Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cellular Injury and Adaptation Quiz

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the sources, what is the primary mechanism by which cellular injury occurs in hypoxia?

a)

Accumulation of extracellular fluid

b)

Failure of ATP-dependent pumps

c)

Increased production of glycogen

d)

Decreased activity of reactive oxygen species

2.

A nurse is caring for a neonate shortly after birth. The nurse understands that the closure of the foramen ovale is primarily due to:

a)

Contraction of Wharton's Jelly

b)

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

c)

Low pressure within the left atrium

d)

Pressure changes in the atria

3.

Which type of cellular adaptation is characterized by a decrease in cell size due to decreased functional demand?

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Atrophy

d)

Hypertrophy

4.

According to the sources, which type of cellular change is described as disorderly appearance and growth of cells with abnormal variations in size, shape, and arrangement, and is NOT a true adaptive process?

a)

Metaplasia

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Atrophy

d)

Hypertrophy

5.

Which of the following is listed as the number one cause of cell death in the sources?

a)

Ischemia

b)

Reperfusion injury

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Chemical agents

6.

A nurse is educating a student about irreversible cell injury. The nurse states that critically damaged plasma, mitochondrial, and lysosomal membranes lead to cell death. This damage can be caused by:

a)

Glycogen depletion

b)

Lactate production

c)

Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS)

d)

ATP accumulation

7.

According to the sources, reperfusion injury can involve which of the following mechanisms?

a)

Decreased ROS formation

b)

Resolution of inflammation

c)

Calcium overload damaging mitochondria

d)

Decreased oxidative stress

8.

Which statement accurately contrasts necrosis and apoptosis according to the sources?

a)

Necrosis involves cell shrinkage, while apoptosis involves cell swelling.

b)

Necrosis causes inflammation, while apoptosis typically does not.

c)

Necrosis is programmed cell death, while apoptosis is random cell death.

d)

Necrosis results in the formation of apoptotic bodies, while apoptosis results in cell bursting.

9.

A patient is diagnosed with cystitis. Which clinical manifestation is associated with cystitis?

a)

Fever

b)

CVA Tenderness

c)

Dysuria

d)

Anorexia

10.

Which of the following is listed as the most common cause of Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)?

a)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b)

E. coli

c)

Schistosomiasis

d)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

11.

A nurse is assessing an older adult patient for a UTI. Which atypical presentation might be observed?

a)

High fever and chills

b)

CVA tenderness

c)

New onset confusion

d)

Vomiting and diarrhea

12.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by which pathogens?

a)

E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Gonorrhea and chlamydia

d)

Enteroviruses and herpes simplex

13.

According to the sources, a hallmark sign of infection seen in Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is:

a)

Unilateral abdominal tenderness

b)

Increased WBCs

c)

Vaginal douching

d)

Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

14.

Which complication is listed as a potential outcome of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

a)

Reduced risk of ectopic pregnancy

b)

Infertility due to scar tissue

c)

Decreased chronic pelvic pain

d)

Easier descent of the egg

15.

According to the sources, what is the primary mechanism by which the RAAS system increases blood pressure?

a)

Decreasing blood volume and vascular resistance

b)

Increasing heart rate and stroke volume

c)

Increasing blood volume and vascular resistance

d)

Decreasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

16.

Hypertension is often referred to as the "silent killer" because:

a)

It only affects a small percentage of the population.

b)

Symptoms are often not noticeable until damage is done.

c)

It is easily cured with lifestyle modifications.

d)

It is always related to a specific cause.

17.

What percentage of hypertension cases are classified as Primary HTN, having no clearly identifiable etiology?

a)

10%

b)

30%

c)

60%

d)

90%

18.

Which of the following is listed as a modifiable risk factor for hypertension?

a)

Increased age

b)

Assigned male at birth

c)

Family history

d)

Unhealthy diet

19.

According to the sources, a diagnosis of hypertension requires elevated blood pressure readings on how many separate occasions?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

20.

Preeclampsia is diagnosed after 20 weeks gestation with new onset hypertension AND which additional factor(s)?

a)

Bradycardia and hypotension

b)

Proteinuria factors

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Elevated blood sugar

21.

