?

a)

The nervous system sends signals to the skeletal and muscular systems for movement.

b)

The nervous system provides nutrients to the skeletal and muscular systems.

c)

The nervous system forms the structure of the skeletal and muscular systems.

d)

The nervous system produces energy for the skeletal and muscular systems.

19.

What is a neuron?

a)

A specialized nerve cell that transmits chemical messages.

b)

A type of muscle tissue found in the heart.

c)

A gland that produces hormones.

d)

A blood vessel that carries oxygen.

20.

How does the nervous system interact with the circulatory system to regulate body temperature?

a)

The nervous system sends signals to the circulatory system to dilate blood vessels when body temperature is high, and to constrict blood vessels when body temperature is low.

b)

The nervous system increases heart rate to cool the body and decreases it to warm the body.

c)

The nervous system stops blood flow to the skin when the body is hot.

d)

The nervous system only interacts with the circulatory system during exercise.

21.

How does the nervous system interact with the excretory system to help regulate body temperature?

a)

The nervous system sends signals to the sweat glands (part of the excretory system) to release sweat when body temperature is high.

b)

The nervous system increases urine production to cool the body.

c)

The nervous system causes the kidneys to absorb more water to lower body temperature.

d)

The nervous system signals the liver to release heat through bile.

22.

What is the function of the kidneys in the excretory system?

a)

The kidneys in the excretory system filter wastes out of the blood from the circulatory system.

b)

The kidneys produce digestive enzymes to break down food.

c)

The kidneys help in the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

d)

The kidneys are responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.

23.

What is the function of white blood cells in the immune system?

a)

White blood cells fight pathogens (bacteria and viruses).

b)

White blood cells produce insulin for the body.

c)

White blood cells transport oxygen to tissues.

d)

White blood cells store genetic information.

24.

Which hormone regulates the female menstrual cycle, ovulation, and pregnancy?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Testosterone

c)

Insulin

d)

Adrenaline

25.

Which hormone maintains the uterine lining?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Thyroxine

26.

Which hormone is the main male sex hormone responsible for secondary sex characteristics?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Estrogen

c)

Progesterone

d)

Insulin

27.

Which hormone stimulates testosterone production in males and triggers ovulation in females?

a)

LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

b)

FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

c)

TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)

d)

GH (Growth Hormone)

28.

Which hormone stimulates sperm production in males and egg production in females?

a)

FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)

b)

LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

29.

DNA's structure determines how proteins fold (protein synthesis) and function in cells because:

a)

It provides the instructions for the sequence of amino acids in proteins.

b)

It directly folds proteins in the cell.

c)

It acts as an enzyme to speed up protein synthesis.

d)

It is a type of protein itself.

30.

What is the process called when DNA makes a copy of itself?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mutation

31.

According to the codon chart, what amino acid does the codon AUG code for?

a)

Methionine (Met)

b)

Leucine (Leu)

c)

Glycine (Gly)

d)

Serine (Ser)

32.

In the process of protein synthesis, what is the role of mRNA?

a)

To make a copy of DNA

b)

To carry the genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosome

c)

To synthesize amino acids

d)

To fold proteins

33.

State whether all cells carry DNA as their genetic information.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Contains a linear DNA molecule

b)

Associated with histone proteins

c)

Plasmids often present

d)

Two or more different chromosomes

35.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

Contains a linear DNA molecule

b)

Associated with histone proteins

c)

Plasmids often present

d)

Two or more different chromosomes

36.

Identify the inputs (reactants) and outputs (products) of photosynthesis from the diagram.

a)

Inputs: Water (H2O), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sun's Energy; Outputs: Glucose (Sugar), Oxygen (O2)

b)

Inputs: Oxygen (O2), Glucose (Sugar); Outputs: Water (H2O), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sun's Energy

c)

Inputs: Nitrogen (N2), Oxygen (O2); Outputs: Glucose (Sugar), Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

d)

Inputs: Water (H2O), Oxygen (O2); Outputs: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Sun's Energy

37.

Identify the inputs and outputs of cellular respiration from the diagram.

a)

Inputs: Glucose (Sugar), Oxygen (O2) Outputs: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Water (H2O), ATP Energy

b)

Inputs: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Water (H2O) Outputs: Glucose (Sugar), Oxygen (O2), ATP Energy

c)

Inputs: Oxygen (O2), Water (H2O) Outputs: Glucose (Sugar), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), ATP Energy

d)

Inputs: Glucose (Sugar), Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Outputs: Oxygen (O2), Water (H2O), ATP Energy

38.

The relationship between energy and matter: How do C, H, and O from sugar combine with N, S, and P to synthesize starches, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids?

a)

By forming covalent bonds to create complex biomolecules

b)

By breaking down into simple inorganic molecules

c)

By releasing energy as heat only

d)

By remaining as separate elements in the cell

39.

Light energy is converted to stored chemical energy during photosynthesis by:

a)

breaking down glucose molecules

b)

absorbing water through roots

c)

converting carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen

d)

releasing energy as heat

40.

The carbon cycle diagram shows the roles of photosynthesis, respiration, and fossil fuels. Which process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Burning fossil fuels

d)

Decomposition

41.

Plants and animals contribute to the oxygen cycle as shown in the diagram. What is the main way plants add oxygen to the cycle?

a)

By photosynthesis

b)

By respiration

c)

By decomposition

d)

By consuming oxygen

42.

Based on the pyramid of biomass diagram, which group has the largest biomass?

a)

cheetah

b)

gazelles

c)

bushes

43.

Based on the pyramid of energy, how much energy is available to secondary consumers if primary producers receive 1,000,000 J of sunlight?

a)

100 J is available to secondary consumers.

b)

10,000 J is available to secondary consumers.

c)

1,000 J is available to secondary consumers.

d)

1 J is available to secondary consumers.

44.

According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, matter is neither created nor destroyed by chemical reactions or physical changes.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

In the process of photosynthesis, which of the following is a product?

a)

6CO2(g)

b)

6H2O(l)

c)

C6H12O6(s)

d)

O2(g)

46.

Fill in the blank: The mass of the system is the ______ before and after the reaction.

a)

same

b)

different

c)

doubled

d)

halved

47.

How many oxygen atoms are present in the reactants of the photosynthesis equation shown?

a)

18

b)

12

c)

6

d)

24

48.

List two human activities that contribute to the causes of climate change.

a)

Burning fossil fuels and air travel.

b)

Planting trees and recycling.

c)

Using solar panels and wind turbines.

d)

Walking and cycling.

49.

According to the diagram, which gas is released into the atmosphere from food production?

a)

Methane

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Helium

50.

Identify different components of the carbon cycle model: Refer to the diagram of the carbon cycle.

a)

Biosphere, Atmosphere, Hydrosphere, Geosphere

b)

Lithosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere

c)

Magnetosphere, Cryosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere

d)

Asthenosphere, Ionosphere, Chromosphere, Photosphere

51.

Express energy flow mathematically (e.g., 10% rule in trophic levels). If 10,000 J is available at the producer level, how much energy is available at the primary consumer level?

a)

1,000 J

b)

100 J

c)

10,000 J

d)

10 J

52.

Given 10,000 J at the producer level, calculate energy at the primary consumer level using the 10% rule.

a)

1,000 J

b)

100 J

c)

10,000 J

d)

10 J

53.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity. What is a biotic factor?

a)

Living organisms

b)

Sunlight

c)

Water

d)

Temperature

54.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity. What is an abiotic factor?

a)

Non living things that affect the environment

b)

Living things that affect the environment

c)

The amount of food available to animals

d)

The number of predators in an ecosystem

55.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity. What is carrying capacity?

a)

The maximum number of individuals an ecosystem can maintain based on limiting factors.

b)

The total number of species that can exist in the world.

c)

The amount of food available in an ecosystem at any time.

d)

The number of predators in an ecosystem.

56.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity.

a)

The different types of species in an ecosystem.

b)

The amount of sunlight an ecosystem receives only.

c)

The number of predators in an ecosystem only.

d)

The presence of water alone determines carrying capacity.

57.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity. What is a niche?

a)

The role of a species in its ecosystem. Two species cannot have the same exact niche.

b)

A physical location where an organism lives, regardless of its role.

c)

The total number of individuals an ecosystem can support indefinitely.

d)

A type of food web found only in aquatic environments.

