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Semester 2 Review - Honors Earth Science

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of the natural greenhouse effect involves...

a)

sunlight being reflected by the Earth's surface

b)

Direct heating of the Earth's core by solar radiation

c)

atmospheric gases absorbing incoming solar radiation

d)

outgoing heat being absorbed to warm Earth's atmosphere.

2.

Over the past 150 years the greenhouse effect has changed by...?

a)

increased emissions from human activities intensifying the effect

b)

deforestation has reduced its effect

c)

volcanic eruptions have increased its effect

d)

it hasn't; natural cycles remain the same

3.

Key reservoirs in the natural carbon cycle include which of the following?

a)

Mountains, rivers, and lakes

b)

Oceans, atmosphere, fossil fuels, and living organisms

c)

Forests, tundra, and savannas

d)

Deserts, glaciers, and volcanoes

4.

Proxies can tell climate scientists about paleoclimate by providing information on (choose all that apply):

a)

Past atmospheric temperatures

b)

Current weather patterns

c)

Future climate predictions

d)

past atmospheric composition

5.

Natural Sources of carbon dioxide include...

a)

Carbon Dioxide: Natural Sources - digestion, soil; Man-Made Sources - Plastic production, mining.

b)

Carbon Dioxide: Natural Sources - Photosynthesis, rainfall; Man-Made Sources - Wind energy, hydroelectric dams.

c)

Carbon Dioxide: Natural Sources - Lightning, snow; Man-Made Sources - digestion, decomposition

d)

Carbon Dioxide: Natural Sources - Respiration, volcanic eruptions; Man-Made Sources - Burning fossil fuels, deforestation.

6.

Natural Sources of methane include...

a)

Methane: Natural Sources - Wetlands, digestion; Man-Made Sources - Agriculture (rice paddies, livestock), landfills.

b)

Methane: Natural Sources - Forest fires, oceans; Man-Made Sources - Solar panels, wind turbines.

c)

Methane: Natural Sources - photosynthesis, mountains; Man-Made Sources - Electric cars, recycling.

d)

Methane: Natural Sources - photosynthesis, oceans; Man-Made Sources - respiration, tree planting.

7.

Feedback can be best described as:

a)

energy transfer between the Sun and Earth

b)

response from one part of a system to other parts

c)

volcanoes adding carbon to the atmosphere

d)

plants photosynthesizing

8.

Which sets of feedbacks is correct when responding to a warmer atmosphere?

a)

Hydrosphere: Melting ice reduces albedo, increasing warming (positive feedback). Biosphere: Increased plant growth absorbs more CO2 (negative feedback), but forest dieback releases CO2 (positive feedback). Geosphere: Thawing permafrost releases greenhouse gases (positive feedback).

b)

Hydrosphere: Increased evaporation decreases rainfall (negative feedback). Biosphere: Plant growth slows, reducing CO2 absorption (positive feedback). Geosphere: Erosion decreases greenhouse gas emissions (negative feedback).

c)

Hydrosphere: Ocean currents speed up, cooling the planet (negative feedback). Biosphere: Animals migrate, increasing CO2 absorption (negative feedback). Geosphere: Rock weathering absorbs less CO2 (positive feedback).

d)

Hydrosphere: Ice forms more rapidly, increasing albedo (negative feedback). Biosphere: Forests expand, releasing methane (positive feedback). Geosphere: Volcanic activity decreases, reducing CO2 (negative feedback).

9.

Which of the following are the main properties that make a substance a mineral?

a)

Naturally occurring, inorganic, solid, definite chemical composition, and crystalline structure

b)

Man-made, liquid, organic, variable composition, and amorphous structure

c)

Naturally occurring, organic, liquid, definite chemical composition, and crystalline structure

d)

Man-made, inorganic, solid, variable composition, and amorphous structure

10.

Identify number of protons, neutrons, and electrons for a neutral atom of Lead (Pb).

a)

82 protons, 207 neutrons, 82 electrons

b)

207 protons, 82 neutrons, 207 electrons

c)

125 protons, 82 neutrons, 125 electrons

d)

82 protons, 125 neutrons, 82 electrons

11.