Which condition in pregnancy is characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets?

a)

Gestational HTN

b)

Chronic HTN

c)

Eclampsia

d)

HELLP

22.

According to the sources, what is considered the #1 treatment for severe preeclampsia?

a)

Antihypertensives

b)

Seizure prophylaxis

c)

Delivery of the placenta

d)

Aspirin

23.

According to the sources, what percentage of pulmonary emboli originate from Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) in the lower extremities?

a)

30%

b)

60%

c)

90%

d)

10%

24.

Virchow's triad, which increases the risk for thrombus formation leading to a Pulmonary Embolism, includes:

a)

Hypotension, hypercoagulable conditions, and vessel wall injury

b)

Vessel wall injury, hypercoagulable conditions, and circulatory stasis

c)

Circulatory stasis, vasodilation, and vessel wall injury

d)

Hypercoagulable conditions, increased blood flow, and vessel wall injury

25.

According to the sources, which symptom is an assessment finding associated with Pulmonary Embolism?

a)

Decreased respiratory rate

b)

Chest pain

c)

Increased SpO2

d)

Feeling of euphoria

26.

Which diagnostic test is considered the diagnostic test for Pulmonary Embolism according to the sources?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

c)

Elevated D-dimer

d)

CT angiogram

27.

Asthma is classified as which type of lung disease?

a)

Restrictive

b)

Obstructive

c)

Infectious

d)

Vascular

28.

The three mechanisms involved in asthma are hyperresponsiveness, bronchoconstriction, and reversible airflow obstruction. These occur in the:

a)

Alveoli

b)

Pleural space

c)

Bronchial mucosa

d)

Pulmonary capillaries

29.

According to the sources, which cells degranulate in the early response of asthma pathophysiology, releasing inflammatory mediators like histamine?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Mast cells

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Macrophages

30.

The late response in asthma pathophysiology, occurring hours after initial allergen exposure, involves the recruitment of leukocytes and the synthesis of which mediator that causes prolonged smooth muscle contraction?

a)

Histamine

b)

Prostaglandin

c)

Leukotriene

d)

Serotonin

31.

Which finding is the most common clinical manifestation of asthma listed?

a)

Inspiratory wheezing

b)

Non-productive cough

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hypotension

32.

In the Asthma Action Plan, a peak flow meter reading that is 80% or more of the personal best indicates the patient is in which zone?

a)

Red Zone

b)

Yellow Zone

c)

Green Zone

d)

Orange Zone

33.

Bronchiolitis primarily affects which age group?

a)

Neonates (birth-1 month)

b)

Infants 3-6 months old

c)

Toddlers (1-3 years old)

d)

School-aged children (6-12 years old)

34.

According to the sources, bronchiolitis is usually secondary to which cause?

a)

Autoimmune disorders

b)

Congenital heart defects

c)

Infectious agents like RSV

d)

Environmental pollutants

35.

The pathophysiology of bronchiolitis involves inflammation and swelling deep in the lungs, leading to mucus buildup and resulting in:

a)

Increased gas exchange and improved oxygenation

b)

Decreased airway resistance and increased airflow

c)

Atelectasis and air-trapping/hyperinflation

d)

Bronchodilation and decreased mucus production

36.

According to the sources, why does a small amount of inflammation cause drastic changes in infants with bronchiolitis?

a)

Infants have more developed immune systems.

b)

Infants have short and smaller airways.

c)

Infants are obligate mouth breathers.

d)

Infants have larger lung capacity.

37.

What is the recommended method for treating mucus buildup in infants with bronchiolitis according to the sources?

a)

Albuterol nebulizers

b)

Oral antibiotics

c)

Nasal or oral suctioning

d)

Intubation

38.

A seizure that affects both sides of the brain at the same time is classified as:

a)

Focal seizure

b)

Partial seizure

c)

Generalized seizure

d)

Simple partial seizure

39.

According to the sources, what is the definition of status epilepticus?

a)

A seizure lasting less than 5 minutes

b)

A subjective sense of impending seizure

c)

A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes or more than 1 seizure within a 5-minute period without return to normal LOC

d)

The period immediately following a seizure

40.