58.

Explain factors (biotic & abiotic) that set carrying capacity and how that affects biodiversity. What is competition in an ecosystem?

a)

Different species and different individuals compete for limited resources (food, water, shelter, sunlight).

b)

Competition only occurs between animals of the same species for unlimited resources.

c)

Competition in an ecosystem means all organisms always cooperate for resources.

d)

Competition in an ecosystem is unrelated to the availability of resources.

59.

Refer to the logistic growth graph. Which of the following factors can limit population growth according to the diagram?

a)

Limited space

b)

Predators

c)

Disease

d)

Low food supply

e)

All of the above

60.

The human population graph shows an exponential increase due to advancements in which two areas? Advancements in _______ and _______ have led to exponential human population growth.

a)

medicine, agriculture

b)

transportation, communication

c)

architecture, engineering

d)

art, literature

61.

After prey increases, what happens to the predator population?

a)

Predator population decreases

b)

Predator population increases

c)

Predator population remains the same

62.

Refer to the diagram of Primary Succession. What is the correct order of stages in primary succession from a barren environment to a climax community?

a)

Climax Community → Intermediate Species → Pioneer Species → Barren Environment

b)

Barren Environment → Pioneer Species → Intermediate Species → Climax Community

c)

Pioneer Species → Barren Environment → Climax Community → Intermediate Species

d)

Intermediate Species → Climax Community → Barren Environment → Pioneer Species

63.

What is primary succession?

a)

Primary succession is the process by which organisms colonize a barren environment, leading to the formation of a new ecosystem over time.

b)

Primary succession is the process by which an ecosystem returns to its original state after a disturbance.

c)

Primary succession is the process by which animals migrate to new habitats during seasonal changes.

d)

Primary succession is the process by which plants adapt to already established ecosystems.

64.

Which of the following is an example of a human activity that impacts the environment?

a)

Overhunting / Overfishing / Direct Harvesting

b)

Succession

c)

Climax Community

d)

Pioneer Species

65.

What are invasive species?

a)

Invasive species are non-native and harmful species.

b)

Invasive species are native and beneficial species.

c)

Invasive species are only found in water bodies.

d)

Invasive species are extinct species.

66.

Plastic does not break down for hundreds of years, and can harm ________.

a)

animals

b)

rocks

c)

clouds

d)

machines

67.

Using biocides (pesticides/herbicides) can harm ______ organisms.

a)

unintended

b)

beneficial

c)

edible

d)

domesticated

68.

What is biomagnification?

a)

Biomagnification is when toxins become increasingly concentrated within living organisms as they move up each step of the food chain.

b)

Biomagnification is the process by which organisms break down toxins into harmless substances.

c)

Biomagnification is the decrease in toxin concentration as it moves up the food chain.

d)

Biomagnification is the movement of nutrients from the soil to plants.

69.

Fertilizer runoff from farms decreases oxygen in aquatic ecosystems. This process is called:

a)

Biomagnification

b)

Eutrophication

c)

Acid rain

d)

Ozone depletion

70.

Cutting down trees destroys habitats. This is known as ________.

a)

Deforestation / Habitat destruction

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Pollination

d)

Erosion

71.

SO2 and NO gas released by burning fossil fuels combines with water droplets to form ________.

a)

acidic rain

b)

sea water

c)

pure water

d)

snow

72.

Long term shifts in weather patterns due to greenhouse gases from burning fossil fuels trapping heat in the atmosphere is called:

a)

Climate change / Greenhouse effect

b)

Ozone depletion

c)

Acid rain

d)

Photosynthesis

73.

CFCs create holes in the ozone layer, leading to more UV radiation/skin cancer. This is called:

a)

Ozone depletion

b)

Greenhouse effect

c)

Acid rain

d)

Global warming

74.

What is the difference between renewable and nonrenewable resources?

a)

Renewable resources can be replenished naturally over time, while nonrenewable resources are finite and cannot be replaced on a human timescale.

b)

Renewable resources are always man-made, while nonrenewable resources are always natural.

c)

Renewable resources are more expensive than nonrenewable resources.

d)

Nonrenewable resources can be easily replaced, while renewable resources cannot.

