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N396 Exam 1 100Qs

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ampicillin 75 mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses; child 16 kg. What is the single-dose amount?

a)

200 mg

b)

300 mg

c)

400 mg

d)

480 mg

2.

Label: Cefazolin 500 mg = 5 mL. Order: 300 mg IV. How many mL?

a)

2.5

b)

3.0

c)

3.5

d)

4.0

3.

Acetaminophen 12 mg/kg PO q6 h PRN; infant 9.2 kg; stock 160 mg/5 mL. Give ____ mL.

a)

2.9

b)

1.8

c)

3.5

d)

4.6

4.

Holliday-Segar 24-h maintenance for 28 kg child = ____ mL.

a)

2100

b)

1800

c)

2400

d)

1500

5.

Heparin 15 u/kg/h; 21 kg child; bag = 25,000 u in 250 mL. Pump rate?

a)

1.3 mL/h

b)

3.2 mL/h

c)

12 mL/h

d)

31 mL/h

6.

Vancomycin 15 mg/kg q8 h over 90 min; 32 kg; pharmacy dilutes to 250 mL. Infusion rate?

a)

100 mL/h

b)

125 mL/h

c)

167 mL/h

d)

250 mL/h

7.

Bright-red diaper rash with satellite lesions into skin folds =

a)

Irritant dermatitis

b)

Intertrigo

c)

Candida dermatitis

d)

Miliaria

8.

Linear greyish burrows between finger webs most likely indicate

a)

Pediculosis

b)

Eczema

c)

Scabies

d)

Tinea corporis

9.

The early Lyme-disease skin lesion is best described as

a)

Vesicular clusters

b)

Annular erythema with central clearing

c)

Petechial macules

d)

Pustular bullae

10.

First-line therapy for tinea capitis is

a)

Topical ketoconazole

b)

Hydrocortisone

c)

Oral griseofulvin

d)

Oral acyclovir

11.

Teaching to prevent head-lice reinfestation should include

a)

Skip nit-comb use

b)

One-time shampoo only

c)

Wash linens in cold water

d)

Hot-wash & high-heat dry linens

12.

Child with periorbital cellulitis—priority nurse action?

a)

Warm compresses

b)

Home oral antibiotics

c)

Immediate ophthalmology referral

d)

Topical steroid

13.

Which outcome shows effective eczema control after 2 weeks?

a)

Open weeping lesions

b)

Intact hydrated skin & ↓ pruritus

c)

New secondary infection

d)

Scratch marks present

14.

Cellulitis: which finding warrants provider notification?

a)

Pain 4/10

b)

Temperature 37.6 °C

c)

Erythema extending beyond marked border

d)

Itching

15.

Best evaluation criterion for impetigo home plan?

a)

No new lesions for 14 days

b)

Finished antibiotics

c)

Returned to school

d)

Parent verbalises understanding

16.

Normal 4-year-old ability includes

a)

Hopping on one foot & 4-word sentences

b)

Skipping rope

c)

Adding numbers

d)

Copying triangle

17.

A 9-month-old should be able to

a)

Say two-word phrases

b)

Pull to stand

c)

Ride toys

d)

Walk upstairs

18.

Cooperative play typically emerges at

a)

Toddlers

b)

Preschool (parallel)

c)

≥ 5 years (school-age)

d)

Infancy

19.

10-month-old weight unchanged since 6 mo. First nursing action?

a)

Discuss diet

b)

Re-plot growth & notify provider

c)

Reassure parent

d)

Order labs

20.

Parent of 3-year-old: “We’ll lock cleaning supplies.” This shows

a)

Excessive fear

b)

Correct safety anticipation

c)

Developmental delay

d)

Ineffective teaching

21.

During adolescent exam the nurse should

a)

Keep parent in room

b)

Use yes/no questions

c)

Plan private time with teen

d)

Skip sexual health topics

22.

Best psychosocial screening tool for teens in clinic?

a)

Denver II

b)

Apgar

c)

HEADSSS

d)

Braden

23.

15-month-old cannot stand while holding on. Nurse should

a)

Recheck in 6 mo

b)

Refer for developmental evaluation

c)

Ignore—normal variant

d)

Order CT

24.

For growth-chart plotting, prematurity correction stops at

a)

6 mo

b)

1 yr

c)

2 yrs

d)

5 yrs

25.

Tired teen up past midnight: best nurse response

a)

“It’s normal—don’t worry.”

b)

“Take melatonin.”

c)

“Adolescents need ~8 h sleep; let’s plan a routine.”

d)

“Ban all devices.”

26.

Nutrition advice for picky 7-year-old

a)

Force-feed veggies

b)

Offer nutrient-dense snacks & model healthy eating

c)

Use dessert as reward

d)

Skip meals

27.

Safe risk-taking teaching for teens should emphasise

a)

“No risks allowed”

b)

Supervised protective environments

c)

Ignore peers

d)

Legal consequences only

28.

Common toddler response to admission is

a)

Euphoria

b)

Separation-anxiety protest

c)

Hypersociability

d)

Indifference

29.

Which parent behavior signals maladaptation?

a)

Asks questions

b)

Avoids visiting child

c)

Keeps routine

d)

Participates in care

30.

Preschooler fears IV start chiefly due to

a)

Needle pain only

b)

Loss of body “boundaries”

c)

Blood loss

d)

Parent anger

31.

Most effective non-drug analgesia for 6-year-old venipuncture

a)

Silent presence

b)

Distraction + vibration (e.g., Buzzy®)

c)

Imagery app for toddler

d)

Restraint

32.

To maintain industry in hospitalised school-ager

a)

Let child rest only

b)

Provide homework & achievable tasks

c)

Give toys for toddlers

d)

Skip schedules

33.

Research shows parental presence during procedures usually

a)

Increases distress

b)

No effect

c)

Decreases child anxiety

d)

Delays care

34.

Infant with RSV on high-flow O₂: priority diagnosis

a)

Risk for skin breakdown

b)

Ineffective airway clearance

c)

Altered nutrition

d)

Anxiety

35.

Best discharge teaching evaluation for trach-dependent child

a)

Parent verbalises steps

b)

Parent performs trach change correctly

c)

Provided brochure

d)

Home health referral

36.

During rounds, nurse’s key role is to

a)

Present only vitals

b)

Advocate for family goals & summarise plan

c)

Quietly observe

d)

Write orders

37.

Child-life specialist most valuable when

a)

Administering antibiotics

b)

Preparing preschooler for MRI with medical play

c)

Drawing labs in teen

d)

Calculating meds

38.

Planning 5-year-old burn-dressing change, nurse + child-life should

a)

Skip rehearsal

b)

Develop coping plan & rehearsal

c)

Offer candy only

d)

Exclude parents

39.

Before discharge, child-life can help a 9-year-old post-appendectomy by

a)

Changing dressings

b)

Creating a home play/return-to-school plan

c)

Filling prescriptions

d)

Placing IV

40.

FLACC 7/10 in 2-year-old post-op. First action?

a)

Document only

b)

Give ordered analgesic & reassess

c)

Teach imagery

d)

Delay meds

41.

30 min after IV morphine: which requires intervention?

a)

Sedated but arousable

b)

SpO₂ 95%

c)

Resp 8 min

d)

Pain 3/10

42.

Best reassessment tool for verbal 5-year-old

a)

Numeric 0–10

b)

CRIES

c)

FACES scale

d)

Glasgow

43.

Most effective distraction for infant during IV start

a)

Guided imagery

b)

Sucrose-dipped pacifier with soft music

c)

Deep breathing

d)

Video game

44.

Deep-breathing & guided imagery suit which group?

a)

Infants

b)

Toddlers

c)

School-age children

d)

Neonates

45.

Enhancing adolescent pain-med adherence at home includes

a)

Parent gives all meds

b)

Teach pain diary & phone reminders

c)

No self-administration

d)

Skip opioids

46.

Infants are prone to obstruction chiefly because of

a)

Smaller stomach

b)

Large tongue + narrow airway

c)

Strong cough

d)

Low metabolic rate

47.

Children < 6 mo are obligatory

a)

Mouth breathers

b)

Chest breathers

c)

Nasal breathers

d)

Diaphragm breathers

48.

Nasal congestion is dangerous in neonates because

a)

They swallow air

b)

Airway patency relies on nasal passages

c)

High tidal volume

d)

High reserve

49.

Nasal flaring + grunting in 3-week-old signify

a)

Mild cold

b)

Impending respiratory failure

c)

Teething

d)

Normal crying

50.

Which room-air SpO₂ in a child requires action?

a)

98%

b)

95%

c)

93%

d)

89%

51.

Best site for capillary refill in febrile 4-year-old

a)

Toe

b)

Ear lobe

c)

Sternum (central)

d)

Finger nail with polish

52.

Asthma attack: child using accessory muscles, speaks 2-word phrases. First nurse action?

a)

Encourage fluids

b)

Administer short-acting bronchodilator

c)

Supine position

d)

Teach PFM

53.

CF admission: which order should be questioned?

a)

Daily CPT

b)

High-calorie diet

c)

Codeine cough suppressant

d)

Pancreatic enzymes

54.

Discharge teaching for viral croup emphasises

a)

Antibiotics course

b)

Cool-mist & calming the child

c)

Hot steam showers only

d)

Oral steroids for months

55.

Bronchiolitis infant with head midline, shoulders elevated benefits because this position

a)

Reduces fever

b)

Opens upper airway & eases diaphragm work

c)

Improves digestion

d)

Prevents reflux

56.

Most effective way to thin CF mucus

a)

Humidified oxygen only

b)

Bronchodilator alone

c)

Chest physiotherapy + hydration

d)

Bed rest

57.

Adolescent sickle-cell crisis, chest pain, SpO₂ 91%. Priority?

a)

IV fluids

b)

Pain meds

c)

Apply high-flow oxygen

d)

Teach coughing

58.

Trait predisposing toddlers to poison ingestion

a)

Abstract thought

b)

Fear of new objects

c)

Oral curiosity & exploration

d)

Advanced judgment

59.

Highest bicycle-injury incidence occurs in

a)

Toddlers

b)

School-age (6–10 yr)

c)

Infants

d)

Teens

60.

Hot-water scald burns most common in

a)

Infants

b)

Toddlers (1–3 yr)

c)

School-age

d)

Adolescents

61.

Primary survey sequence in pediatric trauma

a)

CABDE

b)

DCBAE

c)

ABCDE (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure)

d)

ABDEC

62.

Fluid resuscitation for 18% TBSA partial-thickness burns in a 4-year-old should begin

a)

After debridement

b)

Within first 30 min

c)

At 8 h

d)

Next day

63.

House-fire victim with singed nasal hairs—immediate action

a)

Nebulise saline

b)

Prepare for early intubation

c)

Cool compress

d)

Chest X-ray later

64.

What is the correct dose per day for a 16 kg patient if the medication is 75 mg/kg?

a)

200 mg

b)

300 mg

c)

400 mg

d)

480 mg

65.

How many mL should be administered if 500 mg is equivalent to 5 mL and the required dose is 300 mg?

a)

2.5 mL

b)

3 mL

c)

3.5 mL

d)

4 mL

66.

Calculate the correct volume in mL for a dose of 160 mg if 12 mg is equivalent to 9.2 kg.

a)

2 mL

b)

2.5 mL

c)

2.9 mL

d)

3.5 mL

67.

Using the Holliday-Segar method, what is the correct fluid requirement in mL for a 24-hour period for a patient weighing 28 kg?

a)

1,400 mL

b)

1,700 mL

c)

1,800 mL

d)

2,000 mL

68.

If a bag contains 25,000 units per 250 mL, how many mL should be administered for a dose of 315 units per hour?

a)

1.3 mL

b)

3.2 mL

c)

12 mL

d)

31 mL

69.

What is the correct infusion rate in mL per hour if the dose is 15 mg/kg and the pharmacy provides a dilution of 250 mL over 1.5 hours?

a)

100 mL/h

b)

150 mL/h

c)

167 mL/h

d)

200 mL/h

70.

What is a classic symptom of scabies as outlined in the text?

a)

Beefy-red rash with satellite lesions

b)

Linear grey burrows at finger webs

c)

Erythema migrans "bull's-eye" lesion

d)

Periorbital cellulitis

71.

What is the recommended treatment duration for oral griseofulvin in capitis?

a)

2-4 weeks

b)

4-6 weeks

c)

6-8 weeks

d)

8-10 weeks

72.

What is the goal of an eczema plan according to the text?

a)

Reduce redness and swelling

b)

Itch control, moisture, infection prevention

c)

Increase skin thickness

d)

Eliminate all skin lesions

73.

What does spreading cellulitis suggest according to the guidance?

a)

Mild irritation

b)

Risk of sepsis

c)

Simple skin rash

d)

Temporary discomfort

74.

What is emphasized in the pediculosis plan?

a)

Use of cold water

b)

Single shampoo application

c)

Hot water & dryer

d)

Nit-comb usage

75.

What is a 9-month gross-motor milestone?

a)

Hop on one foot

b)

Pull to stand

c)

Speak sentences

d)

Cooperative play

76.

At what age is cooperative play typically observed?

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

7 years

77.

What is the HEADSSS screening tool used for?

a)

Gross-motor skills

b)

Language development

c)

Psychosocial risk

d)

Nutritional assessment

78.

What is the recommended amount of sleep for adolescents?

a)

6 hours

b)

7 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

9 hours

79.

What is a classic toddler reaction on admission according to the therapeutic-care objectives?

a)

Avoids visiting

b)

Separation-anxiety protest

c)

Loss of body boundaries

d)

Ineffective airway clearance

80.

What does withdrawal indicate in the context of maladaptation?

a)

Coping

b)

Maladaptation

c)

Productive tasks

d)

Parental presence

81.

Why do preschoolers worry about their body according to the therapeutic-care objectives?

a)

They fear separation

b)

They need productive tasks

c)

They worry their body will leak/lose parts

d)

They require safe risk-taking

82.

What is the highest ABC priority for an RSV infant on high-flow?

a)

Separation-anxiety protest

b)

Ineffective airway clearance

c)

Loss of body boundaries

d)

Avoids visiting

83.

What aligns with child-life expertise in procedural preparation (MRI)?

a)

Separation-anxiety protest

b)

Aligns with objective

c)

Avoids visiting

d)

Loss of body boundaries

84.

What is the rationale for using a rehearsal/coping plan in procedural success?

a)

It decreases anxiety in children.

b)

It maximizes 5-year procedural success.

c)

It reduces the need for medication.

d)

It shortens recovery time.

85.

How does a school-re-entry play plan benefit children post-discharge?

a)

It improves physical health.

b)

It supports psychosocial transition.

c)

It enhances academic performance.

d)

It reduces hospital readmission rates.

86.

What is the recommended intervention when bradypnoea occurs after opioid use?

a)

Increase the opioid dosage.

b)

Administer a sedative.

c)

Respond to the potential overdose.

d)

Ignore the symptom.

87.

Why is a numeric pain scale considered reliable for children over 8 years old?

a)

It is validated for children aged 4-8 years.

b)

It is easy for children to understand.

c)

It provides consistent results.

d)

It is validated for children over 8 years.

88.

What is the effect of sucrose and soothing music on infants?

a)

It increases their appetite.

b)

It is proven effective for pain relief.

c)

It helps them sleep longer.

d)

It reduces their crying.

89.

Why are infants under 6 months considered obligate nasal breathers?

a)

They have a large tongue.

b)

They have a narrow airway.

c)

They primarily breathe through their nose.

d)

They cannot breathe through their mouth.

90.

What is the significance of a central refill in assessing core perfusion?

a)

It is reliable with fever.

b)

It reflects peripheral perfusion.

c)

It reflects core perfusion.

d)

It is unreliable with fever.

91.

What is the first step in managing an airway issue according to the provided material?

a)

Administer fluids

b)

Give SABA

c)

Provide antibiotics

d)

Start teaching

92.

How does an opiate antitussive affect mucus clearance in cystic fibrosis?

a)

Enhances clearance

b)

Has no effect

c)

Hinders clearance

d)

Clears mucus completely

93.

What is the recommended management for viral croup?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Cool mist and calm environment

c)

Opiate antitussive

d)

Increased fluids

94.

What position is suggested to align the airway and reduce diaphragm workload?

a)

Supine position

b)

"Sniffing" position

c)

Prone position

d)

Lateral position

95.

What is the priority in suspected acute chest syndrome?

a)

Pain medication

b)

Fluid administration

c)

Oxygen

d)

Antibiotics

96.

At what age do cycling injuries peak according to the epidemiology provided?

a)

3-5 years

b)

6-10 years

c)

11-15 years

d)

16-20 years

97.

What is a common cause of scald patterns in toddlers?

a)

Pulling hot liquids

b)

Touching hot surfaces

c)

Playing with fire

d)

Sunburn

98.

What is the established primary survey sequence mentioned in the material?

a)

ABC

b)

CAB

c)

ABCDE

d)

DEFG

99.

What is the rationale for starting burn resuscitation (Parkland) as soon as possible?

a)

To prevent infection

b)

To prevent hypovolaemia

c)

To reduce pain

d)

To improve mobility

100.

What does the presence of singed hairs indicate in airway management?

a)

No immediate action needed

b)

Secure airway first

c)

Administer pain relief

d)

Start fluid resuscitation