Valence electrons behave differently in ionic, covalent, and metallic bonding. Which of these is correct?

a)

They are lost or gained in ionic bonds, shared in covalent bonds, and flowing in metallic bonds.

b)

They are shared in ionic bonds, transferred in covalent bonds, and non-moving in metallic bonds.

c)

They are flowing in ionic bonds, shared in metallic bonds, and lost in covalent bonds.

d)

They are flowing in ionic bonds, lost in metallic bonds, and gained in covalent bonds.

12.

Each of the following tools is used to test mineral hardness. Which tool is correctly matched with its approximate hardness on the Mohs scale?

a)

Glass plate - 2.5

b)

Fingernail - 5.5

c)

Penny - 3.5

d)

Steel nail - 2.0

13.

When determining the number of cleavage directions a mineral will break, you should look for:

a)

The color of the mineral

b)

The mineral's hardness

c)

The mineral's streak color

d)

The number of smooth, flat surfaces that reflect light

14.

Which correctly describes the difference between nonrenewable vs. renewable resources and identifies common examples of each.

a)

Difference: Nonrenewables cannot be replenished in a short time; renewables can. Nonrenewables: coal, oil, natural gas. Renewables: solar, wind, hydro.

b)

Difference: Nonrenewables are always more expensive; renewables are always free. Nonrenewables: wood, sunlight, wind. Renewables: coal, oil, natural gas.

c)

Difference: Nonrenewables are found only in oceans; renewables are found only on land. Nonrenewables: water, wind, sunlight. Renewables: oil, coal, natural gas.

d)

Difference: Nonrenewables are used only for food; renewables are used only for fuel. Nonrenewables: crops, wind, solar. Renewables: oil, coal, natural gas.

15.

Which describes how Michigan’s 4 major ores formed and identifies their main use?

a)

Iron: Formed from volcanic eruptions, used for jewelry. Copper: Formed from glacial deposits, used for food preservation. Salt: Formed from ancient forests, used for construction. Aggregate: Formed from evaporated seas, used for electronics.

b)

Iron: Formed from ancient seas, used for steel. Copper: Formed from volcanic activity, used for wiring. Salt: Formed from evaporated seas, used for de-icing and food. Aggregate: Formed from glacial deposits, used in construction.

c)

Iron: Formed from glacial deposits, used for food. Copper: Formed from evaporated seas, used for steel. Salt: Formed from volcanic eruptions, used for construction. Aggregate: Formed from ancient seas, used for wiring.

d)

Iron: Formed from meteor impacts, used for electronics. Copper: Formed from ancient seas, used for de-icing. Salt: Formed from volcanic activity, used for wiring. Aggregate: Formed from ancient forests, used for jewelry.

16.

A nuclear power plant produces electricity by:

a)

Burning fossil fuels to generate heat for turbines that spin generators

b)

neutrons splitting uranium atoms to heat water, producing steam that turns turbines.

c)

Harnessing wind energy to turn turbines. that spin generators

d)

hydrogen atoms combining to form helium atoms that generate heat

17.

Coal forms from the remains of plants that are buried and subjected to heat and pressure over millions of years. What is coal primarily used for in the United States?

a)

Generating electricity

b)

Making jewelry

c)

Building roads

d)

Producing plastic

18.

Multiple effects of coal mining on the environment include:

a)

Air and water pollution, habitat destruction, and greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Increased biodiversity and cleaner air through photosynthesis

c)

Reduction in soil erosion and improved water quality

d)

Enhanced forest growth and reduced air/water pollution

19.

Which best described petroleum and natural gas formation and modern uses?

a)

Formed from volcanic rocks; used for building materials

b)

Formed from oxidation of dissolved minerals; used for steel making

c)

Formed from marine organisms; used for fuel and plastics

d)

Formed from glacial erosion and deposition; used for construction

20.

Which of the following is original evidence supporting continental drift, and why was the theory initially rejected?

a)

Similar weather patterns across continents; no other evidence

b)

Identical fossils on different continents; no other evidence

c)

ages of the ocean floor and paleomagnetism; no clear explanation of movement

d)

Matching fossils on different continents; no clear mechanism for movement

21.

Which of the following modern evidences support Plate Tectonic theory? (choose all that apply)

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Sea Floor Features

c)

Paleomagnetism and Sea Floor ages

d)

Hot Spots producing multiple islands

22.

Describe the composition of and list activity within Earth’s crust, mantle, outer core, and inner core.

a)

The crust is solid rock, the mantle is semi-solid rock with convection currents, the outer core is liquid iron and nickel, and the inner core is solid iron and nickel.

b)

The crust is liquid, the mantle is solid, the outer core is gas, and the inner core is plasma.

c)

The crust and mantle are both liquid, the outer core is solid, and the inner core is gas.

d)

All layers are made of the same material and have no activity.

23.

Oceanic plates are ______ compared to continental plates.

a)

thicker, less dense, older, and made of granite

b)

thicker, denser, younger, and made of granite

c)

thinner, denser, younger, and made of basalt

d)

thinner, less dense, older, and made of basalt

24.

Sea floor spreading is driven by which process, and supported by which type of evidence?

a)

Convection currents; paleomagnetic evidence

b)

Tidal forces; fossil evidence

c)

Earthquakes; absolute age/isotope dating

d)

Volcanic eruptions; laws of superposition

25.

Divergence is a process that creates which of the following landforms, and can be observed at which locations on Earth?

a)

Fold mountains; Himalayan mountains

b)

Mid-ocean ridges; Mid-Atlantic Ridge & Iceland

c)

Volcanic islands; Peru-Chile and Aleutian trenches

d)

Volcanic islands; Hawaiian islands

26.

Which general feature (and specific example) forms by convergence?

a)

Mid-ocean ridges, Atlantic Ocean

b)

Folded mountains, Himalayas

c)

Rift valleys, East Africa

d)

Shield volcanoes, Hawaii

27.

Which statement best describes this role that density plays in convergence?

a)

Ocean plate subducts beneath continental plate, while in continent-continent convergence, neither plate subducts.

b)

Older plates are always denser than younger plates so it depends on the age.

c)

Both plates always subduct in both types of convergence.

d)

Density has no effect on plate subduction.

28.

Some convergent boundaries produce volcanic mountain ranges, while others do not, because:

a)

oceanic-continental convergence causes subduction and melting, forming volcanoes, while continental-continental convergence causes folding.

b)

oceanic-continental convergence causes folding, while continental-continental convergence causes subduction and melting.

c)

there is no scientific reason so each convergent boundary is different from another

d)

this is false; volcanic mountain ranges only form at divergent boundaries

29.

The process taking place at transform boundaries and their locations on Earth can be described as:

a)

Plates moving away from each other, forming mid-ocean ridges.

b)

Plates colliding, creating mountain ranges like the Himalayas.

c)

Plates subducting beneath one another, forming deep ocean trenches.

d)

Plates sliding past each other, commonly found at the San Andreas Fault in California.

30.

The relationship between plate tectonics, elastic rebound, and earthquakes is that:

a)

Plate tectonics cause stress to build up along faults, elastic rebound releases this stress, resulting in earthquakes.

b)

Elastic rebound causes plate tectonics to move, which then creates earthquakes.

c)

Earthquakes cause plate tectonics to shift, leading to elastic rebound.

d)

Plate tectonics and elastic rebound are unrelated to earthquakes.

31.

The difference between an earthquake’s epicenter and its focus is that the epicenter is:

a)

the point inside the Earth where the earthquake starts

b)

the point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus

c)

the location where seismic waves are weakest

d)

the area where the most damage occurs

32.

Some earthquakes cause tsunamis (ex: 2011 Japan quake) while others do not because:

a)

Only undersea earthquakes that cause significant seafloor displacement can generate tsunamis.

b)

All earthquakes, regardless of location, generate tsunamis.

c)

Earthquakes only cause tsunamis if they occur on land.

d)

Tsunamis are caused by volcanic eruptions, not earthquakes.

33.

Which of the following correctly describes the physical characteristics of Primary, Secondary, and Surface seismic waves?

a)

Primary waves are the slowest, travel only through gases; Secondary waves are the fastest, travel through liquids; Surface waves travel deep inside the Earth.

b)

Primary waves and Secondary waves both travel only on the surface; Surface waves travel through the Earth's core.

c)

Primary waves are the fastest, travel through solids and liquids; Secondary waves are slower, travel only through solids; Surface waves travel along the Earth's surface and cause the most damage.

d)

Primary waves cause the most damage; Secondary waves are the least destructive; Surface waves are not felt on the surface.

34.

Finding earthquake epicenters using the Richter method has which advantage over the Mercalli method?

a)

It provides quantitative measurements based on seismic waves.

b)

It relies on subjective human observations.

c)

It measures only the damage caused by the earthquake.

d)

It is easily understood by everyone.

35.

You can distinguish between coarse, fine, glassy, and vesicular igneous rock textures...

a)

By measuring the rock's weight and density.

b)

By checking the rock's general color.

c)

By testing the rock's reaction to acid.

d)

By examining sizes of crystals or holes or glassy surfaces

36.

How can you visually determine whether an igneous rock has a felsic or mafic composition?

a)

By observing the color.

b)

By observing the texture.

c)

By checking if the rock floats on water.

d)

By tasting the rock.

37.

Which statement best explains the differences between the formation and appearance of intrusive vs. extrusive igneous rocks?

a)

Intrusive rocks form below the surface and have large crystals; extrusive rocks form on the surface and have small crystals.

b)

Intrusive rocks form on the surface and have small crystals; extrusive rocks form below the surface and have large crystals.

c)

Both intrusive and extrusive rocks form below the surface and have large crystals.

d)

Both intrusive and extrusive rocks form on the surface and have small crystals.

38.

Hot spots create chains of volcanoes when...

a)

two tectonic plates collide at a subduction zone

b)

magma rises at a mid-ocean ridge

c)

earthquakes occur along transform boundaries

d)

a tectonic plate moves over a stationary mantle plume

39.

Volcanoes form along divergent boundaries when:

a)

tectonic plates move apart, allowing magma to rise and create new crust.

b)

tectonic plates collide, causing one plate to subduct beneath the other.

c)

magma cools and solidifies beneath the Earth's surface.

d)

earthquakes cause cracks in the crust, releasing magma.

40.

Which volcanic hazard(s) is/are most commonly associated with composite volcanoes?

a)

Pahoehoe Lava

b)

Lahar

c)

Pyroclastic Flows

d)

Aa Lava

41.

Which volcanic hazard(s) is/are most commonly associated with shield volcanoes?

a)

volcanic gases

b)

lahars

c)

lava flows

d)

pyroclastic Flows

42.

Which of the following correctly describes each weathering process?

a)

Ice Wedging involves freezing water expanding in cracks; Abrasion is the grinding of rocks; Dissolution is the process of minerals dissolving in water; Oxidation is the reaction of minerals with oxygen.

b)

Ice Wedging is caused by plant roots; Abrasion is chemical weathering; Dissolution is the melting of rocks; Oxidation is the freezing of water.

c)

Ice Wedging is the dissolving of rocks; Abrasion is the reaction with oxygen; Dissolution is the grinding of rocks; Oxidation is the expansion of water.

d)

Ice Wedging is the melting of ice; Abrasion is the dissolving of minerals; Dissolution is the reaction with oxygen; Oxidation is the grinding of rocks.

43.

Some rocks chemically weather faster than others because:

a)

they are different ages

b)

they are exposed to the different conditions

c)

they are different colors

d)

they have different mineral compositions

44.

Ice wedging leads to plucking and plucking leads to abrasion of glacial landscapes because:

a)

Ice wedging breaks rocks, allowing glaciers to pluck them, and the plucked rocks then scrape the landscape causing abrasion.

b)

Ice wedging melts glaciers, which then flow faster and cause abrasion.

c)

Plucking causes ice wedging, which then leads to abrasion.

d)

Abrasion causes plucking, which then leads to ice wedging.

45.

Which of the following correctly matches a glacial erosion feature with its description and formation process?

a)

U-Shaped Valley: Formed by river erosion, creating a V-shaped valley.

b)

Striations: Scratches on rock surfaces caused by glacial movement dragging rocks across the bedrock.

c)

Arete: A rounded hill formed by wind erosion.

d)

Cirque: A bowl-shaped depression formed by glacial plucking and abrasion at the head of a glacier.

46.

Bed load causes which of the following types of stream erosion?

a)

Downcutting, Meandering, Headward

b)

Only Downcutting

c)

Only Meandering

d)

Only Headward

47.

Which of the following correctly matches each river feature with the process by which it forms: Cut Bank, Oxbow Lake, Point Bar, Delta?

a)

Cut Bank - Erosion; Oxbow Lake - Both; Point Bar - Deposition; Delta - Deposition

b)

Cut Bank - Deposition; Oxbow Lake - Erosion; Point Bar - Both; Delta - Erosion

c)

Cut Bank - Both; Oxbow Lake - Deposition; Point Bar - Erosion; Delta - Both

d)

Cut Bank - Deposition; Oxbow Lake - Both; Point Bar - Erosion; Delta - Deposition

48.

Calculate the gradient (ft/mi) of a river with headwaters at 6,100 ft, delta at 2,700 ft, and a length of 25 miles.

a)

150 ft/mi

b)

136 ft/mi

c)

250 ft/mi

d)

200 ft/mi

49.

Describe how zones of saturation, aeration, and water tables change during a typical MI year.

a)

In spring, the water table rises and the zone of saturation expands due to increased precipitation and snowmelt.

b)

In summer, the water table rises and the zone of saturation expands due to decreased precipitation.

c)

In fall, the water table drops and the zone of saturation expands due to increased evaporation.

d)

In winter, the water table rises and the zone of aeration expands due to increased plant uptake.

50.

Describe how zones of saturation, aeration, and water tables change during a typical MI year.

a)

In late summer, the water table rises and the zone of saturation expands due to increased rainfall.

b)

In late summer, the water table drops and the zone of saturation shrinks due to increased evaporation and lower precipitation.

c)

In winter, the zone of aeration disappears completely as the ground becomes fully saturated.

d)

Throughout the year, the water table remains constant and there is no change in the zones of saturation or aeration.

51.

Describe the difference between the characteristics of aquifers vs. aquicludes (including common rock types).

a)

Aquifers are permeable rock layers that can store and transmit water, such as sandstone or gravel.

b)

Aquifers are impermeable rock layers that prevent water movement, such as clay or shale.

c)

Aquicludes are highly porous and always transmit water easily, such as granite or basalt.

d)

Aquicludes are layers that increase groundwater flow, such as limestone or sand.

52.

Explain multiple reasons why aquifers and aquicludes are necessary for humans.

a)

We need rocks that are aquicludes because they prevent the loss of groundwater and protect aquifers from contamination.

b)

Aquicludes are important because they increase the amount of rainfall in an area.

c)

Aquifers are necessary because they cause frequent flooding in cities.

d)

Aquicludes are needed because they make the soil more fertile for agriculture.

53.

Contrast the processes of regional metamorphism vs. contact metamorphism.

a)

Regional metamorphism occurs only at the Earth's surface due to weathering.

b)

Contact metamorphism involves large-scale pressure over wide regions.

c)

Regional metamorphism is caused by the cooling of rocks near glaciers.

d)

Contact metamorphism occurs when rocks are heated by nearby magma or lava, affecting a smaller area.