75.

Which of the following best illustrates an ecological trade-off versus an economical trade-off when designing solutions to protect biodiversity?

a)

Setting aside land for wildlife habitat (ecological) versus using the land for agriculture (economical)

b)

Planting more trees in urban areas (ecological) versus building more parking lots (economical)

c)

Reducing pesticide use to protect pollinators (ecological) versus increasing crop yields with pesticides (economical)

d)

All of the above

76.

Which of the following is an example of group behavior within an ecosystem?

a)

Flocking, schooling, herding

b)

Acid rain

c)

Plastic pollution

d)

Eutrophication

77.

During which phase do sister chromatids separate in mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase/Telophase

d)

Meiosis 2

78.

In meiosis, how many haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of the process?

a)

4 haploid daughter cells

b)

2 haploid daughter cells

c)

8 haploid daughter cells

d)

1 haploid daughter cell

79.

Which of the following statements is true based on the group behavior images?

a)

All organisms live alone to thrive.

b)

Organisms use the power of the group to obtain food, defend themselves, and cope with changes.

c)

There are no specialized jobs in groups.

d)

Groups of organisms are always genetically related.

80.

Fill in the blank: In mitosis, duplicated chromosomes are two ________ chromatids.

a)

sister

b)

brother

c)

parental

d)

daughter

81.

In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate during Anaphase I.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which process results in 2 diploid daughter cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

83.

What is the process by which stem cells become specialized cells called?

a)

Differentiation or Specialization of cells

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Osmosis

84.

Stem cells are cells that have not _______ yet.

a)

differentiated

b)

divided

c)

matured

d)

multiplied

85.

What is the role of DNA and chromosomes in organisms?

a)

Coding the instructions for characteristic traits passed from parents to offspring.

b)

Providing energy for cellular respiration.

c)

Regulating the amount of water in cells.

d)

Transporting oxygen throughout the body.

86.

Which of the following best describes coding regions of DNA?

a)

Regions that do not code for proteins

b)

Regions that code for proteins

c)

Regions that attach methyl groups

d)

Regions that control cell division

87.

DNA methylation occurs when ______ groups attach to DNA and affect gene expression.

a)

methyl

b)

hydroxyl

c)

phosphate

d)

acetyl

88.

Non-coding regions of DNA do not code for proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Which of the following is a source of genetic variation?

a)

New genetic combinations through meiosis

b)

Viable errors occurring during meiosis or replication

c)

Mutations caused by environmental factors

d)

All of the above

90.

What process is illustrated in the diagram labeled 'Crossing Over - variation'?

a)

Crossing over during meiosis

b)

DNA replication during mitosis

c)

Transcription in the nucleus

d)

Translation at the ribosome

91.

Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by:

a)

Crossing over

b)

An extra chromosome 21

c)

Mutation by chemicals

d)

Sickle cell anemia

92.

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in which protein?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Insulin

c)

Collagen

d)

Keratin

93.

Which of the following is NOT an environmental factor that can cause mutations?

a)

UV Radiation

b)

Cigarette Smoke

c)

Barbecuing

d)

Crossing over

94.

What is the role of the ligase enzyme in the process of genetic engineering?

a)

The ligase enzyme sticks the insulin gene into the plasmid.

b)

The ligase enzyme cuts the plasmid at specific sites.

c)

The ligase enzyme synthesizes new DNA strands from RNA templates.

d)

The ligase enzyme removes introns from the insulin gene.

95.

What does the CAS9 protein do after identifying the target DNA?

a)

The CAS9 protein cuts the target DNA.

b)

The CAS9 protein repairs the target DNA.

c)

The CAS9 protein binds to RNA molecules.

d)

The CAS9 protein synthesizes new DNA strands.

96.

Describe the cause-and-effect relationship between DNA sequence and protein function. Give an example.

a)

If DNA sequence changes, then protein shape and function may change. Example: Sickle cell anemia.

b)

If DNA sequence changes, then protein function always remains the same. Example: Sickle cell anemia.

c)

If DNA sequence changes, then only the number of proteins changes, not their function. Example: Sickle cell anemia.

d)

If DNA sequence changes, then protein function is never affected. Example: Sickle cell anemia.