Which type of generalized seizure is characterized by a sudden, brief loss of consciousness, often presenting as staring or daydreaming?

a)

Tonic-clonic

b)

Absence

c)

Myoclonic

d)

Atonic

41.

Which type of focal seizure involves no change in the patient's level of consciousness?

a)

Complex

b)

Simple

c)

Secondarily generalized

d)

Atonic

42.

According to the sources, febrile seizures are primarily seen between what ages?

a)

Birth - 6 months

b)

6 months - 5 years old

c)

5 years old - adolescence

d)

Adolescence - adulthood

43.

Intracranial pressure (ICP) is exerted by the contents of the cranium, which includes:

a)

Brain matter, CSF, and blood

b)

Bone, meninges, and blood

c)

CSF, bone, and brain matter

d)

Brain matter, blood, and bone

44.

According to the sources, what is the earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Headache

c)

Seizures

d)

Change in the patient's level of consciousness (LOC)

45.

Cushing's Triad, a late sign of increased ICP, includes:

a)

Increased SBP/widened pulse pressure + increased pulse + altered respirations

b)

Decreased SBP/narrowed pulse pressure + decreased pulse + altered respirations

c)

Increased SBP/widened pulse pressure + decreased pulse + altered respirations

d)

Decreased SBP/narrowed pulse pressure + increased pulse + altered respirations

46.

According to the sources, which finding is specific to increased ICP in infants?

a)

Increased SBP

b)

Decreased pulse

c)

High-pitched cry

d)

Altered respirations

47.

Meningitis is defined as inflammation or infection of the:

a)

Brain tissue

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Meninges and subarachnoid spaces

d)

Ventricles of the brain

48.

According to the sources, which pathogen is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

E. coli

c)

Group B- beta hemolytic streptococci

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

49.

A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected meningitis. Which sign indicates meningeal irritation?

a)

Petechial rash

b)

Decreased LOC

c)

Fever

d)

Nuchal rigidity

50.

A lumbar puncture is performed on a patient with suspected meningitis. Which finding in the CSF analysis would support a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

a)

Low WBCs, high glucose, low protein

b)

High WBCs/neutrophils, low glucose, high protein

c)

Normal WBCs, normal glucose, normal protein

d)

Low WBCs/lymphocytes, high glucose, low protein

51.

What percentage of the body weight in adults is comprised of fluid?

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

52.

According to the sources, when fluid moves from the intravascular space to a 'third' space where it cannot be used for metabolic processes or perfusion, this is called:

a)

Intracellular accumulation

b)

Cellular swelling

c)

Third spacing

d)

Hypervolemia

53.

Edema is the excessive accumulation of fluid within which space?

a)

Intracellular space

b)

Intravascular space

c)

Peritoneal cavity

d)

Interstitial space

54.

Which of the following can cause a decrease in capillary oncotic pressure, leading to edema?

a)

CHF

b)

Renal failure

c)

Malnutrition

d)

Inflammation

55.

Which vital sign change is associated with hypovolemia?

a)

Increased BP

b)

Decreased HR

c)

Increased HR

d)

Bounding pulses

56.

According to the sources, a pediatric sign of hypovolemia is:

a)

Increased weight

b)

Bulging fontanelles

c)

Sunken fontanelles

d)

Warm extremities

57.

Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of hypervolemia?

a)

Decreased BP

b)

Dry mucous membranes

c)

JVD

d)

Poor capillary refill

58.

Sodium (Na+) is the major cation in which body fluid compartment?

a)

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

b)

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

c)

Both ICF and ECF equally

d)

Plasma only

59.

A patient with hyponatremia might exhibit which physical assessment finding?

a)

Thirst

b)

Muscle irritability

c)

Confusion

d)

Elevated BP

60.

According to the sources, which condition can cause potassium (K+) to shift into the cell, leading to hypokalemia?

a)

Acidosis

b)

Insufficient insulin

c)

Crushing injuries

d)

Insulin administration

61.

Potassium (K+) is the major cation in which body fluid compartment?

a)

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

b)

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

c)

Both ECF and ICF equally

d)

Interstitial fluid only

62.

According to the sources, which electrolyte imbalance is often seen co-occurring with acidosis?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia