wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Dr. Mo Exam 1: Part 1

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr. Zur is taking Spectracef for the treatment of his acute bacterial exacerbation of chronic bronchitis; Which of the following is he ingesting?

a)

Cefmenoxime

b)

Cefpodoxime

c)

Cefditoren

d)

Cefdinir

e)

Cefsulodin

2.

Hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent ingestion of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Tekturna

b)

Inspra

c)

Invokana

d)

Zestril

e)

Oretic

3.

Which of the following bacteria is BEST classified as a gram-negative, aerobic, non-enteric bacillus?

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

Morganella morganii

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Burkholderia cepacia

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

4.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Concurrent administration of:

a)

Nafcillin and Coumadin may result in a decrease in International Normalized Ratio

b)

Ticarcillin and Lasix may result in additive hypokalemia

c)

Penicillin G and Benemid may result in a decrease in the renal tubular secretion of Penicillin G

d)

Ampicillin and Beyaz may result in contraceptive failure

e)

Penicillin G and an Aminoglycoside, in vivo, may result in the inactivation of the Aminoglycoside

5.

Which of the following is a Major Penicillin Determinant that is employed in the skin test to determine allergy to Penicillin?

a)

Carboxypenicillin

b)

Benzylpenicilloyl-N-propylamine

c)

Benzylpenicilloate

d)

Penicilloyl polylyine

e)

Procaine Penicillin G

6.

An individual who is severely allergic to Tazobactam only should not be given which of the following? SATA

a)

Timentin

b)

Augmentin

c)

Unasyn

d)

Zosyn

e)

Zerbaxa

7.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Ceftriaxone?

a)

Biliary stasis

b)

Elevation of conjugated bilirubin plasma levels

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Pseudolithiasis

e)

Biliary sludging

8.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be observed during therapy with Rocephin (Ceftriaxone)? SATA

a)

Kernicterus

b)

Biliary Stasis

c)

Biliary Slogging

d)

Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin in the plasma

e)

Pseudolithiasis

9.

Which of the following is the appropriate dosage of Fetroja (Cefiderocol)?

a)

200 mg PO Q8 hrs

b)

500 mg IV infusion Q3 hrs

c)

1 g IV infusion Q 12 hrs

d)

2 g IV infusion over 30 min Q6 hrs

e)

2 g IV infusion over 3 hrs Q8 hrs

10.

Which of the following will grow on a MacConkey agar? (Gram-Negative Organism)

a)

Staphylococcus saprophytic

b)

Streptobacillus Moniliformis

c)

Clostridium difficile

d)

Bacillus anthracis

e)

Peptostreptococcus anaerobium

11.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 4th-generation Cephalosporin? SATA

a)

Ceftaroline

b)

Cefpirome

c)

Cefozopram

d)

Cefixime

e)

Cefmenoxime

12.

A biological specimen from an infectious disease patient revealed the presence of bacteria like a molar tooth. Which of the following was responsible for the patient's infection?

a)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Actinomyces Israelii

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

13.

Which of the following statements about Televancin is FALSE?

a)

It produces a concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

b)

It is effective in the treatment of Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus-induced endocarditis

c)

It is administered intravenously on a QD basis

d)

It can produce hemorrhagic episodes

e)

It can cause the redman syndrome

14.

Which of the following is LEAST LIEKLY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Eosinophillic Pneumonia

c)

Myopathy

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hypophosphatemia

15.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce the Disulfiram-like effect when administered concomitantly with Alcohol?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefoperazone

d)

Cefmetazole

e)

Moxalactam

16.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be nephrotoxic?

a)

Cefazolin (Ancef)

b)

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin)

c)

Cefepime (Maxipime)

d)

Cephalexin (Keflex)

e)

Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

17.

Which of the following statements about Teflaro is INCORRECT?

a)

It has a half-life of 2.6 hours

b)

It is administered intravenously

c)

About 88% of the administered dose is excreted through the urine

d)

It is rapidly converted to its active moiety by cytochrome P4503A4

e)

It is about 20% plasma protein-bound

18.

Which of the following statements about Teflaro is CORRECT? SATA

a)

About 80% of the administered dose will be excreted through the urine

b)

The drug is about 20% Plasma Protein Bound

c)

It is rapidly converted to its active motility by Phosphatases

d)

It can be given intravenously

e)

It has a half-life of about 2.6 hours

19.