54.

Describe how each agent helps drive metamorphism.

a)

Heat increases the rate of chemical reactions and can cause minerals to recrystallize, forming new metamorphic rocks.

b)

Heat decreases the rate of chemical reactions and prevents minerals from changing.

c)

Heat causes rocks to melt completely, forming magma instead of metamorphic rocks.

d)

Heat has no effect on the minerals or structure of rocks during metamorphism.

55.

Describe how each agent helps drive metamorphism.

a)

Heat causes rocks to melt completely, turning them into magma.

b)

Water dissolves all minerals, leaving only empty spaces in rocks.

c)

Pressure compacts rocks and can cause minerals to align, forming foliated textures in metamorphic rocks.

d)

Wind erodes rocks, creating metamorphic layers.

56.

Describe how each agent helps drive metamorphism.

a)

Chemical fluids can introduce or remove elements, facilitating the growth of new minerals during metamorphism.

b)

Chemical fluids only break down rocks without changing their mineral composition.

c)

Chemical fluids prevent any mineral changes during metamorphism.

d)

Chemical fluids slow down the process of metamorphism by removing heat.

57.

Describe what "rock texture" looks like for each of the 2 metamorphic rock types.

a)

Foliated rocks have a glassy texture with no visible grains.

b)

Foliated rocks have a layered or banded appearance due to the alignment of minerals under pressure.

c)

Foliated rocks have a vesicular texture with many air pockets.

d)

Foliated rocks are always composed of only one mineral type.

58.

Describe what "rock texture" looks like for each of the 2 metamorphic rock types.

a)

Non-foliated rocks have a uniform texture without layers or bands, often composed of a single mineral.

b)

Foliated rocks are always glassy and have no visible grains.

c)

Non-foliated rocks are always metallic and magnetic.

d)

Foliated rocks are made only of fossils and shells.

59.

To find the parent rock for a metamorphic rock, you should:

a)

Examine its mineral composition

b)

Look at the color of the metamorphic rock.

c)

Check if the rock contains fossils.

d)

Determine the age of the rock using isotope (parent-daughter) method.

60.

The two key principles of geologic time are:

a)

Superposition and Cross-cutting relationships

b)

Relative dating and Absolute dating

c)

Original horizontality and Lateral continuity

d)

Uniformitarianism and Catastrophism

61.

You use each of the relative age laws when analyzing a geologic cross section to:

a)

Determine the sequence of rock layers and events.

b)

Measure the absolute age of rocks.

c)

Identify the chemical composition of rocks.

d)

Predict future geological events.

62.

Calculate # of half-lives (and half-life length) of a radioactive isotope when 12.5% remains after 21 Ma.

a)

Two half-lives have passed (100% → 50% → 25%), so each half-life is 10.5 Ma (21 Ma / 2).

b)

Four half-lives have passed (100% → 50% → 25% → 12.5% → 6.25%), so each half-life is 5.25 Ma (21 Ma / 4).

c)

One half-life has passed (100% → 50%), so each half-life is 21 Ma (21 Ma / 1).

d)

Three half-lives have passed (100% → 50% → 25% → 12.5%), so each half-life is 7 Ma (21 Ma / 3).

63.

Calculate the % parent isotopes remaining after 50,000 yrs when the half life is 10,000 yrs.

a)

After 5 half-lives (50,000 / 10,000), the remaining parent isotope is 3.125%.

b)

After 5 half-lives (50,000 / 10,000), the remaining parent isotope is 12.5%.

c)

After 5 half-lives (50,000 / 10,000), the remaining parent isotope is 25%.

d)

After 5 half-lives (50,000 / 10,000), the remaining parent isotope is 0.78%.

64.

Which correctly shows Earth’s atmosphere changing from primitive to modern day?

a)

CO2 --> O2/N2-->H/He

b)

H/He --> CO2 --> O2/N2

c)

CO2 --> H/He -->O2/N2

d)

O2/N2--> CO2 --> O2/N2