Which of the following inhibits the cross-linking of peptidoglycan after binding to Penicillin-binding protein 2a?

a)

Aztreonam

b)

Imipenem

c)

Ceftobiprole

d)

Bacitracin

e)

Cefixime

20.

Which of the following statements about Azactam is FALSE?

a)

Its half-life is shorter in elderly patients

b)

It binds to PBP-3

c)

It is administered IV and IM

d)

It is excreted through the feces and the urine

e)

It can be given by inhalation

21.

Which of the following statements about Aztreonam (Azactam) is TRUE? SATA

a)

It binds to PBP-3

b)

It can be administered IM and IV

c)

It undergoes excretion through the renal system and through the feces

d)

It's half-life is longer in elderly patients

e)

It can be administered by inhalation

22.

Claforan is LEAST LIKELY to be effective in the treatment of an infection caused by which of the following?

a)

Bacteroides fragilis

b)

Pasteurella maltocida

c)

Shigella Flexneri

d)

Borrelia burgoferi

e)

Haemophilus influenzae

23.

Which of the following is NOT a parameter or factor that is common to Penicillins?

a)

Binding to PBP-1 and PBP-3

b)

Cross-allergenicty

c)

Time-dependent bactericidal effect

d)

6-beta-Aminopenicillinaic acid nucleus

e)

Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis at the third stage

24.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Pivmecillinam when it is employed in the treatment of uncomplicated UTI?

a)

200 mg PO QID

b)

200 mg IV stat, then 400 mg IV TID

c)

400 mg IV stat, then 200 mg PO Q8 hrs

d)

80 mg PO stat, then 400 mg IV Q8 hrs

e)

400 mg PO Q8 hrs

25.

Which of the following statements about Pivya is FALSE?

a)

It is highly effective against ESBL-producing bacteria

b)

It is highly plasma protein-bound

c)

It has a half-life of 1-1.5 hours

d)

It is a pivalloyloxymethyl ester of Amdinocillin

e)

It is excreted through the urine and bile

26.

Which of the following statements about Teichoplanin is FALSE?

a)

It is shorter-acting than Vancomycin

b)

It has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin

c)

Like Vancomycin, it undergoes urinary excretion

d)

Like Vancomycin, it is effective against Clostridium difficile

e)

Unlike Vancomycin. it does not produce the redman syndrome

27.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Seromycin (Cycloserine)?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Fever

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Elevation of blood pressure

e)

Fatigue

28.

Which of the following is a manifestation of Cycloserine-induced neurotoxicity? SATA

a)

Restlessness

b)

Anxiety

c)

Seizures

d)

Irritability

e)

Twitches

29.

Which of the following statements about the mechanism(s) of action of Teixobactin is TRUE? SATA

a)

It binds Lipid II

b)

It binds Lipid III

c)

It prevents the binding of NAG to NAM

d)

It prevents the transportation of Peptidoglycans to the outer surface of the bacterial cell membrane

e)

It inhibits the dephospho rylation of Bactoprenol

30.

Which of the following is LIKELY to produce a toxic type of food poisoning? SATA

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Salmonella enteritidis

c)

Clostridium botulinum

d)

Campylobacter jejuni

e)

Shigella sonnei

31.

Thioglycolate broth plus Neutral Red is used to identify which of the following bacteria?

a)

Urea-splitting

b)

Indole-positive

c)

Coagulase-positive

d)

Lactose fermenters

e)

Catalase-negative

32.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet Fever ---> Streptococcus pyogenes

b)

Toxic Shock Syndrome --> Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Lockjaw --> Actinomyces Israelii

d)

Acute Necrotizing Fasciitis --> Group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

e)

Plague --> Yersinia pestis

33.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a clinical indication of Recarbrio (Imipenem/Cilastatin/Relebactam)?

a)

Complicated Intra-abdominal infection

b)

Complicated UTI

c)

Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

Ventillator-associated bacterial pneumonia

e)

Chronic otitis media

34.

Which of the following is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus (CRE)? SATA

a)

Polymyxin B

b)

Teixobactin

c)

Tigecycline

d)

Temocillin

e)

Tebipenem

35.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Cefiderocol?

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Status epilepticus

c)

Hypermagnesemia

d)

Asterixis

e)

Hypersensitivity reaction

36.

Which of the following would be an adverse effect of Fetroja (Cefiderocol)?

a)

Hypersensitivity

b)

Asterixis

c)

Status Epilepticus

d)

Atrial Fibrillation

e)

Hypomagnesemia

37.

Which of the following is a mechanism of action of Fosfomycin? SATA

a)

Inhibition of the translation of RANTES

b)

Inhibition of Interleukins-1 beta, 2 and 8

c)

Increasing the phagocytic activity of neutrophils

d)

Inhibition of pyruval transferase

e)

Prevention of the incidence of Cystic Fibrosis

38.

Which of the following is the usual dosage of Monaural in the management of complicated UTI?

a)

3 gm of granules mixed with 3-4 oz of cold water and taken orally once

b)

500 mg PO BID

c)

1 gm PO BID

d)

4 g IV Q6Hr

e)

8 g IM Q12Hr

39.

Cefazolin is employed prophylactically for which of the following procedures? SATA

a)

Coronary artery bypass grafting

b)

Hysterectomy

c)

Joint Replacement

d)

Dental Surgery

e)

Colorectal Surgery

40.

Which of the following is a common characteristic or property of Vancomycin-related glycopeptides? SATA

a)

Concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

b)

Hemorrhage (Bleeding) Episodes

c)

Long duration of action

d)

IV administration

e)

Effectiveness against VRE

41.

A medical team should exercise caution when administering ____ concurrently with alcohol. SATA

a)

Keflex (Cephalexin)

b)

Cefotan (Cefotetan)

c)

Moxam

d)

Cefobid (Cefoperazone Sodium)

e)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone)

42.

Considering its spectrum of antibacterial activity, Cefotaxin should NOT be used to treat an infection caused by which ion the following?

a)

Borrelia Burgdoferi

b)

Haemophilus Inflenzae (H. Flu)

c)

Shigella F

d)

Bacterodes Fragilis

e)

Asterella Mon

43.

Which of the following is a causative agent of Acute Necrotizing Fasciitis?

a)

Alpha Streptococcus

b)

Group D Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

c)

Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

d)

Staphylococcus Dermatitis

44.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Primaxin (Imipenem/Cilastatin)?

a)

Seizures

b)

Headache

c)

Insomnia

d)

Somnolence

e)

Constipation

45.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following?

a)

Cefditoren (Spectracef) --> 3rd Gen

b)

Cephalexin (Keflex) --> 1st Gen

c)

Cefuroxime Axetil --> 2nd Gen

d)

Cefoperazone (Cefobid) --> 3rd Gen

e)

Cefpodoxime (Vantin) --> 3rd Gen

46.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to grow on a MacConkey agar?

a)

Bacillus anthraces

b)

Serratia marcescens

c)

Escherichia Coli

d)

Streptobacillus Moniliformis

e)

Providencia Stuartii

47.

Which of the following is involved in the pharmacological action of Primaxin? (SATA) Inhibition of:

a)

Transpeptidase

b)

Carbapenemase

c)

Penicillinase

d)

Dehydropeptidase

e)

Peptidoglycan crosslinking

48.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Daptomycin (Cubicin)?

a)

Coagulation

b)

Nausea and Vomiting

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Eosiniophilic Pneumonia

49.

Which of the following is an Isoxazollyl Penicillin that can be administered parenterally?

a)

Oxacillin (Bactocill)

b)

Nafcillin (Unipen)

c)

Dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

d)

Methicillin (Staphcillin)

e)

Cloxacillin (Tegopen)

50.

All of the following are common to the glycopeptide antibacterials that are Vancomycin (Vancocin) derivatives EXCEPT:

a)

IV administration

b)

Concentration-dependent bacterial activity

c)

Long-acting

d)

Effectiveness against VRE

e)

Production of the red man syndrome

51.

Select the INCORRECT statement:

a)

Teicoplanin has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Vancomycin

b)

Vancomycin is administered IV and PO while Teicoplanin is administered IV, IM, and PO

c)

Vancomycin has a longer half-life than Teicoplanin

d)

Vancomycin is more likely than Teicoplanin to cause the red man syndrome

e)

Both Vancomycin and Teicoplanin undergo glomerular filtration

52.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce hemorrhagic episodes as an adverse effect?

a)

Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

b)

Cefazolin (Ancef)

c)

Moxalactam (Latamoxef)

d)

Cefotetan (Cofotan)

e)

Cefoperazone

53.

Considering the antibacterial spectrum of its contents, which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an indication of Recarbrio?

a)

Complicated UTI

b)

Complicated Intra-Abdominal Infections

c)

Healthcare-associated bacterial pneumonia

d)

Ventilator-associated bacterial pneumonia

e)

Anthrax

54.

Mr. Qua's endocarditis was caused by a HACEK organism; Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be implicated in Mr. Qua's Endocarditis?

a)

Haemophilus aphrophilus

b)

Acinetobacter baumannii

c)

Cardiobacterium hominis

d)

Eiknella corrodens

e)

Kingella Kingae

55.

Which of the following has been implicated in human-bite wounds? SATA

a)

Streptococcus anginosus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Eiknella corrodens

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

e)

Bacteroides fragilis

56.

Which of the following may result from therapy with Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) SATA

a)

Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea, and Flatulence

b)

Cholestasis

c)

Kernicterus

d)

Casts in the urine

e)

Pseudolithiasis

57.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to produce a Disulfiram-like action?

a)

Cefamandole (Mandol)

b)

Cephalexin (Keflex)

c)

Cefmetazole (Zefazone)

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Cefotetan (Cefotan)

58.

Which of the following statements about Fosfomycin is FALSE?

a)

It is used to treat cystitis caused by Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

b)

It is an inhibitor of the 2nd stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis

c)

It is used to treat uncomplicated UTI caused by Escherichia coli

d)

It is effective against Carbapenem-resistant Enterococcus faecalis

e)

It can inhibit RSV-induced inflammation in the lungs

59.

Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to Lipid II and Lipid III?

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Carbenicillin

c)

Bactoprenol

d)

Teixobactin

e)

Oritavancin

60.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be an adverse effect of Fetroja?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Atrial Fibrillation

c)

Seizures

d)

Elevation of AST and ALT

e)

Nausea and Vomiting

61.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by first using its siderophore properties to traverse the outer cell membrane of the susceptible bacterium?

a)

Cefdinir

b)

Cefpirome

c)

Cefsulodin

d)

Cefozopram

e)

Cefiderocol

62.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a 5th generation Cephalosporin?

a)

Cefpirome

b)

Ceftobiprole

c)

Cefmenoxime

d)

Cefpodoxime

e)

Ceftibuten

63.

Which of the following is an inhibitor of Pyruval Transferase?

a)

Seromycin (Cycloserine)

b)

Fosfomycin (Monural)

c)

Daptomycin (Cubicin)

d)

Cephamycins

e)

Vancomycin (Vancocin)

64.

Which of the following is an indication of Ampicillin? SATA

a)

Typhus

b)

Nocardiosis

c)

Shingellosis

d)

Gonorrhea

e)

Proteus mirabilis-induced UTI

65.

Amoxicillin is less effective than Ampicillin in the treatment of infections caused by all of the following species EXCEPT:

a)

Actinomyces

b)

Listeria

c)

Shigella

d)

Campylobacter

e)

Escherichia

66.

Additive hyperkalemia may result from the concurrent administration of Penicillin VK and all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Ramipril (Altace)

b)

Yaz (Ethinyl Estradiol/Drospirenone)

c)

Lasix (Furosemide)

d)

Invokana (Canagliflozin)

e)

Dyrenium (Triamterene)

67.

Which of the following is a Major Penicillin Determinant that is employed in the determination of Penicillin allergy?

a)

Benzylpenicillin

b)

Carboxypenicillin

c)

Penicilloyl-polylysine

d)

Benzylpenicilloy-propylamine

e)

Benzylpenicillolate

Similar Resources on Wayground

Category 1

70 questions

Category 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Chem and Phys changes ++

70 questions

Chem and Phys changes ++

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th - 7th Grade

Chemistry Revision Quiz SA

64 questions

Chemistry Revision Quiz SA

quiz

Worksheet

•

1st - 3rd Grade

Partial 1 Chemistry

65 questions

Partial 1 Chemistry

quiz

Worksheet

•

2nd Grade

Science Practical Exam Exercise

67 questions

Science Practical Exam Exercise

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade

Important Hard Quz

71 questions

Important Hard Quz

quiz

Worksheet

•

4th Grade

Review Gas Pressure NP #1-#4

67 questions

Review Gas Pressure NP #1-#4

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Ionic

70 questions

Ionic

quiz

Worksheet

•

1st Grade